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  • onsubmit() does not work.

    - by the Hampster
    Here is something that I find disturbing. I created a small form, and I'm using AJAX to validate for me. I have a javascript function authenticate() that works sometimes. <form method="post" action="" id="login_form" onsubmit="authenticate()";> // various inputs <input type="button" onclick="authenticate()" value="Log In"> </form> authenticate() works just fine when I click the button. However, if I press enter the form is submitted, and it fails. It also fails if I call onSubmit(). In my debugging, I alert the outgoing texts-- they are identical. However, the Prototype Ajax function calls it the onSuccess, but there is just no response from the server. (The server outputs either "Success" or "Failure"). Why the different behaviors for onClick() vs onSubmit()? The exact same function is called, but the results are different. Any help would be appreciated. --Dave

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  • using Autofac in a multi-layered architecture

    - by Kamyar
    I'm fairly new to the DI/IoC concept and would like to use Autofac in a 3-layered ASP.NET Webforms application. UI layer: An ASP.NET webforms website. BLL: Business logic layer which calls the repositories on DAL. DAL: .EDMX file (Entity Model) and ObjectContext with Repository classes which abstract the CRUD operations for each entity. Entities: The POCO Entities. Persistence Ignorant. Generated by Microsoft's ADO.Net POCO Entity Generator. I have asked a more general question here. Basically, I'd like to create an obejctcontext per HttpContext in my DAL. But i don't want to add a reference to DAL in UI or access to HttpContext in DAL directly. I guess this is where IoC tools come to play. The answer to my previous question is a very good example of using Windsor Castle. I'd like to use Autofac as my IoC tool and Don't know how to achieve this. (How to access DAL in application_start to register the component while I don't want to reference it in my UI, what are the proper references to be able to use DAL component in BLL with Autofac, Should I register BLL as a component with Autofac too) Sorry folks for not providing an explicit question and requesting a kind of working example, But I'm very unfamiliar to the whole IoC concept and I don't think I can achieve it to use in my current time-limited project.

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  • How to estimate size of data to transfer when using DbCommand.ExecuteXXX?

    - by Yadyn
    I want to show the user detailed progress information when performing potentially lengthy database operations. Specifically, when inserting/updating data that may be on the order of hundreds of KB or MB. Currently, I'm using in-memory DataTables and DataRows which are then synced with the database via TableAdapter.Update calls. This works fine and dandy, but the single call leaves little opportunity to glean any kind of progress info to show to the user. I have no idea how much data is passing through the network to the remote DB or its progress. Basically, all I know is when Update returns and it is assumed complete (barring any errors or exceptions). But this means all I can show is 0% and then a pause and then 100%. I can count the number of rows, even going so far to cound how many are actually Modified or Added, and I could even maybe calculate per DataRow its estimated size based on the datatype of each column, using sizeof for value types like int and checking length for things like strings or byte arrays. With that, I could probably determine, before updating, an estimated total transfer size, but I'm still stuck without any progress info once Update is called on the TableAdapter. Am I stuck just using an indeterminate progress bar or mouse waiting cursor? Would I need to radically change our data access layer to be able to hook into this kind of information? Even if I can't get it down to the precise KB transferred (like a web browser file download progress bar), could I at least know when each DataRow/DataTable finishes or something? How do you best show this kind of progress info using ADO.NET?

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  • Internet Explorer Warning when embedding Youtube on HTTPS site?

    - by pellepim
    Our application is run over HTTPS which rarely presents any problems for us. When it comes to youtube however, the fact that they do not present any content over SSL connections is giving us some head ache when trying to embed clips. Mostly because of Internet Explorers famous little warning message: "Do you want to view only the webpage content that was delivered securely? This page contains content that will not be delivered using a secure HTTPS ... etc" I've tried to solve this in several ways. The most promising one was to use the ProxyPass functionality in Apache to map to YouTube. Like this: ProxyPass: /youtube/ http://www.youtube.com ProxyPassReverse: /youtube/ http://www.youtube.com This gets rid of the annoying warning. However, the youtube SWF fails to start streaming The SWF i manage to load into the browser simply states : "An error occurred, please try again later". Potential solutions are perhaps: Download youtube FLV:s and serve them out of own domain (gah) Use custom FLV-player and stream only FLV:s from youtube over a https proxy? Update 10 March: I've tried to use Googles Youtube API for ActionScript to load a player. It looked promising at first and I was able to load a player through my https:// proxy. However, the SWF that is loaded contains loads of explicit calls to different non-ssl urls to create authentication links for the FLV-stream and for loading different crossdomain policies. It really seems like we're not supposed to access flv-streams directly. This makes it very hard to bypass the Internet Explorer warning, short of ripping out the FLV:s from youtube and serving them out of your own domain. There are solutions out there for downloading youtubes FLV:s. But that is not compliant with the Youtube terms of use and is really not an option for us.

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  • Bubble sort algorithm implementations (Haskell vs. C)

    - by kingping
    Hello. I have written 2 implementation of bubble sort algorithm in C and Haskell. Haskell implementation: module Main where main = do contents <- readFile "./data" print "Data loaded. Sorting.." let newcontents = bubblesort contents writeFile "./data_new_ghc" newcontents print "Sorting done" bubblesort list = sort list [] False rev = reverse -- separated. To see rev2 = reverse -- who calls the routine sort (x1:x2:xs) acc _ | x1 > x2 = sort (x1:xs) (x2:acc) True sort (x1:xs) acc flag = sort xs (x1:acc) flag sort [] acc True = sort (rev acc) [] False sort _ acc _ = rev2 acc I've compared these two implementations having run both on file with size of 20 KiB. C implementation took about a second, Haskell — about 1 min 10 sec. I have also profiled the Haskell application: Compile for profiling: C:\Temp ghc -prof -auto-all -O --make Main Profile: C:\Temp Main.exe +RTS -p and got these results. This is a pseudocode of the algorithm: procedure bubbleSort( A : list of sortable items ) defined as: do swapped := false for each i in 0 to length(A) - 2 inclusive do: if A[i] > A[i+1] then swap( A[i], A[i+1] ) swapped := true end if end for while swapped end procedure I wonder if it's possible to make Haskell implementation work faster without changing the algorithm (there's are actually a few tricks to make it work faster, but neither implementations have these optimizations)

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  • Batch Geocoding with Garmin Mapsource

    - by Mike Trader
    Please Note: I AM NOT LOOKING FOR AN ALTERNATIVE SOLUTION I lost track of this effort years ago but have need to geocode thousands of addresses nightly. I must use the very accurate database sitting on the machine, installed when the Nuvi map update installed Mapsource. When I contacted Garmin years ago, they expressed an interest in providing an API for this, but then I heard nothing and did not follow up. Their database is provided by navtec? I believe. Anyone have experience with that format? I posted on the Garmin Developer forum a while ago, but its a little lethargic over there :) Has anyone done this? Does anyone know how it might be done without an API; meaning database structure and calls? I'll take a solution in any language. Added: Garmin has expressed an interest in making this available to me. They just have not done it. I do not know the database format. I am NOT looking for an online solution or any other "alternative". This question is very specific. Contact Info: MikeTrader2 A T gmail D O T com Added: I offered a 400 pt bounty for this. Jeff Atwood then offered 400pts also. If you would like to see a solution to this, vote up the question and I will chase up Garmin and show there is interest in finally providing this. Please Note: I AM NOT LOOKING FOR AN ALTERNATIVE SOLUTION

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  • Mocking inter-method dependencies

    - by Zecrates
    I've recently started using mock objects in my tests, but I'm still very inexperienced with them and unsure of how to use them in some cases. At the moment I'm struggling with how to mock inter-method dependencies (calling method A has an effect on the results of method B), and whether it should even be mocked (in the sense of using a mocking framework) at all? Take for example a Java Iterator? It is easy enough to mock the next() call to return the correct values, but how do I mock hasNext(), which depends on how many times next() has been called? Currently I'm using a List.Iterator as I could find no way to properly mock one. Does Martin Fowler's distinction between mocks and stubs come into play here? Should I rather write my own IteratorMock? Also consider the following example. The method to be tested calls mockObject.setX() and later on mockObject.getX(). Is there any way that I can create such a mock (without writing my own) which will allow the returned value of getX to depend on what was passed to setX?

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  • What's the best practice to setup testing for ASP.Net MVC? What to use/process/etc?

    - by melaos
    hi there, i'm trying to learn how to properly setup testing for an ASP.Net MVC. and from what i've been reading here and there thus far, the definition of legacy code kind of piques my interests, where it mentions that legacy codes are any codes without unit tests. so i did my project in a hurry not having the time to properly setup unit tests for the app and i'm still learning how to properly do TDD and unit testing at the same time. then i came upon selenium IDE/RC and was using it to test on the browser end. it was during that time too that i came upon the concept of integration testing, so from my understanding it seems that unit testing should be done to define the test and basic assumptions of each function, and if the function is dependent on something else, that something else needs to be mocked so that the tests is always singular and can be run fast. Questions: so am i right to say that the project should have started with unit test with proper mocks using something like rhino mocks. then anything else which requires 3rd party dll, database data access etc to be done via integration testing using selenium? because i have a function which calls a third party dll, i'm not sure whether to write a unit test in nunit to just instantiate the object and pass it some dummy data which breaks the mocking part to test it or just cover that part in my selenium integration testing when i submit my forms and call the dll. and for user acceptance tests, is it safe to say we can just use selenium again? Am i missing something or is there a better way/framework? i'm trying to put in more tests for regression testing, and to ensure that nothing breaks when we put in new features. i also like the idea of TDD because it helps to better define the function, sort of like a meta documentation. thanks!! hope this question isn't too subjective because i need it for my case.

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  • twitter bootstrap typeahead (method 'toLowerCase' of undefined)

    - by mmoscosa
    I am trying to use twitter bootstrap to get the manufacturers from my DB. Because twitter bootstrap typeahead does not support ajax calls I am using this fork: https://gist.github.com/1866577 In that page there is this comment that mentions how to do exactly what I want to do. The problem is when I run my code I keep on getting: Uncaught TypeError: Cannot call method 'toLowerCase' of undefined I googled around and came tried changing my jquery file to both using the minified and non minified as well as the one hosted on google code and I kept getting the same error. My code currently is as follows: $('#manufacturer').typeahead({ source: function(typeahead, query){ $.ajax({ url: window.location.origin+"/bows/get_manufacturers.json", type: "POST", data: "", dataType: "JSON", async: false, success: function(results){ var manufacturers = new Array; $.map(results.data.manufacturers, function(data, item){ var group; group = { manufacturer_id: data.Manufacturer.id, manufacturer: data.Manufacturer.manufacturer }; manufacturers.push(group); }); typeahead.process(manufacturers); } }); }, property: 'name', items:11, onselect: function (obj) { } }); on the url field I added the window.location.origin to avoid any problems as already discussed on another question Also before I was using $.each() and then decided to use $.map() as recomended Tomislav Markovski in a similar question Anyone has any idea why I keep getting this problem?! Thank you

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  • PoptorootViewController fails then removes all Viewcontrollers

    - by Spyker
    Trying to fix a very strange error, i have 3 view controllers that start from the app delegate and push each other accordingly. The 3rd view controller then has a toolbar button that calls the code here: -(void)showEventBrowser; { accelManeger.delegate = nil; NSLog(@"%u",[self.navigationController.viewControllers count]); [self.navigationController popToRootViewControllerAnimated:NO]; } This works the first time round but when i come back to this view controller and try again. Firstly it reports that there are 3 view controllers on the stack. It then deallocs the 2nd view controller in the stack and doesnt crash but will not go any further. If i hit the button again it says there are no view controllers on the stack and fails to respond. I have logs for all the viewdid, viewwill, e.t.c in each view controller and there appears to be no odd behaviour. Also no memory warnings from any view controllers. Why would this work once through but not the second time ?

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  • Rails: Custom template for email "deliver_" method?

    - by neezer
    I'm building an email system that stores my different emails in the database and calls the appropriate "deliver_" method via method_missing (since I can't explicitly declare methods since they're user-generated). My problem is that my rails app still tries to render the template for whatever the generated email is, though those templates don't exist. I want to force all emails to use the same template (views/test_email.html.haml), which will be setup to draw their formatting from my database records. How can I accomplish this? I tried adding render :template => 'test_email' in the test_email method in emailer_controller with no luck. models/emailer.rb: class Emailer < ActionMailer::Base def method_missing(method, *args) # not been implemented yet logger.info "method missing was called!!" end end controller/emailer_controller.rb: class EmailerController < ApplicationController def test_email @email = Email.find(params[:id]) Emailer.send("deliver_#{@email.name}") end end views/emails/index.html.haml: %h1 Listing emails %table{ :cellspacing => 0 } %tr %th Name %th Subject - @emails.each do |email| %tr %td=h email.name %td=h email.subject %td= link_to 'Show', email %td= link_to 'Edit', edit_email_path(email) %td= link_to 'Send Test Message', :controller => 'emailer', :action => 'test_email', :params => { :id => email.id } %td= link_to 'Destroy', email, :confirm => 'Are you sure?', :method => :delete %p= link_to 'New email', new_email_path Error I'm getting with the above: Template is missing Missing template emailer/name_of_email_in_database.erb in view path app/views

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  • How to disable auto-generated WCF configuration

    - by user351025
    Every time my program runs vs adds the default configuration to my app.config file. At that run it works fine, but at the next run it actually tries to read the config. The problem is that the default configuration has errors, it adds the attribute "Address", but attritbutes are not allowed to have capitals so it throws an exception. This means I have to remove the bad section every run! I've tried to configure the .config but it gives errors. Here is the code that I use to host the server: private static System.Threading.AutoResetEvent stopFlag = new System.Threading.AutoResetEvent(false); ServiceHost host = new ServiceHost(typeof(Service), new Uri("http://localhost:8000")); host.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(IService), new BasicHttpBinding(), "ChessServer"); host.Open(); stopFlag.WaitOne(); host.Close(); Here is the client code that calls the server: ChannelFactory<IChessServer> scf; scf = new ChannelFactory<IService> (new BasicHttpBinding(), "http://localhost:8000"); IService service = scf.CreateChannel(); Thanks for any help.

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  • Integrating Magento with SAP ECC 6.0 Backend

    - by ikarous
    I'm a freshly graduated (read: inexperienced) developer who's been tasked with determining the feasibility of integrating Magento with an SAP-based backend. No developer at our company has any experience working with either SAP or Magento, so I was hoping that the Stack Overflow community may be able to point me in the right direction with my research. We're a small company (four full-time developers) and the timeline on this project would be tight, so I'm trying to gather as much information as possible. The client has a tiered pricing structure, tax calculation logic, promotional deals, and automatic freight determination all implemented in an SAP ECC 6.0 system. They would like to migrate all their online stores over to Magento while continuing to utilize all existing functionality in SAP. The idea is to accomplish this by overriding certain modules in Magento to place remote calls to SAP BAPIs. I've investigated SAPRFC, which looks promising but relatively stale in terms of update frequency. Do any developers have experience using SAPRFC with SAP ECC 6.0 (with or without Magento integration)? If so, what were your experiences, and what were the biggest risk factors involved? Any comments, suggestions, or links to resources would be greatly appreciated.

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  • How to form submit and show a different page in ASP.Net MVC?

    - by melaos
    hi guys i'm new to asp.net mvc.. so basically i just build up a two page app which takes the registration information of the user and post it to the database. i use a lot of jquery and ajax calls to retrieve data from the database using linq to sql stored proc object. and currently i'm stuck at one page where after the user submits the form it should redirect him to /Home/AddProduct. What i found was the error: Validation of viewstate MAC failed. If this application is hosted by a Web Farm or cluster, ensure that <machineKey> configuration specifies the same validationKey and validation algorithm. AutoGenerate cannot be used in a cluster. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Web.HttpException: Validation of viewstate MAC failed. If this application is hosted by a Web Farm or cluster, ensure that <machineKey> configuration specifies the same validationKey and validation algorithm. AutoGenerate cannot be used in a cluster. what used on my form are basically a combination of html controls, asp.net controls and some asp.net mvc type controls. i submit the form using action="/Home/ProductAdded" and after doing some googling i found i was supposed to add in the machine key but after doing so, the index page becomes unviewable. because it couldn't find the index file now. removing the action helps, but now it just doesn't go anywhere. so what am i missing here? i feel i'm missing a lot of fundamentals understanding about asp.net mvc and i don't even know how to submit a form and go to a different page here!!

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  • Manipulating jQuery to retrieve the onclick function of an item which lies directly below the curren

    - by Stevie Jenowski
    First off, I want to thank you for looking into my question as I really do appreciate your time. I've built a list of items using php by having a foreach loop cycle through an associative array printing the array data as parameters of an onclick function call and gives each item it cycles through an ID of $thecount. All items retrieved have the same parent div and calls the very same onclick function, only with 11 different parameters. My question is how do I go about calling the onClick("function();") of an item directly below the current focus, making it the new focus, only without a physical click? If this is confusing to you whatsoever, I'm essentially building a dynamic playlist, and I've already implemented the listener for when the player's current item has finished playing, Now I'm having trouble grasping how I'd go about having the next item in the list become the new focus while also calling it's specific onClick() function once the player returns that it has finished with the current file. All without any user interaction besides the initial play call. If it helps I'm using the most recent release of Longtails' JW Player and once again thank you very much for your time!

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  • Google's Oauth for Installed apps vs. Oauth for Web Apps

    - by burgerguy
    So I'm having trouble understanding something... If you do Oauth for Web Apps, you register your site with a callback URL and get a unique consumer secret key. But once you've obtained an Oauth for Web Apps token, you don't have to generate Oauth calls to the google server from your registered domain. I regularly use my key and token from scripts running via an apache server at localhost on my laptop and Google never says "you're not sending this request from the registered domain." It just sends me the data. Now, as I understand it, if you do Oauth for Installed Apps, you use "anonymous" instead of a secret key you got from Google. I've been thinking of just using the OAuth for Web Apps auth method, then passing that token to an installed app that has my secret code embedded in its innards. The worry is that the code could be discovered by bad people. But what's more secure... making them work for the secret code or letting them default to anonymous? What really goes bad if the "secret" is discovered when the alternative is using "anonymous" as the secret?

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  • DirectShow Filter I wrote dies after 10-24 seconds in Skype video call

    - by Robert Oschler
    I've written a DirectShow push filter for use with Skype using Delphi Pro 6 and the DSPACK DirectShow library. In preview mode, when you test a video input device in the Skype client Video Settings window, my filter works flawlessly. I can leave it up and running for many minutes without an error. However when I start a video call after 10 to 24 seconds, never longer, the video feed freezes. The call continues fine with the call duration counter clicking away the seconds, but the video feed is dead, stuck on whatever frame the freeze happened (although after a long while it turns black which I believe means Skype has given up on the filter). I tried attaching to the process from my debugger with a breakpoint literally set on every method call and none of them are hit once the freeze takes place. It's as if the thread that makes the DirectShow FillBuffer() call to my filter on behalf of Skype is dead or has been shutdown. I can't trace my filter in the debugger because during a Skype call I get weird int 1 and int 3 debugger hard interrupt calls when a Skype video call is in progress. This behavior happens even with my standard web cam input device selected and my DirectShow filter completely unregistered as a ActiveX server. I suspect it might be some "anti-debugging" code since it doesn't happen in video input preview mode. Either way, that is why I had to attach to the process after the fact to see if my FillBuffer() called was still being called and instead discovered that appears to be dead. Note, my plain vanilla USB web cam's DirectShow filter does not exhibit the freezing behavior and works fine for many minutes. There's something about my filter that Skype doesn't like. I've tried Sleep() statements of varying intervals, no Sleep statements, doing virtually nothing in the FillBuffer() call. Nothing helps. If anyone has any ideas on what might be the culprit here, I'd like to know. Thanks, Robert

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  • how to verify browser IP for server-side web service

    - by Anthony
    I have a web service that needs to be able to verify the end-user's IP that called the server-script that is requesting the web service. Simple layout: Person A goes to Webpage B. Webpage B calls Web Service C to get some info on Person A. Web Service C won't give Webpage B the requested information without confirmation that the request originated from Person A's IP and not someone who has stolen Person A's session. I'm thinking that for a browser-based solution, the original site (Webpage B) can open an iframe that goes to the Web Service's authentication page. A key of some kind is passed to the browser which will some how indicate both the user's IP and Web Page B's IP, so that the Web Service can confirm that no one has nabbed anything. I have two challenges, but I'll stick to the more immediate one first: I'm not sure if my browser-based plan really makes sense. If someone steals the session cookie, how is the Web Service going to know? Would this cookie be held be Web Page B and thus be harder to steal? Is it a sound assumption that a cookie or key held by the server only and not the browser is safe? Also, would the web service, based on the iframe initial connection, be expecting the server/user-ip combo? What I mean is, does the session key provided via the iframe get stored by the web service and the Web Site B shows it has a match? Or is the session key more generic, meaning the web service is passed the key by Website B and the Web Service verifies that this is a valid session key based on what a valid session key should look like?

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  • UIView Controller mysteriously getting deallocated

    - by Dan Ray
    I have a UINavigation scheme with a "welcome" page, a middle page, and a detail page. In the middle page, there's a segmented controller that can swap the main body of that page between a table, a calendar, and a MKMapView, each implemented with their own view controller classes. Today I implemented the MapView and its annotations and all of that. It's nice. And a detail disclosure on each callout takes you to the detail page just the same way as if you'd gotten there via the table. Lovely. I also have a right-button-bar button that pushes in a "search" view. From there you can search the data I'm navigating. When it's done filtering the data (an array of objects I'm keeping in a data singleton), it makes the table reload its data, and calls my annotation-clearer-and-builder methods on the map view, and then pops itself out, so the "middle" page (including whatever view was in the guts of it) is back on the screen. Problem is, if I go back and forth between the map and the search a couple times, any mention of the table view causes us to crash with: *** -[CALayer retain]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x710b810. (I obviously have NSZombies turned on.) I put an NSLog in the dealloc method of my table view controller. That thing's never getting called. I don't know if we're ditching it behind the scenes for memory purposes, or if I'm leaking it and can't get my hands back on it, or what. I'm sort of at a loss about where to look. Any hints?

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  • Silverlight Data Access - how to keep the gruntwork on the server

    - by akaphenom
    What technologies are used / recommended for HTTP Rpc Calls from Silverlight. My Server Side stack is JBoss (servlets / json_rpc [jabsorb]), and we have a ton of business logic (object creation, validation, persistence, server side events) in place that I still want to take advantage of. This is our first attempt at bringing an applet style ria to our product, and ideally we keep both HTML and Silverlight versions. For better or worse the powers that be have pushed us down the silverlight path, and while flex / java fx / silverlight is an interesting debate, that question is removed from the equation. We just have to find a way to get silverlight to behave with our classes. Should I be defining .NET Class representation of our JSON objects and the methodology to serialize / deserialize access to those objects? IE "blah.com/dispenseRpc?servlet=xxxx&p1=blah&p2=blahblah creating functions that invoke the web request and convert the incomming response string to objects? Another way would be to reverse engineer the .NET wcf(or whatever) communications and implement the handler on the Java side that invokes the correct server side code and returns what .NET expects back. But that sounds much trickier. T

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  • Question about WeakReferences

    - by Impz0r
    Hey there, I've got a question regarding WeakReferences. I'm right now in the process of writing a "Resource Manager" who hast to keep references to created texture objects. I have a Dictionary like: Dictionary<uint, WeakReference> Where the first is, as you allready may guessed, the Resource Id and the second param is a WeakReference to the Resource itself. Right now my Resources do have a method to free themselfes from their Owner (i.e. Resource Manager). They do so in calling a method at the Resource Manger while passing a this reference to it. The ResMgr does lookup if it is a resource he keeps bookmark of and if so, does something like this: WeakReference result; if (m_Resources.TryGetValue(ResourceId, out result)) { if (result.IsAlive) return; (result.Target as Resource).free(); // free for good m_Resources.Remove(ResourceId); } The Problem I'm having is that the part after: if (result.IsAlive) is never reached because there are still leftover references to the Resource. The thing is, I do only have one Reference of the Resource in question and it releases itself like: resource.free(); // calls internally its owner (i.e. ResMgr) resource = null; I guess the left over reference would be the "resource" variable, but I cannot set it to null, because I do have to call free first. Quite a dilema... Well what I wanted to achive with this is a Resource Manager who keeps references to its owning Resources and release them ONLY if there is no reference left to not screw up something. Any idea how I may solve this in a clean fashion? Thanks in advance! Mfg Imp

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  • Using multiple sockets, is non-blocking or blocking with select better?

    - by JPhi1618
    Lets say I have a server program that can accept connections from 10 (or more) different clients. The clients send data at random which is received by the server, but it is certain that at least one client will be sending data every update. The server cannot wait for information to arrive because it has other processing to do. Aside from using asynchronous sockets, I see two options: Make all sockets non-blocking. In a loop, call recv on each socket and allow it to fail with WSAEWOULDBLOCK if there is no data available and if I happen to get some data, then keep it. Leave the sockets as blocking. Add all sockets to a fd_set and call select(). If the return value is non-zero (which it will be most of the time), loop through all the sockets to find the appropriate number of readable sockets with FD_ISSET() and only call recv on the readable sockets. The first option will create a lot more calls to the recv function. The second method is a bigger pain from a programming perspective because of all the FD_SET and FD_ISSET looping. Which method (or another method) is preferred? Is avoiding the overhead on letting recv fail on a non-blocking socket worth the hassle of calling select()? I think I understand both methods and I have tried both with success, but I don't know if one way is considered better or optimal. Only knowledgeable replies please!

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  • Possible to Inspect Innards of Core C# Functionality

    - by Nick Babcock
    I was struck today, with the inclination to compare the innards of Buffer.BlockCopy and Array.CopyTo. I am curious to see if Array.CopyTo called Buffer.BlockCopy behind the scenes. There is no practical purpose behind this, I just want to further my understanding of the C# language and how it is implemented. Don't jump the gun and accuse me of micro-optimization, but you can accuse me of being curious! When I ran ILasm on mscorlib.dll I received this for Array.CopyTo .method public hidebysig newslot virtual final instance void CopyTo(class System.Array 'array', int32 index) cil managed { // Code size 0 (0x0) } // end of method Array::CopyTo and this for Buffer.BlockCopy .method public hidebysig static void BlockCopy(class System.Array src, int32 srcOffset, class System.Array dst, int32 dstOffset, int32 count) cil managed internalcall { .custom instance void System.Security.SecuritySafeCriticalAttribute::.ctor() = ( 01 00 00 00 ) } // end of method Buffer::BlockCopy Which, frankly, baffles me. I've never run ILasm on a dll/exe I didn't create. Does this mean that I won't be able to see how these functions are implemented? Searching around only revealed a stackoverflow question, which Marc Gravell said [Buffer.BlockCopy] is basically a wrapper over a raw mem-copy While insightful, it doesn't answer my question if Array.CopyTo calls Buffer.BlockCopy. I'm specifically interested in if I'm able to see how these two functions are implemented, and if I had future questions about the internals of C#, if it is possible for me to investigate it. Or am I out of luck?

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  • Silverlight RIA Services - how to do Windows Authentication?

    - by Gustavo Cavalcanti
    I am building my first Silverlight 3 + RI Services application and need some help. It will be deployed in an controlled corporate intranet, 100% windows clients. I have started from the Silverlight Business Application template. These are my requirements: Upon launch the application needs to recognize the currently logged-in user. The application needs to have access to other properties of the user in AD, such as email, full name, and group membership. Group membership is used to grand certain features in the application. A "login as a different user" link is to be always available - Some machines are available throughout the enterprise, logged-in as a certain generic user (verified by the absence of certain membership groups). In this case one can enter credentials and log in (impersonate) to the application as a user different from the one already logged-into the machine. This user is to be used in service calls I have modified the following in the default Business Application template: App.xaml: appsvc:WindowsAuthentication instead of the default FormsAuthentication Web.config: authentication mode="Windows" With these modifications I resolve requirement #1 (get the currently logged-in user). But when I examine RiaContext.Current.User, I don't have access to other properties from AD, such as group memberships. How can I achieve my other requirements? Thanks for your help.

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  • Is an "infinite" iterator bad design?

    - by Adamski
    Is it generally considered bad practice to provide Iterator implementations that are "infinite"; i.e. where calls to hasNext() always(*) return true? Typically I'd say "yes" because the calling code could behave erratically, but in the below implementation hasNext() will return true unless the caller removes all elements from the List that the iterator was initialised with; i.e. there is a termination condition. Do you think this is a legitimate use of Iterator? It doesn't seem to violate the contract although I suppose one could argue it's unintuitive. public class CyclicIterator<T> implements Iterator<T> { private final List<T> l; private Iterator it; public CyclicIterator<T>(List<T> l) { this.l = l; this.it = l.iterator(); } public boolean hasNext() { return !l.isEmpty(); } public T next() { T ret; if (!hasNext()) { throw new NoSuchElementException(); } else if (it.hasNext()) { ret = it.next(); } else { it = l.iterator(); ret = it.next(); } return ret; } public void remove() { it.remove(); } }

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