Search Results

Search found 7513 results on 301 pages for 'actual'.

Page 204/301 | < Previous Page | 200 201 202 203 204 205 206 207 208 209 210 211  | Next Page >

• Accessing Elmah.axd with SqlErrorLog in SharePoint without adding user to db

  - by Chloraphil

  I have installed/configured Elmah on my personal SharePoint dev environment and everything works great since I'm logged in as admin, etc. I am using the MS Sql Server Error Log. (I am also using log4net to handle DEBUG/INFO/etc level logging and log statements are also stored in the db, in the same table as ELMAH's.) However, on the actual dev server (not my personal environment), when I access http://example/elmah.axd I get the error "Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON'". I understand that this is the traditional error for the "double-hop problem" but I don't even want my credentials to be passed along - I would just like the database access to be made with the credentials of the Application Pool Identity. When using the SP object model the SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges is available; however, I do not want to modify the Elmah source. My production environment precludes the use of SQL Server authentication, changing impersonation to false, or giving myself permissions on the db directly. How can I get this to work? Am I missing something?

  Read the article

• change the value of the button of the button clicked

  - by user269431

  On inserting the new <li>, I have to set the value of the button clicked to Delete. How can I do that? With the actual code, it`s working only once, and on adding other list, the button no more has the the value 'Delete'. $("#mylist :button").click( function() { var text = $(this).val(); if (text == "Delete") { $(this).parent().remove(); } else { $(this).val("Delete"); } }); $("#mylist li:last-child").live('click', function() { $(this).parent().append('<li>' + '<input type = "textbox">' + '<input type = "button" value= "Save">' + '</li>'); }); <div> <ul id="mylist"> <li id="1">1<button id="Button3">Delete</button> </li> <li id="2">2<button id="Button2">Delete</button></li> <li id="3">3<button id="another_entry">Save</button></li> </ul>

  Read the article

• Rails Associations - Callback Sequence/Magic

  - by satynos

  Taking following association declaration as an example: class Post has_many :comments end Just by declaring the has_many :comments, ActiveRecord adds several methods of which I am particularly interested in comments which returns array of comments. I browsed through the code and following seems to be the callback sequence: def has_many(association_id, options = {}, &extension) reflection = create_has_many_reflection(association_id, options, &extension) configure_dependency_for_has_many(reflection) add_association_callbacks(reflection.name, reflection.options) if options[:through] collection_accessor_methods(reflection, HasManyThroughAssociation) else collection_accessor_methods(reflection, HasManyAssociation) end end def collection_accessor_methods(reflection, association_proxy_class, writer = true) collection_reader_method(reflection, association_proxy_class) if writer define_method("#{reflection.name}=") do |new_value| # Loads proxy class instance (defined in collection_reader_method) if not already loaded association = send(reflection.name) association.replace(new_value) association end define_method("#{reflection.name.to_s.singularize}_ids=") do |new_value| ids = (new_value || []).reject { |nid| nid.blank? } send("#{reflection.name}=", reflection.class_name.constantize.find(ids)) end end end def collection_reader_method(reflection, association_proxy_class) define_method(reflection.name) do |*params| force_reload = params.first unless params.empty? association = association_instance_get(reflection.name) unless association association = association_proxy_class.new(self, reflection) association_instance_set(reflection.name, association) end association.reload if force_reload association end define_method("#{reflection.name.to_s.singularize}_ids") do if send(reflection.name).loaded? || reflection.options[:finder_sql] send(reflection.name).map(&:id) else send(reflection.name).all(:select => "#{reflection.quoted_table_name}.#{reflection.klass.primary_key}").map(&:id) end end end In this sequence of callbacks, where exactly is the actual SQL being executed for retrieving the comments when I do @post.comments ?

  Read the article

• Simple iPhone drawing app with Quartz 2D

  - by Mr guy 4

  I am making a simple iPhone drawing program as a personal side-project. I capture touches event in a subclassed UIView and render the actual stuff to a seperate CGLayer. After each render, I call [self setNeedsLayout] and in the drawRect: method I draw the CGLayer to the screen context. This all works great and performs decently for drawing rectangles. However, I just want a simple "freehand" mode like a lot of other iPhone applications have. The way I thought to do this was to create a CGMutablePath, and simply: CGMutablePathRef path; -(void)touchBegan { path = CGMutablePathCreate(); } -(void)touchMoved { CGPathMoveToPoint(path,NULL,x,y); CGPathAddLineToPoint(path,NULL,x,y); } -(void)drawRect:(CGContextRef)context { CGContextBeginPath(context); CGContextAddPath(context,path); CGContextStrokePath(context); } However, after drawing for more than 1 second, performance degrades miserably. I would just draw each line into the off-screen CGLayer, if it were not for variable opacity! The less-than-100% opacity causes dots to be left on the screen connecting the lines. I have looked at CGContextSetBlendingMode() but alas I cannot find an answer. Can anyone point me in the right direction? Other iPhone apps are able to do this with very good efficiency.

  Read the article

• JPA Lookup Hierarchy Mapping

  - by Andy Trujillo

  Given a lookup table: | ID | TYPE | CODE | DESCRIPTION | | 1 | ORDER_STATUS | PENDING | PENDING DISPOSITION | | 2 | ORDER_STATUS | OPEN | AWAITING DISPOSITION | | 3 | OTHER_STATUS | OPEN | USED BY OTHER ENTITY | If I have an entity: @MappedSuperclass @Table(name="LOOKUP") @Inheritance(strategy=InheritanceType.SINGLE_TABLE) @DiscriminatorColumn(name="TYPE", discriminatorType=DiscriminatorType.STRING) public abstract class Lookup { @Id @Column(name="ID") int id; @Column(name="TYPE") String type; @Column(name="CODE") String code; @Column(name="DESC") String description; ... } Then a subclass: @Entity @DiscriminatorValue("ORDER_STATUS") public class OrderStatus extends Lookup { } The expectation is to map it: @Entity @Table(name="ORDERS") public class OrderVO { ... @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name="STATUS", referencedColumnName="CODE") OrderStatus status; ... } So that the CODE is stored in the database. I expected that if I wrote: OrderVO o = entityManager.find(OrderVO.class, 123); the SQL generated using OpenJPA would look something like: SELECT t0.id, ..., t1.CODE, t1.TYPE, t1.DESC FROM ORDERS t0 LEFT OUTER JOIN LOOKUP t1 ON t0.STATUS = t1.CODE AND t1.TYPE = 'ORDER_STATUS' WHERE t0.ID = ? But the actual SQL that gets generated is missing the AND t1.TYPE = 'ORDER_STATUS' This causes a problem when the CODE is not unique. Is there a way to have the discriminator included on joins or am I doing something wrong here?

  Read the article

• HTTPWebResponse returning no content

  - by Richard Yale

  Our company works with another company called iMatrix and they have an API for creating our own forms. They have confirmed that our request is hitting their servers but a response is supposed to come back in 1 of a few ways determined by a parameter. I'm getting a 200 OK response back but no content and a content-length of 0 in the response header. here is the url: https://secure4.office2office.com/designcenter/api/imx_api_call.asp I'm using this class: namespace WebSumit { public enum MethodType { POST = 0, GET = 1 } public class WebSumitter { public WebSumitter() { } public string Submit(string URL, Dictionary<string, string> Parameters, MethodType Method) { StringBuilder _Content = new StringBuilder(); string _ParametersString = ""; // Prepare Parameters String foreach (KeyValuePair<string, string> _Parameter in Parameters) { _ParametersString = _ParametersString + (_ParametersString != "" ? "&" : "") + string.Format("{0}={1}", _Parameter.Key, _Parameter.Value); } // Initialize Web Request HttpWebRequest _Request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(URL); // Request Method _Request.Method = Method == MethodType.POST ? "POST" : (Method == MethodType.GET ? "GET" : ""); _Request.UserAgent = "Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 6.0; Win32)"; // Send Request using (StreamWriter _Writer = new StreamWriter(_Request.GetRequestStream(), Encoding.UTF8)) { _Writer.Write(_ParametersString); } // Initialize Web Response HttpWebResponse _Response = (HttpWebResponse)_Request.GetResponse(); // Get Response using (StreamReader _Reader = new StreamReader(_Response.GetResponseStream(), Encoding.UTF8)) { _Content.Append(_Reader.ReadToEnd()); } return _Content.ToString(); } } } I cannot post the actual parameters because they are to the live system, but can you look at this code and see if there is anything that is missing? Thanks!

  Read the article

• codeigniter & cjax framework, fatal error class 'CI_Controller' not found

  - by Martin

  I'm having this weird error with Codeigniter 2.1.3 and latest cjax for codeigniter. Weird thing is, when I download the latest codeigniter, and latest cjax framework for codeitniger and copy to my friends server, and call: domain.com/ajax.php?test/test2 to show the test ajax examples ... it works like a breeze, but when I do this on my server, I get server error (even tho, we both have same php version and such). Server then throws in error log file this error: PHP Fatal error: Class 'CI_Controller' not found in /hosting/www/domain.com/www/application/response/test.php on line 3 Now, I've read thru stackoverflow with people having this problem and solving by changing the construct and calling CI_Controller instead of Controller. But I already do that ... - I mean it's in the basic example that is suppose to work without touching the code, and it does, just not on my domain for some crappy reason. Ajax.php from cjax framework for codeingter should load controller from folder response, named test and call function test2, which looks like this (the actual file named test.php): class Test extends CI_Controller { function __construct() { parent::__construct(); } /** * * ajax.php?test/test/a/b/c * * @param unknown_type $a * @param unknown_type $b * @param unknown_type $c */ function test($a = null,$b = null, $c = null) { $this->load->view('test', array('data' => $a .' '.$b.' '.$c)); } /** * ajax.php?test/test2 * * Here we are testing out the javascript library. * * Note: the library it is not meant to be included in ajax controllers - but in front-controllers, * it is being used here for the sake of simplicity in testing. */ function test2() { $ajax = ajax(); $ajax->update('response','Cjax Works'); $ajax->append('#response','<br /><br />version: '.$ajax->version); $ajax->success('Cjax was successfully installed.', 5); //see application/views/test2.php $this->load->view('test2'); } I was hoping someone could bring some light into this problem - or maybe someone has already experienced it? Thanks for your time! Mart

  Read the article

• Android: SharedPreference: Defaults not set at startup...

  - by Allan

  I have Listpreferences in my app. They don't appear to be setting to their defaults right after installation - they appear to be null. I'm trying to figure out why my default preferences are not being set right after installation. In my main code I have: SharedPreferences sp = PreferenceManager.getDefaultSharedPreferences(this); InUnits = sp.getString("List1", "defValue"); InAngs = sp.getString("List2", "defValue"); OutUnits = sp.getString("List3", "defValue"); OutAngs = sp.getString("List4", "defValue"); Right after the above code executes, each variable contains "defValue" instead of the actual values I have assigned in my ListPreference below. My preference xml file is called, "settings.xml". Here's what one of the ListPreferences there looks like: <ListPreference android:key="List1" android:title="Input: Alph" android:summary="Choose Alph or Ralph" android:entries="@array/inputAlph" android:entryValues="@array/input_Alph_codes" android:dialogTitle="Input Alph" android:defaultValue="ININ"/> Here's what some of my strings.xml file looks like: <string-array name="inputUnits"> <item>Alph</item> <item>Ralph</item> </string-array> <string-array name="input_Alph_codes"> <item>ININ</item> <item>INMM</item> </string-array> When I go to menu, and then settings, I can see my defaults checked (radiobuttoned). Then when I go back from the settings menu to my main screen - all is well - for life! ...then each var above is assigned the proper default value. This only happens when I first install my app on the phone. After I go to the settings screen once and then right out of it, the app is fine and accepts any setting changes. By the way, as you can see, "List1" is the android:key within a file called settings.xml in my res/xml folder.

  Read the article

• ASP.NET MVC 2.0 Validation and ErrorMessages

  - by Raj Aththanayake

  I need to set the ErrorMessage property of the DataAnnotation's validation attribute in MVC 2.0. For example I should be able to pass an ID instead of the actual error message for the Model property, for example... [StringLength(2, ErrorMessage = "EmailContentID")] [DataType(DataType.EmailAddress)] public string Email { get; set; } Then use this ID ("EmailContentID") to retrieve some content(error message) from a another service e.g database. Then the error error message is displayed to the user instead of the ID. In order to do this I need to set the DataAnnotation validation attribute’s ErrorMessage property. It seems like a stright forward task by just overriding the DataAnnotationsModelValidatorProvider‘s protected override IEnumerable GetValidators(ModelMetadata metadata, ControllerContext context, IEnumerable attributes) However it is complicated now.... A. MVC DatannotationsModelValidator’s ErrorMessage property is readonly. So I cannot set anything here B. System.ComponentModel.DataAnnotationErrorMessage property(get and set) which is already set in MVC DatannotationsModelValidator so I cannot set it again. If I try to set it I get “The property cannot set more than once…” error message. public class CustomDataAnnotationProvider : DataAnnotationsModelValidatorProvider { protected override IEnumerable<ModelValidator> GetValidators(ModelMetadata metadata, ControllerContext context, IEnumerable<Attribute> attributes) { IEnumerable<ModelValidator> validators = base.GetValidators(metadata, context, attributes); foreach (ValidationAttribute validator in validators.OfType<ValidationAttribute>()) { messageId = validator.ErrorMessage; validator.ErrorMessage = "Error string from DB And" + messageId ; } //...... } } Can anyone please give me the right direction on this? Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• Yet another Subversion "Commit failed" MERGE of 'blabla': 200 OK

  - by marty3d

  Hi! I get the infamous "MERGE of 'whatever': 200 OK" whenever I try to commit using a post-commit hook on Windows (running the repository and Trac locally), and I'm going crazy. I've been looking all over for a day now, without finding any solutions. So here's how it's set up and what I've tried so far: Settings: Windows 7 (64-bit) VisualSVN Server TortoiseSVN Trac 0.11.6 I'm using the three standard scripts for post-commit on Windows. Everything works when I run post-commit.cmd from the command prompt with repo and changesetnumber as parameters. After extensive trouble-shooting, I found that if I remove the last line in trac-post-commit.cmd, Python "%~dp0\trac-post-commit-hook.py" -p "%TRAC_ENV%" -r "%REV%" -u "%AUTHOR%" -m "%LOG%", the Commit failed error goes away. Adding 1/0 (generating a division by zero error) in the python script doesn't show anything different. From the command prompt I get an error, though. Removing all code in the python script also makes the commit failed go away, so I guess the culprit is in trac-post-commit-hook.py. Perhaps if I could send the actual error to a log file, I could dig a little deeper, but I'm not sure how. post-commit.cmd: call %~dp0\trac-post-commit-hook.cmd %1 %2 trac-post-commit-hook.cmd: http://trac.edgewall.org/browser/trunk/contrib/trac-post-commit-hook?rev=920 Thank you so much, it would mean alot if someone could assist a little here! /Martin

  Read the article

• should I use Entity Framework instead of raw ADO.NET

  - by user110182

  I am new to CSLA and Entity Framework. I am creating a new CSLA / Silverlight application that will replace a 12 year old Win32 C++ system. The old system uses a custom DCOM business object library and uses ODBC to get to SQL Server. The new system will not immediately replace the old system -- they must coexist against the same database for years to come. At first I thought EF was the way to go since it is the latest and greatest. After making a small EF model and only 2 CSLA editable root objects (I will eventually have hundreds of objects as my DB has 800+ tables) I am seriously questioning the use of EF. In the current system I have the need many times to do fine detail performance tuning of the queries which I can do because of 100% control of generated SQL. But it seems in EF that so much happens behind the scenes that I lose that control. Article like http://toomanylayers.blogspot.com/2009/01/entity-framework-and-linq-to-sql.html don't help my impression of EF. People seem to like EF because of LINQ to EF but since my criteria is passed between client and server as criteria object it seems like I could build queries just as easily without LINQ. I understand in WCF RIA that there is query projection (or something like that) where I can do client side LINQ which does move to the server before translation into actual SQL so in that case I can see the benefit of EF, but not in CSLA. If I use raw ADO.NET, will I regret my decision 5 years from now? Has anyone else made this choice recently and which way did you go?

  Read the article

• should I use Entity Framework instead of raw ADO.NET

  - by user110182

  I am new to CSLA and Entity Framework. I am creating a new CSLA / Silverlight application that will replace a 12 year old Win32 C++ system. The old system uses a custom DCOM business object library and uses ODBC to get to SQL Server. The new system will not immediately replace the old system -- they must coexist against the same database for years to come. At first I thought EF was the way to go since it is the latest and greatest. After making a small EF model and only 2 CSLA editable root objects (I will eventually have hundreds of objects as my DB has 800+ tables) I am seriously questioning the use of EF. In the current system I have the need many times to do fine detail performance tuning of the queries which I can do because of 100% control of generated SQL. But it seems in EF that so much happens behind the scenes that I lose that control. Article like http://toomanylayers.blogspot.com/2009/01/entity-framework-and-linq-to-sql.html don't help my impression of EF. People seem to like EF because of LINQ to EF but since my criteria is passed between client and server as criteria object it seems like I could build queries just as easily without LINQ. I understand in WCF RIA that there is query projection (or something like that) where I can do client side LINQ which does move to the server before translation into actual SQL so in that case I can see the benefit of EF, but not in CSLA. If I use raw ADO.NET, will I regret my decision 5 years from now? Has anyone else made this choice recently and which way did you go?

  Read the article

• ASP.NET Create zip file for download: the compressed zipped folder is invalid or corrupted

  - by Jason Braswell

  string fileName = "test.zip"; string path = "c:\\temp\\"; string fullPath = path + fileName; FileInfo file = new FileInfo(fullPath); Response.Clear(); Response.ClearContent(); Response.ClearHeaders(); Response.Buffer = true; Response.AppendHeader("content-disposition", "attachment; filename=" + fileName ); Response.AppendHeader("content-length", file.Length.ToString()); Response.ContentType = "application/x-compressed"; Response.TransmitFile(fullPath); Response.Flush(); Response.End(); The actual zip file c:\temp\test.zip is good, valid, whatever you want to call it. When I navigate to the directory c:\temp\ and double-click on the test.zip file; it opens right up. My problem seems only to be with the download. The code above executes without any issue. A file download dialog is presented. I can chose to either save or open. If I try to open the file from the dialog, or save it and then open it. I get the following dialog message: The Compressed (zipped) Folder is invalid or corrupted. For Response.ContentType I've tried: application/x-compressed application/x-zip-compressed application/x-gzip-compresse application/octet-stream application/zip The zip file is being created with some prior code (that I'm sure is working fine due to my ability to open the created file directly) using: Ionic.zip http://www.codeplex.com/DotNetZip

  Read the article

• Cannot create list in SharePoint 2010 using Client Object Model

  - by Boris

  I am trying to utilize SharePoint 2010 Client Object Model to create a List based on a custom template. Here's my code: public void MakeList(string title, string listTemplateGUID, int localeIdentifier) { string message; string listUrl; List newList; Guid template; ListCreationInformation listInfo; Microsoft.SharePoint.Client.ListCollection lists; try { listUrl = title.Replace(spaceChar, string.Empty); template = GetListTemplate((uint)localeIdentifier, listTemplateGUID); listInfo = new ListCreationInformation(); listInfo.Url = listUrl; listInfo.Title = title; listInfo.Description = string.Empty; listInfo.TemplateFeatureId = template; listInfo.QuickLaunchOption = QuickLaunchOptions.On; clientContext.Load(site); clientContext.ExecuteQuery(); lists = site.Lists; clientContext.Load(lists); clientContext.ExecuteQuery(); newList = lists.Add(listInfo); clientContext.ExecuteQuery(); } catch (ServerException ex) { //... } } Now, this particular part, newList = lists.Add(listInfo); clientContext.ExecuteQuery(); the one that is supposed to create the actual list, throws an exception: Message: Cannot complete this action. Please try again. ServerErrorCode: 2130239231 ServerErrorTypeName: Microsoft.SharePoint.SPException Could anyone please help me realize what am I doing wrong? Thanks.

  Read the article

• Improve XPath efficiency for repeated, parameterized queries

  - by Chris Allan

  Hi, I am repeatedly performing the following XPath query (though parameterized by 'keywordText') around 40,000 times: String query = SystemGlobal.YAHOO_KEYWORDSSUBNODE + "/" + SystemGlobal.YAHOO_KEYWORDNODE + "[" + SystemGlobal.YAHOO_ATTRKEYPHRASE + "='" + keywordText + "']"; CachedXPathAPI cachedXPathAPI = new CachedXPathAPI(); NodeIterator nl = cachedXPathAPI.selectNodeIterator(doc.getElementsByTagName(SystemGlobal.YAHOO_KEYWORDSROOT).item(0), query); Node n; if ((n = nl.nextNode()) != null) { keyword.setKeywordId(Long.parseLong(cachedXPathAPI.selectSingleNode(n, SystemGlobal.YAHOO_ATTRKEYID).getTextContent())); keyword.setKeyPhrase(cachedXPathAPI.selectSingleNode(n, SystemGlobal.YAHOO_ATTRKEYPHRASE).getTextContent()); keyword.setStatus(mapStatus(cachedXPathAPI.selectSingleNode(n, SystemGlobal.YAHOO_ATTRSTATUS).getTextContent())); keyword.setCampaignId(Long.parseLong(cachedXPathAPI.selectSingleNode(n, "../../" + SystemGlobal.YAHOO_ATTRCAMPAIGNID).getTextContent())); keyword.setAdGroupId(Long.parseLong(cachedXPathAPI.selectSingleNode(n, "../" + SystemGlobal.YAHOO_ATTRADGROUPID).getTextContent())); On the first run of the script, all 40,000 runs of this piece of code will have nl.nextNode() == null, and everything runs quite quickly. However, on the following runs, when nl.nextNode() != null, then things slow down a lot - this takes around an additional 40min to run (whereas the first run takes maybe 1 minute). Oh, and the doc is constructed like so: InputSource in = new InputSource(new FileInputStream(filename)); DocumentBuilderFactory dfactory = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); dfactory.setNamespaceAware(true); doc = dfactory.newDocumentBuilder().parse(in); I tried including the following lines reportEvaluator = new XPathEvaluatorImpl(reportDoc); reportResolver = reportEvaluator.createNSResolver(reportDoc); and rather creating a NodeIterator, instead creating an XPathResult: XPathResult result = (XPathResult)reportEvaluator.evaluate(query, doc.getElementsByTagName(SystemGlobal.YAHOO_KEYWORDSROOT).item(0), reportResolver, XPathResult.UNORDERED_NODE_ITERATOR_TYPE, null); however this ran even slower Is there a way in which I can speed up the running of this script? I have seen references to precompiled queries, though I haven't seen many actual details. Also, as seen in the code, I am using CachedXPathAPI, though the benefit for this case is not so great. Any help is much appreciated! Chris Allan

  Read the article

• Exchanging strings (PChar) between a Freepascal compiled DLL and a Delphi compiled EXE

  - by John Riche

  After a lot of experimentations, I found a way to exchange PChar from a FreePascal compiled DLL with a Delphi compiled EXE. I'm in charge of both the DLL and EXE source code but one MUST BE in FreePascal and the other one in Delphi. My solution involves the following methods in the DLL: function GetAString(): PChar; var aString: string; begin aString := 'My String'; result := StrAlloc(length(aString) + 1); StrPCopy(result, aString); end; procedure FreeString(aString: PChar); begin StrDispose(aString); end; And from the Delphi EXE, to call the GetAString method, I need to Call the GetAString method, save the PChar to an actual Delphi String and call the FreeString method. Is this the best way of exchanging a string from a FreePascal DLL with a Delphi EXE ? Can I avoid the call to FreeString from Delphi ? And finally, if that's the correct solution, how will it behave with Delphi 2010 and the WideString by default: do I need to force WidePChar in FreePascal too ?

  Read the article

• NSDate dateFromString, how to parse 'around' UTC, GMT and User locale?

  - by RickiG

  Hi I parse some values from an xml file. There is a @"25-12-2010'T'23:40:00"string with the time and date and there is a string with the GMT offset like this @"+0200". So the above time is the 25. of December 23:40:00 in timeZone +0200 GMT. (or 21:40 UTC) I have lots of these dates with different GMT offsets. I have to display these dates as they are, i.e. They must not be changed to fit the locale of the user. So if time 1: is 22:45 +0500 then that is what I must show the user, even if the user is in a different timezone. I have all sorts of trouble with displaying, calculating and parsing these strings. If I use a dateFormatter and dateFromString the user specific GMT info will be included in the resulting NSDate meaning the above will be saved as 23:40:00 +0100 GMT because that is my phones setting and maybe 23:40:00 -0400 on a user from new New York's phone. When I subsequently do subtraction, addition and comparisons between these dates I have to keep the GMT offset around and everything gets worse if the phone switches locale settings, from when the date was parsed to when the date is displayed... Is there a way for me to extract this date from the string as UTC, then save it as an interval instead of an actual (timezone dependent) date. I know that is how dates are always saved internally. But I can't figure out how to do it with the separate GMT string and taking into account the users locale. Cheers

  Read the article

• Nested WHILE loops in Python

  - by Guru

  I am a beginner with Python and trying few programs. I have something like the following WHILE loop construct in Python (not exact). IDLE 2.6.4 >>> a=0 >>> b=0 >>> while a < 4: a=a+1 while b < 4: b=b+1 print a, b 1 1 1 2 1 3 1 4 I am expecting the outer loop to loop through 1,2,3 and 4. And I know I can do this with FOR loop like this >>> for a in range(1,5): for b in range(1,5): print a,b 1 1 1 2 1 3 1 4 2 1 2 2 2 3 2 4 3 1 3 2 3 3 3 4 4 1 4 2 4 3 4 4 But, what is wrong with WHILE loop? I guess I am missing some thing obvious, but could not make out. P.S: Searched out SO, found few questions but none as close to this. Don't know whether this could classified as homework, the actual program was different, the problem is what puzzles me.

  Read the article

• How do I convert an NSMutableString to NSString when using Frameworks?

  - by BWHazel

  I have written an Objective-C framework which builds some HTML code with NSMutableString which returns the value as an NSString. I have declared an NSString and NSMutableString in the inteface .h file: NSString *_outputLanguage; // Tests language output NSMutableString *outputBuilder; NSString *output; This is a sample from the framework implementation .m code (I cannot print the actual code as it is proprietary): -(NSString*)doThis:(NSString*)aString num:(int)aNumber { if ([outputBuilder length] != 0) { [outputBuilder setString:@""]; } if ([_outputLanguage isEqualToString:@"html"]) { [outputBuilder appendString:@"Some Text..."]; [outputBuilder appendString:aString]; [outputBuilder appendString:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", aNumber]]; } else if ([_outputLanguage isEqualToString:@"xml"]) { [outputBuilder appendString:@"Etc..."]; } else { [outputBuilder appendString:@""]; } output = outputBuilder; return output; } When I wrote a text program, NSLog simply printed out "(null)". The code I wrote there was: TheClass *instance = [[TheClass alloc] init]; NSString *testString = [instance doThis:@"This String" num:20]; NSLog(@"%@", testString); [instance release]; I hope this is enough information!

  Read the article

• WPF - Dynamic tooltip

  - by Al Mackenzie

  I have a class ToolTipProvider which has a method string GetToolTip(UIElement element) which will return a specific tooltip for the UIElement specified, based on various factors including properties of the UIElement itself and also looking up into documentation which can be changed dynamically. It will also probably run in a thread so when the form first fires up the tooltips will be something like the visual studio 'Document cache is still being constructed', then populated in the background. I want to allow this to be used in any wpf form with the minimum effort for the developer. Essentially I want to insert an ObjectDataProvider resource into the Window.Resources to wrap my ToolTipProvider object, then I think I need to create a tooltip (called e.g. MyToolTipProvider) in the resources which references that ObjectDataProvider, then on any element which requires this tooltip functionality it would just be a case of ToolTip="{StaticResource MyToolTipProvider}" however I can't work out a) how to bind the actual elemnt itself to the MethodParameters of the objectdataprovider, or b) how to force it to call the method each time the tooltip is opened. Any ideas/pointers on the general pattern I need? Not looking for complete solution, just any ideas from those more experienced

  Read the article

• zend gdata google base getting link url and parsing xml with object oriented php

  - by thrice801

  Hi, So I am using Zend frameworks Gdata extension to parse xml data from google base. http://framework.zend.com/manual/en/zend.gdata.gbase.html Working fine minus one damn important thing I cant seem to parse, the link to the actual page, because there are two elements and its returned as an array. Anyways Ive tried vardumping the array but what comes out didnt help me figure out what was going on any better. So heres the specifics of the issue. echo $entry->title->text."<br />".$entry->id->text."<br />".$entry->content->text."<br />".$entry->author[0]->name."<br />"; (the above code works fine). Now according to the documentation I thought I could get the link href by going $entry-link-text or $entry-link-url (tried both, neither worked). Anyways, Im not sure whether this is zend specific or just a gap in my OOP understanding, but any help would be much appreciated!

  Read the article

• How can I create a custom UIToolbar like component in a UITableViewController?

  - by Tony

  I have a UITableViewController. I want a "toolbar-ish" component at the bottom. I started by using a background image and a button. In interface builder, I added them to the bottom of the iPhone screen. The problem I ran into was that the background image and button scrolled with the table. I obviously need this fixed at the bottom. Not finding too much direction online, I decided to customize a UIToolbar to look how I want since the position is fixed by default. In my initWithNibName for my UITableViewController, I have: UIImage *shuffleButtonImage = [UIImage imageNamed:@"shuffle_button.png"]; NSArray* toolbarItems = [NSArray arrayWithObjects: [[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithImage:shuffleButtonImage style:UIBarButtonItemStylePlain target:self action:@selector(push:)], nil]; [toolbarItems makeObjectsPerformSelector:@selector(release)]; self.toolbarItems = toolbarItems; The problem I am running into now is that the "shuffleButtonImage" is not showing up properly. The shape of the button shows up fine but it is colored white and therefore does not look like the image. Does anyone know why a "white image" would be showing instead of the actual image? Also does it sound like a good idea to customize a UIToolbar or is there a simple way to ensure a fixed position "toolbar-ish" component. To reiterate - my "toolbar-ish" component only needs to be one button at the button of my UITableView. The single button has a gradient color background that I create with an image.

  Read the article

• Can get coordinates from iPhone simulator, but can't get coordinates from iPhone device

  - by iPhoneARguy

  Hi everyone, I've run into something of a mysterious bug (to me). I have some code to pick out the user's current location on the iPhone SDK. It works fine on the iPhone simulator, but when I try to run it on the actual device, I get a weird error. Here is the code (I am using ASIFormDataRequest to create a POST request): ASIFormDataRequest * request = [ASIFormDataRequest requestWithURL:url]; [request setPostValue:@"testauthor" forKey:@"author"]; [request setPostValue:[[NSNumber numberWithDouble:datum.location.coordinate.latitude] stringValue] forKey:@"latitude"]; NSLog(@"%f", datum.location.coordinate.latitude); NSLog(@"%f", datum.location.coordinate.longitude); [request setPostValue:[[NSNumber numberWithDouble:datum.location.coordinate.longitude] stringValue] forKey:@"longitude"]; [request setPostValue:datum.comment forKey:@"comment"]; On the simulator, NSLog does log both the latitude and longitude, but on the iPhone, it does not. Even stranger, when I go through with the debugger on the device, I try "po datum.location", I get <+###, -###> +/- 223.10m (speed 0.00 mps / course -1.00) @ 2010-05-02 22:18:37 -0400 (### replaced by my location) but when I do "(gdb) po datum.location.coordinate" I get: There is no member named coordinate. Do you guys have any idea why this might happen? Thanks in advance for your help!

  Read the article

• Activate COM object using website doesn't work in Windows 2003 server

  - by Tarun

  I have been trying really hard to activate and launch a COM object using an ASP.NET web application. The aspx website has a code-behind file that has a reference to this COM object (which is an actual application - a CAD software). When required, the VB code creates (or launches) the application. The complete set-up works in a Win-XP (32-bit) environment both under debugging using visual studio and when the website is accessed by an outside user (through IIS server in XP). But the same application doesn't get activated when it is hosted onto the Win-2003 (32-bit) IIS server. I get "Object reference not set to an instance of an object" error. The way I have setup in Win-XP was to grant ASP user and Internet guest user permissions to the COM object in the DCOM Config and since the windows firewall is enabled, I add the exe file (associated with the COM object) to the exception list. For the case of Win-2003 server, I add the Network Service permission to the COM object. But the setup doesn't seem to work at all. I am not sure what I am missing and how to get the application to launch. Any help will be greatly appreciated.

  Read the article

• WPF Control validation

  - by Jon

  Hi all, I'm developing a WPF GUI framework and have had bad experiences with two way binding and lots of un-needed events being fire(mainly in Flex) so I have gone down the route of having bindings (string that represent object paths) in my controls. When a view is requested to be displayed the controller loads the view, and gets the needed entities (using the bindings) from the DB and populates the controls with the correct values. This has a number of advantages i.e. lazy loading, default undo behaviour etc. When the data in the view needs to be saved the view is passed back to the controller again which basically does the reserve i.e. re-populates the entities from the view if values have changed. However, I have run into problems when I try and validate the components. Each entity has attributes on its properties that define validation rules which the controller can access easily and validate the data from the view against it. The actual validation of data is fine. The problem comes when I want the GUI control to display error validation information. It I try changing the style I get errors saying styles cannot be changed once in use. Is the a way in c# to fire off the normal WPF validation mechanism and just proved it with the validaiton errors the controller has found? Thanks in advance Jon

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 200 201 202 203 204 205 206 207 208 209 210 211  | Next Page >