Search Results

Search found 6524 results on 261 pages for 'the ever kid'.

Page 206/261 | < Previous Page | 202 203 204 205 206 207 208 209 210 211 212 213  | Next Page >

  • Cloning items in a listbox c#

    - by Jenny
    I have 2 list boxes and want to be able to copy selected items from one to the other how ever many times I want. Ive managed to do this but I have buttons on the 2nd list box that allow me to go up and down..Now when theres to items in the second list box that are the same (e.g "gills" and "gills") it doesnt behave normally and crashes. Is there a way in which I can get them to act as seperate items in the 2nd listbox? code private void buttonUp_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { object selected = listBox2.SelectedItem; int index = list2.Items.IndexOf(selected); listBox2.Items.Remove(selected); listBox2.Items.Insert(index - 1, selected); listBox2.SetSelected(index - 1, true); } private void buttonAdd_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { DataRowView selected = (DataRowView)listBox1.SelectedItem; string item = selected["title"].ToString(); listBox2.Items.Add(item); } It works fine when i havnt got duplicates but when i do they just jump around randomly when i press up/down. (ive not included down as its pretty much the same as up)

    Read the article

  • Secure Password Storage and Transfer

    - by Andras Zoltan
    I'm developing a new user store for my organisation and am now tackling password storage. The concepts of salting, HMAC etc are all fine with me - and want to store the users' passwords either salted and hashed, HMAC hashed, or HMAC salted and hashed - not sure what the best way will be - but in theory it won't matter as it will be able to change over time if required. I want to have an XML & JSON service that can act as a Security Token Service for client-side apps. I've already developed one for another system, which requires that the client double-encrypts a clear-text password using SHA1 first and then HMACSHA1 using a 128 unique key (or nonce) supplied by the server for that session only. I'd like to repeat this technique for the new system - upgrading the algo to SHA256 (chosen since implementations are readily available for all aforementioned platforms - and it's much stronger than SHA1) - but there is a problem. If I'm storing the password as a salted hash in the user-store, the client will need to be sent that salt in order to construct the correct hash before being HMACd with the unique session key. This would completely go against the point of using a salt in the first place. Equally, if I don't use salt for password storage, but instead use HMAC, it's still the same problem. At the moment, the only solution I can see is to use naked SHA256 hashing for the password in the user store, so that I can then use this as a starting point on both the server and the client for a more secure salted/hmacd password transfer for the web service. This still leaves the user store vulnerable to a dictionary attack were it ever to be accessed; and however unlikely that might be - assuming it will never happen simply doesn't sit well with me. Greatly appreciate any input.

    Read the article

  • How to stop MVC caching the results of invoking and action method?

    - by Trey Carroll
    I am experiencing a problem with IE caching the results of an action method. Other articles I found were related to security and the [Authorize] attribute. This problem has nothing to do with security. This is a very simple "record a vote, grab the average, return the avg and the number of votes" method. The only slightly interesting thing about it is that it is invoked via Ajax and returns a Json object. I believe that it is the Json object that is getting catched. When I run it from FireFox and watch the XHR traffic with Firebug, everything works perfectly. However, under IE 8 the "throbber" graphic doesn't ever have time to show up and the page elements that display the "new" avg and count that are being injected into the page with jQuery are never different. I need a way to tell MVC to never cache this action method. This article seems to address the problem, but I cannot understand it: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1441467/prevent-caching-of-attributes-in-asp-net-mvc-force-attribute-execution-every-tim I need a bit more context for the solution to understand how to extend AuthorizationAttribute. Please address your answer as if you were speaking to someone who lacks a deep understanding of MVC even if that means replying with an article on some basics/prerequisites that are required. Thanks, Trey Carroll

    Read the article

  • CCLabelAtlas setString doesn't update label

    - by JonnyFunFun
    Hello! I have a CCLabelAtlas that I have on a layer to display the current score within my game...the problem that I am having with it is that it does not update when I use [scoreLabel setString:]. Here's how I have it laid out: In the header: @interface GameScene : CCLayer { ... CCLabelAtlas* scoreLabel; } And in the init: scoreLabel = [[CCLabelAtlas alloc] initWithString:@"0" charMapFile:@"scoreCharMap.png" itemWidth:6 itemHeight:8 startCharMap:'.']; [scoreLabel setPosition:ccp(105, 414)]; [self addChild:scoreLabel z: 6]; scoreCharMap.png is a custom map that includes ./0123456789 of my desired font. When the score is changed, I attempt to do this to get the label to update with the current score: NSString* str = [[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:@"%d", [[GameRunner sharedInstance] currentScore]]; [scoreLabel setString: str]; [str release]; [scoreLabel draw]; Problem is that it doesn't ever update - it just sits there and displays 0. I know for a fact due to breakpoints and debugging that setString is being called, and that the string that it should be displaying is correct - but it just doesn't update. Hard-coding the value and saying [scoreLabel setString:@"1234"] does nothing, either. What am I doing wrong here? I am using Cocos2d 0.99 - thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Converting plain text in SQL to hyperlink in Access

    - by manemawanna
    Hello, I've just started a new job my first since leaving University and as part of this my first task is to convert a wholly Access 2003 database to an Access front-end, SQL back-end. The Access database consists of a series of front end forms to add or review staff data, as part of this there is hyperlinks pointing to a photograph of the employee and there CV located on a shared drive. These were saved as hyperlinks within the Access DB. I have since converted the data in the Access DB to SQL and stored it in a database for me to test on, now as part of the data conversion the photo and CV locations were converted to nvarchar from hyperlink. I've done this using SSMA. My issue now is that I need to have these text links displayed and working as hyperlinks on the front end hidden behind the words "Photo" and "CV", but am unsure as to how to go about this, as in the past I've only ever used SQL and not Access. Any help or suggestions would be appreciated and if I've not been clear in any areas please feel free to ask questions and I'll try to clear anything up for you.

    Read the article

  • cfml error with application.cfc page

    - by tibin mathew
    Hi, I have some problem with my cfml website. I have used the below code in application.cfc file to connect with the dsn. But when ever i put this in my server, i'm getting error. i cant browse even a single test.cfm page. Is there any mistake in that code , any syntax error or something like that, will it be some problem with the dsn <cfset this.name = "0307de6.netsolhost.com"> <cfset this.sessionmanagement = true> <cfset this.loginstorage="session"> <cfset this.sessiontimeout = CreateTimeSpan(0,0,30,0)> <cfset this.applicationtimeout = CreateTimeSpan(2,0,0,0)> <cffunction name="onApplicationStart"> <cfscript> application.DSN = "hirerodsn"; application.dbUserName = "myusr"; application.dbPassword = "myd69!"; </cfscript> </cffunction> <cffunction name="onRequestStart"> <cfscript> request.DSN = "hirerodsn"; request.dbUserName = "myusr"; request.dbPassword = "myd69!"; </cfscript> </cffunction> please anyone help me

    Read the article

  • Why is Microsoft under-supporting or under-developping VBNET?

    - by Will Marcouiller
    I ran into a situation where the lack of some features has become somewhat frustrating while developping in VB.NET 2.0. Since my first day of programming, I've always been a C programmer, and still am. Naturally, I chose C# as my favorite .NET language. Recently, a customer of mine has obliged that all of his development projects which disregard SharePoint development have to be written in VB.NET 2.0, that is to avoid conflictual systems to come into some problems. That is a legitimate choice of his which I approve somehow, since he's running some old central systems and is slowly migrating toward latest technologies. As for me, I would have prefered to go with C#, but then, never having done much VB in my life, I see it as an opportunity to learn somethings new, how to handle this and that in VBNET, etc. Except that the syntax is really too verbose for me, which is a pain! I got used to it and that is fine. However, I recently wanted to use the InternalsVisibleToAttribute which I discovered lastly here on SO. But then, in addition to not being able to have lambda expression that returns no value, which I discovered months ago, today I learn that I can't use the attribute in VBNET! Here is what I have read in an article: [...] Sorry VB.Net developers, Microsoft is again shunning you guys and this attribute is NOT available to you.... :( And here is the link: InternalsVisibleTo: Testing internal methods in .Net 2.0 I have heard from Anders Hejlsberg mouth while watching a Webcast from his presentation of .NET 4.0 Framework that the VBNET team was working or has worked in collaboration with the C# team (Eric Lippert and others) in order to bring VBNET to offer the same features as C# offers. But then, I say to myself that the VBNET team has a huge step forward to make, if already in .NET 2.0, some of the most important features lacked! So my question is this: Why is Microsoft under-supporting or under-developping VBNET? Will VBNET ever be lacking the C# features?

    Read the article

  • Why do people have to use multiple versions of jQuery in the same page?

    - by reprogrammer
    I have noticed that sometimes people have to use multiple versions of jQuery in the same page (See question 1 and question 2). I assume people have to carry old versions of jQuery because some pieces of their code is based on an older version of jQuery. Obviously, this approach causes inefficiency. The ideal solution is to refactor the old code to use the newer jQuery API. I wonder if there are tools that automate the process of upgrading a piece of code to use a newer version of jQuery. I've never written programs in in either Javascript or jQuery. So, I'd like to hear from programmers experienced in these language about their opinion on this issue. In particular, I'd like to know the following. How much of problem it is to have to load multiple versions of jQuery? Have you ever had to load multiple versions of any other library in the same page? Do you know of any refactoring tools that helps you migrate your code to use the updated API? Do you think such a refactoring tool is useful? Are you willing to use it?

    Read the article

  • Visual Studio 2005 - OleDbConnection throws "Invalid authorization specification" in Form Designer,

    - by Jason Dagit
    I have a form with an OleDbConnection object on it. This form fails to load in the Form Designer with the message: One or more errors encountered while loading the designer. The errors are listed below. Some errors can be fixed by rebuilding your project, while others may require code changes. Invalid authorization specification at ADODB.ConnectionClass.Open(String ConnectionString, String UserID, String Password, Int32 Options) ... (stack trace continues into user code) I've tracked this down to the OleDbConnection string. If I hardcode in the server IP, username/password/dbinstance into the constructor of the GUI form then the form will load in the designer. At run-time it is not an issue because we require the user to provide the login details. The question: Is it possible to use the OleDbConnection and the Form designer without supplying the database credentials in the source code of the form? For example, is there a property of the OleDbConnection or Form that I can set so that it doesn't need to access the database during Form design? My concern is that if we ever move the database server or change the login that the code will stop working in the designer.

    Read the article

  • When actually is a closure created?

    - by Jian Lin
    Is it true that a closure is created in the following cases for foo, but not for bar? Case 1: <script type="text/javascript"> function foo() { } </script> foo is a closure with a scope chain with only the global scope. Case 2: <script type="text/javascript"> var i = 1; function foo() { return i; } </script> same as Case 1. Case 3: <script type="text/javascript"> function Circle(r) { this.r = r; } Circle.prototype.foo = function() { return 3.1415 * this.r * this.r } </script> in this case, Circle.prototype.foo (which returns the circle's area) refers to a closure with only the global scope. (this closure is created). Case 4: <script type="text/javascript"> function foo() { function bar() { } } </script> here, foo is a closure with only the global scope, but bar is not a closure (yet), because the function foo is not invoked in the code, so no closure goo is ever created. It will only exist if foo is invoked , and the closure bar will exist until foo returns, and the closure bar will then be garbage collected, since there is no reference to it at all anywhere. So when the function doesn't exist, can't be invoked, can't be referenced, then the closure doesn't exist yet (never created yet). Only when the function can be invoked or can be referenced, then the closure is actually created?

    Read the article

  • Is Structuremap singleton thread safe?

    - by Ben
    Hi, Currently I have the following class: public class PluginManager { private static bool s_initialized; private static object s_lock = new object(); public static void Initialize() { if (!s_initialized) { lock (s_lock) { if (!s_initialized) { // initialize s_initialized = true; } } } } } The important thing here is that Initialize() should only be executed once whilst the application is running. I thought that I would refactor this into a singleton class since this would be more thread safe?: public sealed class PluginService { static PluginService() { } private static PluginService _instance = new PluginService(); public static PluginService Instance { get { return _instance; } } private bool s_initialized; public void Initialize() { if (!s_initialized) { // initialize s_initialized = true; } } } Question one, is it still necessary to have the lock here (I have removed it) since we will only ever be working on the same instance? Finally, I want to use DI and structure map to initialize my servcices so I have refactored as below: public interface IPluginService { void Initialize(); } public class NewPluginService : IPluginService { private bool s_initialized; public void Initialize() { if (!s_initialized) { // initialize s_initialized = true; } } } And in my registry: ForRequestedType<IPluginService>() .TheDefaultIsConcreteType<NewPluginService>().AsSingletons(); This works as expected (singleton returning true in the following code): var instance1 = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<IPluginService>(); var instance2 = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<IPluginService>(); bool singleton = (instance1 == instance2); So my next question, is the structure map solution as thread safe as the singleton class (second example). The only downside is that this would still allow NewPluginService to be instantiated directly (if not using structure map). Many thanks, Ben

    Read the article

  • Using Regex, how can I remove certain characters from inside angle-brackets, leaving the characters

    - by Iain Fraser
    Edit: To be clear, please understand that I am not using Regex to parse the html, that's crazy talk! I'm simply wanting to clean up a messy string of html so it will parse Edit #2: I should also point out that the control character I'm using is a special unicode character - it's not something that would ever be used in a proper tag under any normal circumstances Suppose I have a string of html that contains a bunch of control characters and I want to remove the control characters from inside tags only, leaving the characters outside the tags alone. For example Here the control character is the numeral "1". Input The quick 1<strong>orange</strong> lemming <sp11a1n 1class1='jumpe111r'11>jumps over</span> 1the idle 1frog Desired Output The quick 1<strong>orange</strong> lemming <span class='jumper'>jumps over</span> 1the idle 1frog So far I can match tags which contain the control character but I can't remove them in one regex. I guess I could perform another regex on my matches, but I'd really like to know if there's a better way. My regex Bear in mind this one only matches tags which contain the control character. <(([^>])*?`([^>])*?)*?> Thanks very much for your time and consideration. Iain Fraser

    Read the article

  • Overriding deep functions in javascript

    - by PintSizedCat
    I'm quite new to javascript but have undertaken a task to get better aquainted with it. However, I am running into some problems with jQuery. The following javascript is the code that is in a third party jQuery plugin and I would love to be able to override the funFunction() function here to do my own implementation. Is this possible, if so, how can I do it? I've been doing a fair amount of searching and have tried a number of methods for overriding the function using things like: jQuery.blah.funFunction = funtion() { alert("like this"); }; Main code: (function($) { $.extend( { blah: new function() { this.construct = = function(settings) { //Construct... stuff }; function funFunction() { //Function I want to override } } }); })(jQuery); For those further interested I am trying to override tablesorter so that the only way a user can sort a column is in ascending order only. Edit: There is a wordpress installation that uses WP-Table-Reloaded which in turn uses this plugin. I don't want to change the core code for this plugin because if there was ever an update I would then have to make sure that my predecessor knew exactly what I had done. I've been programming for a long time and feel like I should easily be able to pick up javascript whilst also looking at jQuery. I know exactly what I need to do for this, just not how I can override this function.

    Read the article

  • Debugging strategy to find the cause of bad_alloc

    - by SalamiArmi
    I have a fairly serious bug in my program - occasional calls to new() throw a bad_alloc. From the documentation I can find on bad_alloc, it seems to be thrown for these reasons: When the computer runs out of memory (which definitely isn't happening, I have 4GB of RAM, program throws bad_alloc when using less than 5MB (checked in taskmanager) with nothing serious running in the background). If the memory becomes too fragmented to allocate new blocks (which, again, is unlikely - the largest sized block I ever allocate would be about 1KB, and that doesn't get done more than 100 times before the crash occurs). Based on these descriptions, I don't really have anywhere in which a bad_alloc could be thrown. However, the application I am running runs more than one thread, which could possibly be contributing to the problem. By testing all of the objects on a single thread, everything seems to be working smoothly. The only other thing that I can think of that is going on here could be some kind of race-condition caused by calling new() in more than one place at the same time, but I've tried adding mutexes to prevent that behaviour to no effect. Because the program is several hundred lines and I have no idea where the problem actually lies, I'm not sure of what, if any, code snippets to post. Instead, I was wondering if there were any tools that will help me test for this kind of thing, or if there are any general strategies that can help me with this problem. I'm using Microsoft Visual Studio 2008, with Poco for threading.

    Read the article

  • Validating Application Settings Key Values in Isolated Storage for Windows Phone Applications

    - by Martin Anderson
    Hello everyone. I am very new at all this c# Windows Phone programming, so this is most probably a dumb question, but I need to know anywho... IsolatedStorageSettings appSettings = IsolatedStorageSettings.ApplicationSettings; if (!appSettings.Contains("isFirstRun")) { firstrunCheckBox.Opacity = 0.5; MessageBox.Show("isFirstRun not found - creating as true"); appSettings.Add("isFirstRun", "true"); appSettings.Save(); firstrunCheckBox.Opacity = 1; firstrunCheckBox.IsChecked = true; } else { if (appSettings["isFirstRun"] == "true") { firstrunCheckBox.Opacity = 1; firstrunCheckBox.IsChecked = true; } else if (appSettings["isFirstRun"] == "false") { firstrunCheckBox.Opacity = 1; firstrunCheckBox.IsChecked = false; } else { firstrunCheckBox.Opacity = 0.5; } } I am trying to firstly check if there is a specific key in my Application Settings Isolated Storage, and then wish to make a CheckBox appear checked or unchecked depending on if the value for that key is "true" or "false". Also I am defaulting the opacity of the checkbox to 0.5 opacity when no action is taken upon it. With the code I have, I get the warnings Possible unintended reference comparison; to get a value comparison, cast the left hand side to type 'string' Can someone tell me what I am doing wrong. I have explored storing data in an Isolated Storage txt file, and that worked, I am now trying Application Settings, and will finally try to download and store an xml file, as well as create and store user settings into an xml file. I want to try understand all the options open to me, and use which ever runs better and quicker

    Read the article

  • Oracle T4CPreparedStatement memory leaks?

    - by Jay
    A little background on the application that I am gonna talk about in the next few lines: XYZ is a data masking workbench eclipse RCP application: You give it a source table column, and a target table column, it would apply a trasformation (encryption/shuffling/etc) and copy the row data from source table to target table. Now, when I mask n tables at a time, n threads are launched by this app. Here is the issue: I have run into a production issue on first roll out of the above said app. Unfortunately, I don't have any logs to get to the root. However, I tried to run this app in test region and do a stress test. When I collected .hprof files and ran 'em through an analyzer (yourKit), I noticed that objects of oracle.jdbc.driver.T4CPreparedStatement was retaining heap. The analysis also tells me that one of my classes is holding a reference to this preparedstatement object and thereby, n threads have n such objects. T4CPreparedStatement seemed to have character arrays: lastBoundChars and bindChars each of size char[300000]. So, I researched a bit (google!), obtained ojdbc6.jar and tried decompiling T4CPreparedStatement. I see that T4CPreparedStatement extends OraclePreparedStatement, which dynamically manages array size of lastBoundChars and bindChars. So, my questions here are: Have you ever run into an issue like this? Do you know the significance of lastBoundChars / bindChars? I am new to profiling, so do you think I am not doing it correct? (I also ran the hprofs through MAT - and this was the main identified issue - so, I don't really think I could be wrong?) I have found something similar on the web here: http://forums.oracle.com/forums/thread.jspa?messageID=2860681 Appreciate your suggestions / advice.

    Read the article

  • Can I use Data URLs in Android 2.1's Webkit-based browser?

    - by Sven Haiges
    Hi all, I am writing a tutorial about the HTML5 Canvas for mobile and did some basic tests. While I can call the getDataURL() Method on an iPhone's HTML5 Canvas Element, it does not seem to return the data URL on Android 2.1 (Google Nexus One) and it's webkit-based default browser. Here is the sample: var dataURL = canvas.toDataURL(); var img = document.createElement('img'); img.setAttribute('src', dataURL); document.getElementById('box').appendChild(img); This will work on iPhone, it will add a new image element with the same content as the canvas. It does nothing or fails on Android 2.1. Has anyone ever gotten this to work? I am also wondering if anyone could help me with understanding the WebKit Build numbers and what it means with regards to what features I can expect. For the iphone, I see a build number of 528.18, on Android 2.1's Browser I see (from the user agent strign) a WebKit build 530.17. So it looks Android 2.1's webkit browser is more up to date, still some features work on iPhone's webkit but not on Android. Does this comparison just make no sense? Thanx all!

    Read the article

  • Suggestions on how build an HTML Diff tool?

    - by Danimal
    In this post I asked if there were any tools that compare the structure (not actual content) of 2 HTML pages. I ask because I receive HTML templates from our designers, and frequently miss minor formatting changes in my implementation. I then waste a few hours of designer time sifting through my pages to find my mistakes. The thread offered some good suggestions, but there was nothing that fit the bill. "Fine, then", thought I, "I'll just crank one out myself. I'm a halfway-decent developer, right?". Well, once I started to think about it, I couldn't quite figure out how to go about it. I can crank out a data-driven website easily enough, or do a CMS implementation, or throw documents in and out of BizTalk all day. Can't begin to figure out how to compare HTML docs. Well, sure, I have to read the DOM, and iterate through the nodes. I have to map the structure to some data structure (how??), and then compare them (how??). It's a development task like none I've ever attempted. So now that I've identified a weakness in my knowledge, I'm even more challenged to figure this out. Any suggestions on how to get started? clarification: the actual content isn't what I want to compare -- the creative guys fill their pages with lorem ipsum, and I use real content. Instead, I want to compare structure: <div class="foo">lorem ipsum<div> is different that <div class="foo"><p>lorem ipsum<p><div>

    Read the article

  • TDD test data loading methods

    - by Dave Hanson
    I am a TDD newb and I would like to figure out how to test the following code. I am trying to write my tests first, but I am having trouble for creating a test that touches my DataAccessor. I can't figure out how to fake it. I've done the extend the shipment class and override the Load() method; to continue testing the object. I feel as though I end up unit testing my Mock objects/stubs and not my real objects. I thought in TDD the unit tests were supposed to hit ALL of the methods on the object; however I can never seem to test that Load() code only the overriden Mock Load My tests were write an object that contains a list of orders based off of shipment number. I have an object that loads itself from the database. public class Shipment { //member variables protected List<string> _listOfOrders = new List<string>(); protected string _id = "" //public properties public List<string> ListOrders { get{ return _listOfOrders; } } public Shipment(string id) { _id = id; Load(); } //PROBLEM METHOD // whenever I write code that needs this Shipment object, this method tries // to hit the DB and fubars my tests // the only way to get around is to have all my tests run on a fake Shipment object. protected void Load() { _listOfOrders = DataAccessor.GetOrders(_id); } } I create my fake shipment class to test the rest of the classes methods .I can't ever test the Real load method without having an actual DB connection public class FakeShipment : Shipment { protected new void Load() { _listOfOrders = new List<string>(); } } Any thoughts? Please advise. Dave

    Read the article

  • SQL Server: A Grouping question that's annoying me

    - by user366729
    I've been working with SQL Server for the better part of a decade, and this grouping (or partitioning, or ranking...I'm not sure what the answer is!) one has me stumped. Feels like it should be an easy one, too. I'll generalize my problem: Let's say I have 3 employees (don't worry about them quitting or anything...there's always 3), and I keep up with how I distribute their salaries on a monthly basis. Month Employee PercentOfTotal -------------------------------- 1 Alice 25% 1 Barbara 65% 1 Claire 10% 2 Alice 25% 2 Barbara 50% 2 Claire 25% 3 Alice 25% 3 Barbara 65% 3 Claire 10% As you can see, I've paid them the same percent in Months 1 and 3, but in Month 2, I've given Alice the same 25%, but Barbara got 50% and Claire got 25%. What I want to know is all the distinct distributions I've ever given. In this case there would be two -- one for months 1 and 3, and one for month 2. I'd expect the results to look something like this (NOTE: the ID, or sequencer, or whatever, doesn't matter) ID Employee PercentOfTotal -------------------------------- X Alice 25% X Barbara 65% X Claire 10% Y Alice 25% Y Barbara 50% Y Claire 25% Seems easy, right? I'm stumped! Anyone have an elegant solution? I just put together this solution while writing this question, which seems to work, but I'm wondering if there's a better way. Or maybe a different way from which I'll learn something. WITH temp_ids (Month) AS ( SELECT DISTINCT MIN(Month) FROM employees_paid GROUP BY PercentOfTotal ) SELECT EMP.Month, EMP.Employee, EMP.PercentOfTotal FROM employees_paid EMP JOIN temp_ids IDS ON EMP.Month = IDS.Month GROUP BY EMP.Month, EMP.Employee, EMP.PercentOfTotal Thanks y'all! -Ricky

    Read the article

  • Can't log in a user in MVC!

    - by devlife
    I have been scratching my head on this for a while now but still can't get it. I'm trying to simply log in a user in an MVC2 application. I have tried everything that I know to try but still can't figure out what I'm doing wrong. Here are a few things that I have tried: FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie( emailAddress, rememberMe ); var cookie = FormsAuthentication.GetAuthCookie( emailAddress, rememberMe ); HttpContext.Response.Cookies.Add( cookie ); FormsAuthenticationTicket ticket = new FormsAuthenticationTicket( emailAddress, rememberMe, 15 ); FormsIdentity identity = new FormsIdentity( ticket ); GenericPrincipal principal = new GenericPrincipal(identity, new string[0]); HttpContext.User = principal; I'm not sure if any of this is the right thing to do (as it's not working). After setting HttpContext.User = principal then Request.IsAuthenticated == true. However, in Global.asax I have this: HttpCookie authenCookie = Context.Request.Cookies.Get( FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName ); The only cookie that ever is available is the aspnet session cookie. Any ideas at all would be much appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Subclassing an NSTextField

    - by Hooligancat
    Given all the complex things I seem to cover every day, this appears to be a "what the heck am I doing wrong that seems to simple?" scenario! I would like to subclass an NSTextField to change the background color and text color. For simplicity sake (and to help anyone who hasn't ever subclassed anything before), here is the example of my (simplified) subclass MyNSTextFieldSubclass... Step 1: Create the subclass file: First the header file @interface MyTextFieldSubclass : NSTextField { } @end And the method file @implementation MyTextFieldSubclass -(NSColor *)backgroundColor { return [NSColor redColor]; } -(NSColor *)textColor { return [NSColor yellowColor]; } @end Step 2: Drag an NSTextField to a window in Interface Builder, select the Identity tab in the inspector and select the class MyTextFieldSubclass Step 3: Save the IB file, build and run the application Problem When I run the build, the text field does not reflect the color subclassing. However, I know the subclass is being called because if I add the following method, it gets called on text changes. -(void)textDidChange:(NSNotification *)notification { NSLog(@"My text changed"); } So why does the color change not occur on the text fields? I know that I can set the color in IB, but for anyone who has dealt with a lot of UI elements that all need the same styling, subclassing makes life way, way easier. Ironically, I have never had to subclass an NSTextField before and this one has me stumped. As usual, any and all help very much appreciated. I'm sure it will turn out to be a "Doh!" moment - just cant see the wood for the trees right now (plus I'm exhausted from watching too much World Cup Football early in the morning which never helps).

    Read the article

  • Objective-C Simple Inheritance and OO Principles

    - by bleeckerj
    I have a subclass SubClass that inherits from baseclass BaseClass. BaseClass has an initializer, like so: -(id)init { self = [super init]; if(self) { [self commonInit]; } return self; } -(void)commonInit { self.goodStuff = [[NSMutableArray alloc]init]; } SubClass does its initializer, like so: -(id)init { self = [super init]; if(self) { [self commonInit]; } return self; } -(void)commonInit { self.extraGoodStuff = [[NSMutableArray alloc]init]; } Now, I've *never taken a proper Objective-C course, but I'm a programmer more from the Electrical Engineering side, so I make do. I've developed server-side applications mostly in Java though, so I may be seeing the OO world through Java principles. When SubClass is initialized, it calls the BaseClass init and my expectation would be — because inheritance to me implies that characteristics of a BaseClass pass through to SubClass — that the commonInit method in BaseClass would be called during BaseClass init. It is not. I can *sorta understand maybe-possibly-stretch-my-imagination why it wouldn't be. But, then — why wouldn't it be based on the principles of OOP? What does "self" represent if not the instance of the class of the running code? Okay, so — I'm not going to argue that what a well-developed edition of Objective-C is doing is wrong. So, then — what is the pattern I should be using in this case? I want SubClass to have two main bits — the goodStuff that BaseClass has as well as the extraGoodStuff that it deserves as well. Clearly, I've been using the wrong pattern in this type of situation. Am I meant to expose commonInit (which makes me wonder about encapsulation principles — why expose something that, in the Java world at least, would be considered "protected" and something that should only ever be called once for each instance)? I've run into a similar problem in the recent past and tried to muddle through it, but now — I'm really wondering if I've got my principles and concepts all straight in my head. Little help, please.

    Read the article

  • jquery disable/remove option on select?

    - by SoulieBaby
    Hi all, I have two select lists, I would like jquery to either remove or disable a select option, depending on what is selected from the first select list: <select name="booking" id="booking"> <option value="3">Group Bookings</option> <option value="2" selected="selected">Port Phillip Bay Snapper Charters</option> <option value="6">Portland Tuna Fishing</option> <option value="1">Sport Fishing</option> </select> Here's the second list (which will only ever have two values): <select name="charterType" id="charterType"> <option value="1">Individual Booking</option> <option value="2">Group Booking</option> </select> If Group Bookings or Port Phillip Bay Snapper Charters are selected, I need only "Group Booking" to be displayed. (To basically hide "Individual Booking") but I can't seem to get it to work.. If someone could help me that'd be great!! :) I've also tried using a switch, but that doesnt work either.. /* select list */ switch (jQuery('#booking :selected').text()) { case 'Sport Fishing': alert('AA'); break; case 'Port Phillip Bay Snapper Charters': jQuery("#charterType option[value=1]").remove(); alert('BB'); break; case 'Portland Tuna Fishing': alert('CC'); break; case 'Group Bookings': alert('DD'); break; }; It alerts, but doesn't do anything else..

    Read the article

  • What is the right way to make a new XMLHttpRequest from an RJS response in Ruby on Rails?

    - by Yuri Baranov
    I'm trying to come closer to a solution for the problem of my previous question. The scheme I would like to try is following: User requests an action from RoR controller. Action makes some database queries, makes some calculations, sets some session variable(s) and returns some RJS code as the response. This code could either update a progress bar and make another ajax request. display the final result (e.g. a chart grahic) if all the processing is finished The browser evaluates the javascript representation of the RJS. It may make another (recursive? Is recursion allowed at all?) request, or just display the result for the user. So, my question this time is: how can I embed a XMLHttpRequest call into rjs code properly? Some things I'd like to know are: Should I create a new thread to avoid stack overflow. What rails helpers (if any) should I use? Have anybody ever done something similar before on Rails or with other frameworks? Is my idea sane?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 202 203 204 205 206 207 208 209 210 211 212 213  | Next Page >