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• Android: Getting Error: Conversion to Dalvik format failed

  - by Rupesh C

  I am building an app on android and running into an error and while searching on net, came across your posting on this and changed the eclipse.ini to increase Xms and Xmx params but still this error does not go away. I am using Eclipse IDE for Java with Andrioid SDK 2.1 on Mac OS. Please help or please point me to someone who might know. Btw, this error only happens when i add external jar files (which i need for my project). here are the list of external jar files that i have in my classpath.) // httpclient-4.0.1.jar from apache // httpcore -4.0.1.jarfrom apache // commons-codec-1.3.jar from apache //commons-logging-1.1.1.jar from apache // json_simple-1.1.jar from google Here is the complete error: UNEXPECTED TOP-LEVEL EXCEPTION: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: already added: Lorg/apache/commons/logging/impl/AvalonLogger; [2010-05-02 21:57:05 - MyApp]     at com.android.dx.dex.file.ClassDefsSection.add(ClassDefsSection.java:123) [2010-05-02 21:57:05 - MyApp]     at com.android.dx.dex.file.DexFile.add(DexFile.java:143) [2010-05-02 21:57:05 - MyApp]     at com.android.dx.command.dexer.Main.processClass(Main.java:301) [2010-05-02 21:57:05 - MyApp]     at com.android.dx.command.dexer.Main.processFileBytes(Main.java:278) [2010-05-02 21:57:05 - MyApp]     at com.android.dx.command.dexer.Main.access$100(Main.java:56) [2010-05-02 21:57:05 - MyApp]     at com.android.dx.command.dexer.Main$1.processFileBytes(Main.java:229) [2010-05-02 21:57:05 - MyApp]     at com.android.dx.cf http://com.android.dx.cf.direct.ClassPathOpener.pro .direct.ClassPathOpener.processArchive(ClassPathOpener.java:244) [2010-05-02 21:57:05 - MyApp]     at com.android.dx.cf.direct.ClassPathOpener.processOne(ClassPathOpener.java:130) [2010-05-02 21:57:05 - MyApp]     at com.android.dx.cf.direct.ClassPathOpener.process(ClassPathOpener.java:108) [2010-05-02 21:57:05 - MyApp]     at com.android.dx.command.dexer.Main.processOne(Main.java:247) [2010-05-02 21:57:05 - MyApp]     at com.android.dx.command.dexer.Main.processAllFiles(Main.java:183) [2010-05-02 21:57:05 - MyApp]     at com.android.dx.command.dexer.Main.run(Main.java:139) [2010-05-02 21:57:05 - MyApp]     at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) [2010-05-02 21:57:05 - MyApp]     at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) [2010-05-02 21:57:05 - MyApp]     at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) [2010-05-02 21:57:05 - MyApp]     at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:592) [2010-05-02 21:57:05 - MyApp]     at com.android.ide.eclipse.adt.internal.sdk.DexWrapper.run(Unknown Source) [2010-05-02 21:57:05 - MyApp]     at com.android.ide.eclipse.adt.internal.build.ApkBuilder.executeDx(Unknown Source) [2010-05-02 21:57:05 - MyApp]     at com.android.ide.eclipse.adt.internal.build.ApkBuilder.build(Unknown Source) [2010-05-02 21:57:05 - MyApp]     at org.eclipse.core.internal.events.BuildManager$2.run(BuildManager.java:627) [2010-05-02 21:57:05 - MyApp]     at org.eclipse.core.runtime.SafeRunner.run(SafeRunner.java:42) [2010-05-02 21:57:05 - MyApp]     at org.eclipse.core.internal.events.BuildManager.basicBuild(BuildManager.java:170) [2010-05-02 21:57:05 - MyApp]     at org.eclipse.core.internal.events.BuildManager.basicBuild(BuildManager.java:201) [2010-05-02 21:57:05 - MyApp]     at org.eclipse.core.internal.events.BuildManager$1.run(BuildManager.java:253) [2010-05-02 21:57:05 - MyApp]     at org.eclipse.core.runtime.SafeRunner.run(SafeRunner.java:42) [2010-05-02 21:57:05 - MyApp]     at org.eclipse.core.internal.events.BuildManager.basicBuild(BuildManager.java:256) [2010-05-02 21:57:05 - MyApp]     at org.eclipse.core.internal.events.BuildManager.basicBuildLoop(BuildManager.java:309) [2010-05-02 21:57:05 - MyApp]     at org.eclipse.core.internal.events.BuildManager.build(BuildManager.java:341) [2010-05-02 21:57:05 - MyApp]     at org.eclipse.core.internal.events.AutoBuildJob.doBuild(AutoBuildJob.java:140) [2010-05-02 21:57:05 - MyApp]     at org.eclipse.core.internal.events.AutoBuildJob.run(AutoBuildJob.java:238) [2010-05-02 21:57:05 - MyApp]     at org.eclipse.core.internal.jobs.Worker.run(Worker.java:55) [2010-05-02 21:57:05 - MyApp] 4 errors; aborting [2010-05-02 21:57:05 - MyApp] Conversion to Dalvik format failed with error 1 Thanks, Rupesh

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• redoing object model construction to fit with asynchronous data fetching

  - by Andrew Patterson

  I have a modeled a set of objects that correspond with some real world concepts. TradeDrug, GenericDrug, TradePackage, DrugForm Underlying the simple object model I am trying to provide is a complex medical terminology that uses numeric codes to represent relationships and concepts, all accessible via a REST service - I am trying to hide away some of that complexity with an object wrapper. To give a concrete example I can call TradeDrug d = Searcher.FindTradeDrug("Zoloft") or TradeDrug d = new TradeDrug(34) where 34 might be the code for Zoloft. This will consult a remote server to find out some details about Zoloft. I might then call GenericDrug generic = d.EquivalentGeneric() System.Out.WriteLine(generic.ActiveIngredient().Name) in order to get back the generic drug sertraline as an object (again via a background REST call to the remote server that has all these drug details), and then perhaps find its ingredient. This model works fine and is being used in some applications that involve data processing. Recently however I wanted to do a silverlight application that used and displayed these objects. The silverlight environment only allows asynchronous REST/web service calls. I have no problems with how to make the asychhronous calls - but I am having trouble with what the design should be for my object construction. Currently the constructors for my objects do some REST calls sychronously. public TradeDrug(int code) { form = restclient.FetchForm(code) name = restclient.FetchName(code) etc.. } If I have to use async 'events' or 'actions' in order to use the Silverlight web client (I know silverlight can be forced to be a synchronous client but I am interested in asychronous approaches), does anyone have an guidance or best practice for how to structure my objects. I can pass in an action callback to the constructor public TradeDrug(int code, Action<TradeDrug> constructCompleted) { } but this then allows the user to have a TradeDrug object instance before what I want to construct is actually finished. It also doesn't support an 'event' async pattern because the object doesn't exist to add the event to until it is constructed. Extending that approach might be a factory object that itself has an asynchronous interface to objects factory.GetTradeDrugAsync(code, completedaction) or with a GetTradeDrugCompleted event? Does anyone have any recommendations?

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• Displaying a message in a dialog box using AJAX, jQuery, and CakePHP

  - by LainIwakura

  I have a form, and when users submit this form, it should pass the data along to a function using AJAX. Then, the result of that is displayed to the user in a dialog box. I'm using CakePHP (1.3) and jQuery to try and accomplish this but I feel like I'm running into the ground. The form will eventually be used for uploading images with tags, but for now I just want to see a message pop up in the box.. The form: <?php echo $this->Form->create('Image', array('type' => 'file', 'controller' => 'images', 'action' => 'upload', 'method' => 'post')); echo $this->Form->input('Wallpaper', array('type' => 'file')); echo $this->Form->input('Tags'); echo $this->Form->end('Upload!'); ?> The AJAX: $(document).ready(function() { $("#ImageUploadForm").submit(function() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "/images/upload/", data: $(this).serialize(), async: false, success: function(html){ $("#dialog-modal").dialog({ $("#dialog-modal").append("<p>"+html+"</p>"); height: 140, modal: true, buttons: { Ok: function() { $(this).dialog('close'); } } }) } }); return false; }); }); NOTE: if I put $("#dialog-modal").dialog({ height: 140, modal: true }); OUTSIDE of the $.ajax but inside the $("#ImageUploadForm").submit(function() { and comment out the $.ajax stuff, I WILL see a dialog box pop up and then I have to click it for it to go away. After this, it will not forward to the location /images/upload/ The method that AJAX calls: public function upload() { $this->autoRender = false; if ($this->RequestHandler->isAjax()) { echo 'Hi!'; exit(); } } $this-RequestHandler-isAjax() seems to do either absolutely nothing, or it is always returning false. I have never entered an if statement with that as the condition. Thanks for all the help, if you need more information let me know.

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• WPF MVVM: Convention over Configuration for ResourceDictionary ?

  - by Jeffrey Knight

  Update In the wiki spirit of StackOverflow, here's an update: I spiked Joe White's IValueConverter suggestion below. It works like a charm. I've written a "quickstart" example of this that automates the mapping of ViewModels-Views using some cheap string replacement. If no View is found to represent the ViewModel, it defaults to an "Under Construction" page. I'm dubbing this approach "WPF MVVM White" since it was Joe White's idea. Here are a couple screenshots. The first image is a case of "[SomeControlName]ViewModel" has a corresponding "[SomeControlName]View", based on pure naming convention. The second is a case where the ModelView doesn't have any views to represent it. No more ResourceDictionaries with long ViewModel to View mappings. It's pure naming convention now. I'm hosting a download of the project here: http://rootsilver.com/files/Mvvm.White.Quickstart.zip I'll follow up with a longer blog post walk through. Original Post I read Josh Smith's fantastic MSDN article on WPF MVVM over the weekend. It's destined to be a cult classic. It took me a while to wrap my head around the magic of asking WPF to render the ViewModel. It's like saying "Here's a class, WPF. Go figure out which UI to use to present it." For those who missed this magic, WPF can do this by looking up the View for ModelView in the ResourceDictionary mapping and pulling out the corresponding View. (Scroll down to Figure 10 Supplying a View ). The first thing that jumps out at me immediately is that there's already a strong naming convention of: classNameView ("View" suffix) classNameViewModel ("ViewModel" suffix) My question is: Since the ResourceDictionary can be manipulated programatically, I"m wondering if anyone has managed to Regex.Replace the whole thing away, so the lookup is automatic, and any new View/ViewModels get resolved by virtue of their naming convention? [Edit] What I'm imagining is a hook/interception into ResourceDictionary. ... Also considering a method at startup that uses interop to pull out *View$ and *ViewModel$ class names to build the DataTemplate dictionary in code: //build list foreach .... String.Format("<DataTemplate DataType=\"{x:Type vm:{0} }\"><v:{1} /></DataTemplate>", ...)

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• Generate reasonable length license key with asymmetric encryption?

  - by starkos

  I've been looking at this all day. I probably should have walked away from it hours ago; I might be missing something obvious at this point. Short version: Is there a way to generate and boil down an asymmetrically encrypted hash to a reasonable number of unambiguous, human readable characters? Long version: I want to generate license keys for my software. I would like these keys to be of a reasonable length (25-36 characters) and easily read and entered by a human (so avoid ambiguous characters like the number 0 and the capital letter O). Finally--and this seems to be the kicker--I'd really like to use asymmetric encryption to make it more difficult to generate new keys. I've got the general approach: concatenate my information (user name, product version, a salt) into a string and generate a SHA1() hash from that, then encrypt the hash with my private key. On the client, build the SHA1() hash from the same information, then decrypt the license with the public key and see if I've got a match. Since this is a Mac app, I looked at AquaticPrime, but that generates a relatively large license file rather than a string. I can work with that if I must, but as a user I really like the convenience of a license key that I can read and print. I also looked at CocoaFob which does generate a key, but it is so long that I'd want to deliver it as a file anyway. I fooled around with OpenSSL for a while but couldn't come up with anything of a reasonable length. So...am I missing something obvious here? Is there a way to generate and boil down an asymmetrically encrypted hash to a reasonable number of unambiguous, human readable characters? I'm open to buying a solution. But I work on a number of different of platforms, so I'd want something portable. Everything I've looked at so far has been platform specific. Many, many thanks for a solution! PS - Yes, I know it will still be cracked. I'm trying to come up with something reasonable that, as a user, I would still find friendly.

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• JQGrid and JQuery Autocomplete

  - by Neff

  When implementing JQGrid 4.3.0, Jquery 1.6.2, and JQuery UI 1.8.16 Ive come across an issue with the Inline edit. When the inline edit is activated, some of the elements get assigned an auto complete. When the inline edit is canceld or saved, the auto complete does not always go away (selecting text by double clicking it then hitting delete, then hitting escape to exit row edit). Leaving the auto complete controls in edit mode when the row is no longer considered in edit mode. Perhaps you can tell me if there is a problem with the initialization or if I you are aware of an event post-"afterrestorefunc" that the fields can be returned to their "original" state. Original state being displayed as data in the JQGrid row. I've tried removing the DOM after row close, .remove() and .empty(): ... "afterrestorefunc": function(){ $('.ui-autocomplete-input').remove(); } ... but that causes other issues, such as the jqgrid is not able to find the cell when serializing the row for data or edit, and requires a refresh of the page, not just jqgrid, to be able to once again see the data from that row. Auto complete functionality for the element is created on the double click of the row: function CreateCustomSearchElement(value, options, selectiontype) { ... var el; el = document.createElement("input"); ... $(el).autocomplete({ source: function (request, response) { $.ajax({ url: '<%=ResolveUrl("~/Services/AutoCompleteService.asmx/GetAutoCompleteResponse") %>', data: "{ 'prefixText': '" + request.term + "', 'contextKey': '" + options.name + "'}", dataType: "json", type: "POST", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", success: function (data) { response($.map(data.d, function (item) { return { label: Trim(item), value: Trim(item), searchVal: Trim(item) } })) } }); }, select: function (e, item) { //Select is on the event of selection where the value and label have already been determined. }, minLength: 1, change: function (event, ui) { //if the active element was not the search button //... } }).keyup(function (e) { if (e.keyCode == 8 || e.keyCode == 46) { //If the user hits backspace or delete, check the value of the textbox before setting the searchValue //... } }).keydown(function (e) { //if keycode is enter key and there is a value, you need to validate the data through select or change(onblur) if (e.keyCode == '13' && ($(el).val())) { return false; } if (e.keyCode == '220') { return false } }); } Other Sources: http://www.trirand.com/jqgridwiki/doku.php?id=wiki:inline_editing http://api.jqueryui.com/autocomplete/ Update: I tried only creating the autocomplete when the element was focused, and removing it when onblur. That did not resolve the issue either. It seems to just need the autocomplete dropdown to be triggered.

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• ImageMagick on Mac OSX Snow Leopard. Is there any way to get it to work?

  - by ?????

  It seems that I have more trouble getting standard Unix things to run on Snow Leopard than any other platform--including Windows cygwin For the past couple of days, I've been trying to get ImageMagick to run on Snow Leopard. The most obvious way, Mac Ports, fails: tppllc-Mac-Pro:ImageMagick-sl swirsky$ sudo port install imagemagick ---> Computing dependencies for p5-locale-gettext ---> Configuring p5-locale-gettext Error: Target org.macports.configure returned: configure failure: shell command " cd "/opt/local/var/macports/build/_opt_local_var_macports_sources_rsync.macports.org_release_ports_perl_p5-locale-gettext/work/gettext-1.05" && /opt/local/bin/perl Makefile.PL INSTALLDIRS=vendor " returned error 2 Command output: checking for gettext... no checking for gettext in -I/opt/local/include -arch i386 -L/opt/local/lib -lintl...gettext function not found. Please install libintl at Makefile.PL line 18. no Error: Unable to upgrade port: 1 Error: Unable to execute port: upgrade xorg-libXt failed Before reporting a bug, first run the command again with the -d flag to get complete output. tppllc-Mac-Pro:ImageMagick-sl swirsky$ Not wanting to spend another two days figuring out why my libintl doesn't have a "gettext" function, I tried a different route: the script mentioned here: http://github.com/masterkain/ImageMagick-sl This script downloads and installs an ImageMagic independently of MacPorts issues tppllc-Mac-Pro:ImageMagick-sl swirsky$ /usr/local/bin/convert dyld: Library not loaded: /opt/local/lib/libiconv.2.dylib Referenced from: /opt/local/lib/libfontconfig.1.dylib Reason: Incompatible library version: libfontconfig.1.dylib requires version 8.0.0 or later, but libiconv.2.dylib provides version 7.0.0 Trace/BPT trap It downloads everything and compiles fine, but fails when I try to run it, with the message above. So now I'm two steps away from ImageMagick, trying to get a newer libiconv on my machine. I downloaded the latest libiconv, compiled and built it. I put the resulting library in /opt/local/lib, and I still get the same error message: tppllc-Mac-Pro:.libs swirsky$ sudo mv libiconv.2.dylib /opt/local/lib/libiconv.2.dylib tppllc-Mac-Pro:.libs swirsky$ convert dyld: Library not loaded: /opt/local/lib/libiconv.2.dylib Referenced from: /opt/local/lib/libfontconfig.1.dylib Reason: Incompatible library version: libfontconfig.1.dylib requires version 8.0.0 or later, but libiconv.2.dylib provides version 7.0.0 Trace/BPT trap So here's my question: Is it possible to get ImageMagick to run on OSX Snow Leopard? Are there any binary distributions that have static libraries baked in so I don't have to worry about these issue/

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• What to do when you need more verbs in REST

  - by Richard Levasseur

  There is another similar question to mine, but the discussion veered away from the problem I'm encounting. Say I have a system that deals with expense reports (ER). You can create and edit them, add attachments, and approve/reject them. An expense report might look like this: GET /er/1 => {"title": "Trip to NY", "totalcost": "400 USD", "comments": [ "john: Please add the total cost", "mike: done, can you approve it now?" ], "approvals": [ {"john": "Pending"}, {"finance-group": "Pending"}] } That looks fine, right? Thats what an expense report document looks like. If you want to update it, you can do this: POST /er/1 {"title": "Trip to NY 2010"} If you want to approve it, you can do this: POST /er/1/approval {"approved": true} But, what if you want to update the report and approve it at the same time? How do we do that? If you only wanted to approve, then doing a POST to something like /er/1/approval makes sense. We could put a flag in the URL, POST /er/1?approve=1, and send the data changes as the body, but that flag doesn't seem RESTful. We could put special field to be submitted, too, but that seems a bit hacky, too. If we did that, then why not send up data with attributes like set_title or add_to_cost? We could create a new resource for updating and approving, but (1) I can't think of how to name it without verbs, and (2) it doesn't seem right to name a resource based on what actions can be done to it (what happens if we add more actions?) We could have an X-Approve: True|False header, but headers seem like the wrong tool for the job. It'd also be difficult to get set headers without using javascript in a browser. We could use a custom media-type, application/approve+yes, but that seems no better than creating a new resource. We could create a temporary "batch operations" url, /er/1/batch/A. The client then sends multiple requests, perhaps POST /er/1/batch/A to update, then POST /er/1/batch/A/approval to approve, then POST /er/1/batch/A/status to end the batch. On the backend, the server queues up all the batch requests somewhere, then processes them in the same backend-transaction when it receives the "end batch processing" request. The downside with this is, obviously, that it introduces a lot of complexity. So, what is a good, general way to solve the problem of performing multiple actions in a single request? General because its easy to imagine additional actions that might be done in the same request: Suppress or send notifications (to email, chat, another system, whatever) Override some validation (maximum cost, names of dinner attendees) Trigger backend workflow that doesn't have a representation in the document.

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• Corner Cases, Unexpected and Unusual Matlab

  - by Mikhail

  Over the years, reading others code, I encountered and collected some examples of Matlab syntax which can be at first unusual and counterintuitive. Please, feel free to comment or complement this list. I verified it r2006a. set([], 'Background:Color','red') Matlab is very forgiving sometimes. In this case, setting properties to an array of objects works also with nonsense properties, at least when the array is empty. myArray([1,round(end/2)]) This use of end keyword may seem unclean but is sometimes very handy instead of using length(myArray). any([]) ~= all([]) Surprisigly any([]) returns false and all([]) returns true. And I always thought that all is stronger then any. EDIT: with not empty argument all() returns true for a subset of values for which any() returns true (e.g. truth table). This means that any() false implies all() false. This simple rule is being violated by Matlab with [] as argument. Loren also blogged about it. Select(Range(ExcelComObj)) Procedural style COM object method dispatch. Do not wonder that exist('Select') returns zero! [myString, myCell] Matlab makes in this case an implicit cast of string variable myString to cell type {myString}. It works, also if I would not expect it to do so. [double(1.8), uint8(123)] => 2 123 Another cast example. Everybody would probably expect uint8 value being cast to double but Mathworks have another opinion. a = 5; b = a(); It looks silly but you can call a variable with round brackets. Actually it makes sense because this way you can execute a function given its handle. a = {'aa', 'bb' 'cc', 'dd'}; Surprsisingly this code neither returns a vector nor rises an error but defins matrix, using just code layout. It is probably a relict from ancient times. set(hobj, {'BackgroundColor','ForegroundColor'},{'red','blue'}) This code does what you probably expect it to do. That function set accepts a struct as its second argument is a known fact and makes sense, and this sintax is just a cell2struct away. Equvalence rules are sometimes unexpected at first. For example 'A'==65 returns true (although for C-experts it is self-evident). About which further unexpected/unusual Matlab features are you aware?

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• ObjectDisposedException from core .NET code

  - by John

  I'm having this issue with a live app. (Unfortunately this is post-mortem debugging - I only have this stack trace. I've never seen this personally, nor am I able to reproduce). I get this Exception: message=Cannot access a disposed object. Object name: 'Button'. exceptionMessage=Cannot access a disposed object. Object name: 'Button'. exceptionDetails=System.ObjectDisposedException: Cannot access a disposed object. Object name: 'Button'. at System.Windows.Forms.Control.CreateHandle() at System.Windows.Forms.Control.get_Handle() at System.Windows.Forms.Control.PointToScreen(Point p) at System.Windows.Forms.Button.OnMouseUp(MouseEventArgs mevent) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WmMouseUp(Message& m, MouseButtons button, Int32 clicks) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.ButtonBase.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Button.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.OnMessage(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.NativeWindow.Callback(IntPtr hWnd, Int32 msg, IntPtr wparam, IntPtr lparam) exceptionSource=System.Windows.Forms exceptionTargetSite=Void CreateHandle() It looks like a mouse event is arriving at a form after the form has been disposed. Note there is none of my code in this stack trace. The only weird (?) thing I'm doing, is that I do tend to Dispose() Forms quite aggressively when I use them with ShowModal() (see "Aside" below). But I only do this after ShowModal() has returned (that should be safe right)? I think I read that events might be queued up in the event queue, but I can't believe this would be the problem. I mean surely the framework must be tolerant to old messages? I can well imagine that under stress messages might back-log and surely the window might go away at any time? Any ideas? If you could even suggest ways of reproducing, that might be useful. John Aside: TBH I've never quite understood whether calling Dispose() after Form.ShowDialog() is strictly necessary - the MSDN docs for ShowDialog() are to my mind a bit ambiguous.

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• validation in javascript - remove the error msg on focus

  - by fusion

  i'm not very well-versed with javascript, so please bear with me. i've a form in which i validate the controls with javascript. the error is displayed when the fields are empty via a div, but when i focus and type something in the textbox, the div should go away. but the error div doesn't and even if i type something valid, it still displays the div. i'd like to know where am i going wrong with this script: <script type="text/javascript"> var err = document.getElementById("errmsg"); function checkInput(inPut) { if (inPut.getValue() == "") { err.setStyle('display', 'block'); err.setTextValue("Field cannot be empty!"); inPut.focus(); return false; } else { return true; } } function checkTextBox(textBox) { if (textBox.getValue() == "") { err.setStyle('display', 'block'); err.setTextValue("Field cannot be empty!"); textBox.focus(); return false; } else if (!checkValidity(textBox.getValue())) { err.setStyle('display', 'block'); err.setTextValue("Please enter a valid email address!"); textBox.focus(); return false; } else { return true; } } . . . <div id="errmsg" class="invalid" style="display:none;"></div> <br /> . . . <input type="text" tabindex="1" name="name" id="name" class="input_contact" onblur="checkInput(this);"/> <br /> . . . <input type="text" tabindex="2" name="email" id="email" class="input_contact" onblur="checkTextBox(this);"/> <br /> it's a form in facebook app but while the fbjs works, i assume there's a problem with my basic javascript.

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• How can I import one Gradle script into another?

  - by Ant

  Hi all, I have a complex gradle script that wraps up a load of functionality around building and deploying a number of netbeans projects to a number of environments. The script works very well, but in essence it is all configured through half a dozen maps holding project and environment information. I want to abstract the tasks away into another file, so that I can simply define my maps in a simple build file, and import the tasks from the other file. In this way, I can use the same core tasks for a number of projects and configure those projects with a simple set of maps. Can anyone tell me how I can import one gradle file into another, in a similar manner to Ant's task? I've trawled Gradle's docs to no avail so far. Additional Info After Tom's response below, I thought I'd try and clarify exactly what I mean. Basically I have a gradle script which runs a number of subprojects. However, the subprojects are all Netbeans projects, and come with their own ant build scripts, so I have tasks in gradle to call each of these. My problem is that I have some configuration at the top of the file, such as: projects = [ [name:"MySubproject1", shortname: "sub1", env:"mainEnv", cvs_module="mod1"], [name:"MySubproject2", shortname: "sub2", env:"altEnv", cvs_module="mod2"] ] I then generate tasks such as: projects.each({ task "checkout_$it.shortname" << { // Code to for example check module out from cvs using config from 'it'. } }) I have many of these sort of task generation snippets, and all of them are generic - they entirely depend on the config in the projects list. So what I want is a way to put this in a separate script and import it in the following sort of way: projects = [ [name:"MySubproject1", shortname: "sub1", env:"mainEnv", cvs_module="mod1"], [name:"MySubproject2", shortname: "sub2", env:"altEnv", cvs_module="mod2"] ] import("tasks.gradle") // This will import and run the script so that all tasks are generated for the projects given above. So in this example, tasks.gradle will have all the generic task generation code in, and will get run for the projects defined in the main build.gradle file. In this way, tasks.gradle is a file that can be used by all large projects that consist of a number of sub-projects with Netbeans ant build files.

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• How do I refactor these two C# functions to abstrtact their logic from the specific class properties

  - by ObligatoryMoniker

  I have two functions whose underlying logic is the same but in one case it sets one property value on a class and in another case it sets a different one. How can I rewrite the following two functions to abstract away as much of the algorithm as possible so that I can make changes in logic in a single place? SetBillingAddress private void SetBillingAddress(OrderAddress newBillingAddress) { BasketHelper basketHelper = new BasketHelper(SiteConstants.BasketName); OrderAddress oldBillingAddress = basketHelper.Basket.Addresses[basketHelper.BillingAddressID]; bool NewBillingAddressIsNotOldBillingAddress = ((oldBillingAddress == null) || (newBillingAddress.OrderAddressId != oldBillingAddress.OrderAddressId)); bool BillingAddressHasBeenPreviouslySet = (oldBillingAddress != null); bool BillingAddressIsNotSameAsShippingAddress = (basketHelper.ShippingAddressID != basketHelper.BillingAddressID); bool NewBillingAddressIsNotShippingAddress = (newBillingAddress.OrderAddressId != basketHelper.ShippingAddressID); if (NewBillingAddressIsNotOldBillingAddress && BillingAddressHasBeenPreviouslySet && BillingAddressIsNotSameAsShippingAddress) { basketHelper.Basket.Addresses.Remove(oldBillingAddress); } if (NewBillingAddressIsNotOldBillingAddress && NewBillingAddressIsNotShippingAddress) { basketHelper.Basket.Addresses.Add(newBillingAddress); } basketHelper.BillingAddressID = newBillingAddress.OrderAddressId; basketHelper.Basket.Save(); } And here is the second one: SetShippingAddress private void SetBillingAddress(OrderAddress newShippingAddress) { BasketHelper basketHelper = new BasketHelper(SiteConstants.BasketName); OrderAddress oldShippingAddress = basketHelper.Basket.Addresses[basketHelper.ShippingAddressID]; bool NewShippingAddressIsNotOldShippingAddress = ((oldShippingAddress == null) || (newShippingAddress.OrderAddressId != oldShippingAddress.OrderAddressId)); bool ShippingAddressHasBeenPreviouslySet = (oldShippingAddress != null); bool ShippingAddressIsNotSameAsBillingAddress = (basketHelper.ShippingAddressID != basketHelper.BillingAddressID); bool NewShippingAddressIsNotBillingAddress = (newShippingAddress.OrderAddressId != basketHelper.BillingAddressID); if (NewShippingAddressIsNotOldShippingAddress && ShippingAddressHasBeenPreviouslySet && ShippingAddressIsNotSameAsBillingAddress) { basketHelper.Basket.Addresses.Remove(oldShippingAddress); } if (NewShippingAddressIsNotOldShippingAddress && NewShippingAddressIsNotBillingAddress) { basketHelper.Basket.Addresses.Add(newShippingAddress); } basketHelper.ShippingAddressID = newShippingAddress.OrderAddressId; basketHelper.Basket.Save(); } My initial thought was that if I could pass a class's property by refernce then I could rewrite the previous functions into something like private void SetPurchaseOrderAddress(OrderAddress newAddress, ref String CurrentChangingAddressIDProperty) and then call this function and pass in either basketHelper.BillingAddressID or basketHelper.ShippingAddressID as CurrentChangingAddressIDProperty but since I can't pass C# properties by reference I am not sure what to do with this code to be able to reuse the logic in both places. Thanks for any insight you can give me.

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• how to align floats in IE6

  - by rei

  Good day! I am having problems displaying floated paragraphs and images in IE6. There was no problem displaying those in Opera and Firefox,though. I have three divs inside a container. Each div has its own paragraph and image either floated to the left or right. In order for me to achieve a desired layout, I set negative margins on most of the paragraphs and images. Here is how I aligned the floats: ----- CSS code for the first div ----- .row1 { float:left; width:790px; height:460px; margin:5px 0 0 40px; } .pic1 { float:right; height:460px; width:382px; margin:-100px -50px 0 -60px; } h2, p { font-family:Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif; } .row1 p { font-size:12px; text-indent:20px; font-weight:bold; text-align:justify; margin:-10px -25px 0 0; position:relative; } ----------- code for the 2nd div ------------- .row2 { float:left; width:790px; height:234px; margin:-185px 0 0 28px; position:relative; } .row2 p { float:right; font-size:12px; font-weight:bold; text-align:justify; text-indent:20px; margin:-195px 258px 0 175px; position:relative; } .pic2 { float:left; } --------- code for the 3rd div --------------- .row3 { float:left; width:790px; height:203px; margin:-10px 0 0 40px; position:relative; } .row3 p { float:left; font-size:12px; font-weight:bold; text-indent:20px; text-align:justify; margin:-180px 265px 0 10px; position:relative; } .pic3 { float:right; } ///////// The paragraphs seem to be far away from the images when viewed in IE6. Some paragraphs are overlapping with other images. I hope you can help me with this one. Thanks, Rei

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• All embedded databases fail to open connections

  - by rsteckly

  Hi, I'm working on a winforms desktop application that needs to store data. I made the really bad decision to try and embed a database. I've tried: SQLite VistaDB SQL Server Compact In each case, I was able to generate a Entity Framework Model over the basic schema I've created. I have an event that adds data that I've been using to test these databases. Well, I kept adding a new record using EF and finding it didn't actually insert a record. In debugging, I checked the context object to see what was happening. It turns out that it is saying "the underlying provider failed to open," or something to that effect. It was not throwing an exception, just not inserting a record. The same thing has happened for all 3 embedded databases--prompting me to get it through my dense head that there has to be something wrong with my configuration. Well, I tried to write some basic sql using a sqlconnection and sqlcommand. This time it throws an exception. In the SQL Server Compact case, it now says: A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: SQL Network Interfaces, error: 26 - Error Locating Server/Instance Specified) I thought perhaps a problem was the path in app.Config. So I changed the connection string to: Note that I simplified the path away from anything that might have spaces and avoided using the Data Directory nonsense that causes problem when the debugging directory does not match the preconfigured value for the data directory. I'm running Windows 7; I thought perhaps it might be an access issue--so I tried running VS 2010 in Administrator mode. No luck. I also installed Sql Server Compact SP2, thinking this might be a bug. No luck. Anyway, I'm ready to pull my hair out. I'm on a tight deadline for this thing and didn't expect to spend the day trying to figure out what is going on.

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• What was "The Next Big Thing" when you were just starting out in programming?

  - by Andrew

  I'm at the beginning of my career and there are lots of things which are being touted as "The Next Big Thing". For example: Dependency Injection (Spring, etc) MVC (Struts, ASP.NET MVC) ORMs (Linq To SQL, Hibernate) Agile Software Development These things have probably been around for some time, but I've only just started out. And don't get me wrong, I think these things are great! So, what was "The Next Big Thing" when you were starting out? When was it? Were people sceptical of it at first? Why? Did you think it would catch on? Did it pan out and become widely accepted/used? If not, why not? EDIT It's been nearly a week since I first posted this question and I can safely say that I did not expect such explosive interest. I asked the question so that I could gain a perspective of what kinds of innovations in programming people thought were most important when they were starting out. At the time of writing this I have read ~95% of all answers. To answer a few questions, the "Next Big Things" I listed are ones that I am currently really excited about and that I had not really been exposed to until I started working. I'm hoping to implement some or all of these in the near future at my current workplace. To many people they are probably old news. In regards to the "is this a real question" debate, I can see that obviously hasn't been settled yet. I feel bad whenever I read a comment saying that these kinds of questions take away from the real meaning of SO. I'm not wholly convinced that it doesn't. On the other hand, I have seen a lot of comments saying what a great question it is. Anyway, I have chosen "The Internet!" as my answer to this question. I don't think (in my very humble opinion, and, it seems many SOers opinions) that many things related to programming can compare. Nowadays every business and their dog has a website which can do anything from simply supplying information to purchasing goods halfway around the world to updating your blog. And of course, all these businesses need people like us. Thanks to everyone for all the great answers!

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• If Then Statement Condition Being Ignored With Optimisations On

  - by Matma

  I think im going mad but can some show me what im missing, it must be some stupidly simple i just cant see the wood for the trees. BOTH side of this if then else statement are being executed? Ive tried commenting out the true side and moving the condition to a seperate variable with the same result. However if i explicitly set the condition to 1=0 or 1=1 then the if then statement is operating as i would expect. i.e. only executing one side of the equation... The only time ive seen this sort of thing is when the compiler has crashed and is no longer compiling (without visible indication that its not) but ive restarted studio with the same results, ive cleaned the solution, built and rebuilt with no change? please show me the stupid mistake im making using vs2005 if it matters. Dim dset As DataSet = New DataSet If (CboCustomers.SelectedValue IsNot Nothing) AndAlso (CboCustomers.SelectedValue <> "") Then Dim Sql As String = "Select sal.SalesOrderNo As SalesOrder,cus.CustomerName,has.SerialNo, convert(varchar,sal.Dateofpurchase,103) as Date from [dbo].[Customer_Table] as cus " & _ " inner join [dbo].[Hasp_table] as has on has.CustomerID=cus.CustomerTag " & _ " inner join [dbo].[salesorder_table] as sal On sal.Hasp_ID =has.Hasp_ID Where cus.CustomerTag = '" & CboCustomers.SelectedValue.ToString & "'" Dim dap As SqlDataAdapter = New SqlDataAdapter(Sql, FormConnection) dap.Fill(dset, "dbo.Customer_Table") DGCustomer.DataSource = dset.Tables("dbo.Customer_Table") Else Dim erm As String = "wtf" End If EDIT: i have found that this is something to do with the release config settings im using, i guesing its the optimisations bit. does anyone know of any utils/addons for vs that show if a line has been optimised out. delphi, my former language showed blue dots in the left margin to show that it was a compiled line, no dot meaning it wasnt compiled in, is there anything like that for vs? alternatively can someone explain how optimisations would affect this simple if statement causeing it to run both sides? EDIT2: using this thread as possible causes/solutions : http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2135509/bug-only-occurring-when-compile-optimization-enabled. It does the same with release = optimisations on, x86, x64 and AnyCPU Goes away with optimisations off. Im using V2005 on a x64 win7 machine, if that matters. Thanks

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• LINQ aggregate left join on SQL CE

  - by P Daddy

  What I need is such a simple, easy query, it blows me away how much work I've done just trying to do it in LINQ. In T-SQL, it would be: SELECT I.InvoiceID, I.CustomerID, I.Amount AS AmountInvoiced, I.Date AS InvoiceDate, ISNULL(SUM(P.Amount), 0) AS AmountPaid, I.Amount - ISNULL(SUM(P.Amount), 0) AS AmountDue FROM Invoices I LEFT JOIN Payments P ON I.InvoiceID = P.InvoiceID WHERE I.Date between @start and @end GROUP BY I.InvoiceID, I.CustomerID, I.Amount, I.Date ORDER BY AmountDue DESC The best equivalent LINQ expression I've come up with, took me much longer to do: var invoices = ( from I in Invoices where I.Date >= start && I.Date <= end join P in Payments on I.InvoiceID equals P.InvoiceID into payments select new{ I.InvoiceID, I.CustomerID, AmountInvoiced = I.Amount, InvoiceDate = I.Date, AmountPaid = ((decimal?)payments.Select(P=>P.Amount).Sum()).GetValueOrDefault(), AmountDue = I.Amount - ((decimal?)payments.Select(P=>P.Amount).Sum()).GetValueOrDefault() } ).OrderByDescending(row=>row.AmountDue); This gets an equivalent result set when run against SQL Server. Using a SQL CE database, however, changes things. The T-SQL stays almost the same. I only have to change ISNULL to COALESCE. Using the same LINQ expression, however, results in an error: There was an error parsing the query. [ Token line number = 4, Token line offset = 9,Token in error = SELECT ] So we look at the generated SQL code: SELECT [t3].[InvoiceID], [t3].[CustomerID], [t3].[Amount] AS [AmountInvoiced], [t3].[Date] AS [InvoiceDate], [t3].[value] AS [AmountPaid], [t3].[value2] AS [AmountDue] FROM ( SELECT [t0].[InvoiceID], [t0].[CustomerID], [t0].[Amount], [t0].[Date], COALESCE(( SELECT SUM([t1].[Amount]) FROM [Payments] AS [t1] WHERE [t0].[InvoiceID] = [t1].[InvoiceID] ),0) AS [value], [t0].[Amount] - (COALESCE(( SELECT SUM([t2].[Amount]) FROM [Payments] AS [t2] WHERE [t0].[InvoiceID] = [t2].[InvoiceID] ),0)) AS [value2] FROM [Invoices] AS [t0] ) AS [t3] WHERE ([t3].[Date] >= @p0) AND ([t3].[Date] <= @p1) ORDER BY [t3].[value2] DESC Ugh! Okay, so it's ugly and inefficient when run against SQL Server, but we're not supposed to care, since it's supposed to be quicker to write, and the performance difference shouldn't be that large. But it just doesn't work against SQL CE, which apparently doesn't support subqueries within the SELECT list. In fact, I've tried several different left join queries in LINQ, and they all seem to have the same problem. Even: from I in Invoices join P in Payments on I.InvoiceID equals P.InvoiceID into payments select new{I, payments} generates: SELECT [t0].[InvoiceID], [t0].[CustomerID], [t0].[Amount], [t0].[Date], [t1].[InvoiceID] AS [InvoiceID2], [t1].[Amount] AS [Amount2], [t1].[Date] AS [Date2], ( SELECT COUNT(*) FROM [Payments] AS [t2] WHERE [t0].[InvoiceID] = [t2].[InvoiceID] ) AS [value] FROM [Invoices] AS [t0] LEFT OUTER JOIN [Payments] AS [t1] ON [t0].[InvoiceID] = [t1].[InvoiceID] ORDER BY [t0].[InvoiceID] which also results in the error: There was an error parsing the query. [ Token line number = 2, Token line offset = 5,Token in error = SELECT ] So how can I do a simple left join on a SQL CE database using LINQ? Am I wasting my time?

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• Translate Java class with static attributes and Annotation to Scala equivalent

  - by ifischer

  I'm currently trying to "translate" the following Java class to an equivalent Scala class. It's part of a JavaEE6-application and i need it to use the JPA2 MetaModel. import javax.persistence.metamodel.SingularAttribute; import javax.persistence.metamodel.StaticMetamodel; @StaticMetamodel(Person.class) public class Person_ { public static volatile SingularAttribute<Person, String> name; } A dissassembling of the compiled class file reveals the following information for the compiled file: > javap Person_.class : public class model.Person_ extends java.lang.Object{ public static volatile javax.persistence.metamodel.SingularAttribute name; public model.Person_(); } So now i need an equivalent Scala file that has the same structure, as JPA depends on it, cause it resolves the attributes by reflection to make them accessible at runtime. So the main problem i think is that the attribute is static, but the Annotation has to be on an (Java)Object (i guess) My first naive attempt to create a Scala equivalent is the following: @StaticMetamodel(classOf[Person]) class Person_ object Person_ { @volatile var name:SingularAttribute[Person, String] = _; } But the resulting classfile is far away from the Java one, so it doesn't work. When trying to access the attributes at runtime, e.g. "Person_.firstname", it resolves to null, i think JPA can't do the right reflection magic on the compiled classfile (the Java variant resolves to an instance of org.hibernate.ejb.metamodel.SingularAttributeImpl at runtime). > javap Person_.class : public class model.Person_ extends java.lang.Object implements scala.ScalaObject{ public static final void name_$eq(javax.persistence.metamodel.SingularAttribute); public static final javax.persistence.metamodel.SingularAttribute name(); public model.Person_(); } > javap Person_$.class : public final class model.Person__$ extends java.lang.Object implements scala.ScalaObject public static final model.Person__$ MODULE$; public static {}; public javax.persistence.metamodel.SingularAttribute name(); public void name_$eq(javax.persistence.metamodel.SingularAttribute); } So now what i'd like to know is if it's possible at all to create a Scala equivalent of the Java class? It seems to me that it's absolutely not, but maybe there is a workaround or something (except just using Java, but i want my app to be in Scala where possible) Any ideas, anyone? Thanks in advance!

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• How can i use a duration setting on .animate if it is inside the callback from a .fadeOut effect?

  - by Jannis

  I am trying to just fade the content of section#secondary out and once the content has been faded out, the parent (section#secondary) should animate 'shut' in a slider animation. All this is working however the durations are not and I cannot figure out why. Here is my code: HTML <section id="secondary"> <a href="#" class="slide_button">&laquo;</a> <!-- slide in/back button --> <article> <h1>photos</h1> <div class="album_nav"><a href="#">photo 1 of 6</a> | <a href="#">create an album</a></div> <div class="bar"> <p class="section_title">current image title</p> </div> <section class="image"> <div class="links"> <a class="_back album_link" href="#">« from the album: james new toy</a> <nav> <a href="#" class="_back small_button">back</a> <a href="#" class="_next small_button">next</a> </nav> </div> <img src="http://localhost/~jannis/3781_doggie_wonderland/www/preview/static/images/sample-image-enlarged.jpg" width="418" height="280" alt="" /> </section> </article> <footer> <embed src="http://localhost/~jannis/3781_doggie_wonderland/www/preview/static/flash/secondary-footer.swf" wmode="transparent" width="495" height="115" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" /> </footer> </section> <!-- close secondary --> jQuery // ============================= // = Close button (slide away) = // ============================= $('a.slide_button').click(function() { $(this).closest('section#secondary').children('*').fadeOut('slow', function() { $('section#secondary').animate({'width':'0'}, 3000); }); }); Because the content of section#secondary is variable I use the * selector. What happens is that the fadeOut uses the appropriate slow speed but as soon as the callback fires (once the content is faded out) the section#secondary animates to width: 0 within a couple of milliseconds and not the 3000 ms ( 3 sec ) I set the animation duration to. Any ideas would be appreciated. PS: I cannot post an example at this point but since this is more a matter of theory of jQuery I don't think an example is necessary here. Correct me if I am wrong..

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• Find location using only distance and range?

  - by pinnacler

  Triangulation works by checking your angle to three KNOWN targets. "I know the that's the Lighthouse of Alexandria, it's located here (X,Y) on a map, and it's to my right at 90 degrees." Repeat 2 more times for different targets and angles. Trilateration works by checking your distance from three KNOWN targets. "I know the that's the Lighthouse of Alexandria, it's located here (X,Y) on a map, and I'm 100 meters away from that." Repeat 2 more times for different targets and ranges. But both of those methods rely on knowing WHAT you're looking at. Say you're in a forest and you can't differentiate between trees, but you know where key trees are. These trees have been hand picked as "landmarks." You have a robot moving through that forest slowly. Do you know of any ways to determine location based solely off of angle and range, exploiting geometry between landmarks? Note, you will see other trees as well, so you won't know which trees are key trees. Ignore the fact that a target may be occluded. Our pre-algorithm takes care of that. 1) If this exists, what's it called? I can't find anything. 2) What do you think the odds are of having two identical location 'hits?' I imagine it's fairly rare. 3) If there are two identical location 'hits,' how can I determine my exact location after I move the robot next. (I assume the chances of having 2 occurrences of EXACT angles in a row, after I reposition the robot, would be statistically impossible, barring a forest growing in rows like corn). Would I just calculate the position again and hope for the best? Or would I somehow incorporate my previous position estimate into my next guess? If this exists, I'd like to read about it, and if not, develop it as a side project. I just don't have time to reinvent the wheel right now, nor have the time to implement this from scratch. So if it doesn't exist, I'll have to figure out another way to localize the robot since that's not the aim of this research, if it does, lets hope it's semi-easy.

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• Gap appears between navigation bar and view after rotating & tab switching

  - by Bogatyr

  My iphone application is showing strange behavior when rotating: a gap appears between the navigation title and content view inside a tab bar view (details on how to reproduce are below). I've created a tiny test case that exhibits the same problem: a custom root UIViewController, which creates and displays a UITabBarController programmatically, which has two tabs: 1) plain UIViewController, and 2) UINavigationController created programmatically with a single plain UIViewController content view. The complete code for the application is in the root controller's viewDidLoad (every "*VC" class is a totally vanilla UIViewController subclass with XIB for user interface from XCode, with only the view background color changed to clearly identify each view, nothing else). Here's the viewDidLoad code, and the shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation code, this code is the entire application basically: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; FirstVC *fvc = [[FirstVC alloc] initWithNibName:@"FirstVC" bundle:nil]; NavContentsVC *ncvc = [[NavContentsVC alloc] initWithNibName:@"NavContentsVC" bundle:nil]; UINavigationController *svc = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:ncvc]; NSMutableArray *localControllersArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithCapacity:2]; [localControllersArray addObject:fvc]; [localControllersArray addObject:svc]; fvc.title = @"FirstVC-Title"; ncvc.title = @"NavContents-Title"; UITabBarController *tbc = [[UITabBarController alloc] init]; tbc.view.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, 320, 460); [tbc setViewControllers:localControllersArray]; [self.view addSubview:tbc.view]; [localControllersArray release]; [ncvc release]; [svc release]; [fvc release]; } - (BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation { return YES; } Here's how to reproduce the problem: 1) start application 2) rotate device (happens in simulator, too) to landscape (UITabBar properly rotates) 3) click on tab 2 4) rotate device to portrait -- notice gap of root view controller's background color of about 10 pixels high beneath the Navigation title bar and the Navigation content view. 5) click tab 1 6) click tab 2 And the gap is gone! From my real application, I see that the gap remains during all VC push and pops while the NavigationController tab is active. Switching away to a different tab and back to the Nav tab clears up the gap. What am I doing wrong? I'm running on SDK 3.1.3, this happens both on the simulator and on the device. Except for this particular sequence, everything seems to work fine. Help!

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• Boggling Direct3D9 dynamic vertex buffer Lock crash/post-lock failure on Intel GMA X3100.

  - by nj

  Hi, For starters I'm a fairly seasoned graphics programmer but as wel all know, everyone makes mistakes. Unfortunately the codebase is a bit too large to start throwing sensible snippets here and re-creating the whole situation in an isolated CPP/codebase is too tall an order -- for which I am sorry, do not have the time. I'll do my best to explain. B.t.w, I will of course supply specific pieces of code if someone wonders how I'm handling this-or-that! As with all resources in the D3DPOOL_DEFAULT pool, when the device context is taken away from you you'll sooner or later will have to reset your resources. I've built a mechanism to handle this for all relevant resources that's been working for years; but that fact nothingwithstanding I've of course checked, asserted and doubted any assumption since this bug came to light. What happens is as follows: I have a rather large dynamic vertex buffer, exact size 18874368 bytes. This buffer is locked (and discarded fully using the D3DLOCK_DISCARD flag) each frame prior to generating dynamic geometry (isosurface-related, f.y.i) to it. This works fine, until, of course, I start to reset. It might take 1 time, it might take 2 or it might take 5 resets to set off a bug that causes an access violation either on the pointer returned by the Lock() operation on the renewed resource or a plain crash -- regarding a somewhat similar address, but without the offset that it has tacked on to it in the first case because in that case we're somewhere halfway writing -- iside the D3D9 dll Lock() call. I've tested this on other hardware, upgraded my GMA X3100 drivers (using a MacBook with BootCamp) to the latest ones, but I can't reproduce it on any other machine and I'm at a loss about what's wrong here. I have tried to reproduce a similar situation with a similar buffer (I've got a large scratch pad of the same type I filled with quads) and beyond a certain amount of bytes it started to behave likewise. I'm not asking for a solution here but I'm very interested if there are other developers here who have battled with the same foe or maybe some who can point me in some insightful direction, maybe ask some questions that might shed a light on what I may or may not be overlooking. Another interesting artifact is that the vertex buffer starts to bug if I supply both D3DLOCK_DISCARD and D3DLOCK_NOOVERWRITE together which, even though not very logical (you're not going to overwrite if you've just discarded all), gives graphics glitches. Thanks and any corrections are more than welcome. Niels p.s - A friend of mine raised the valid point that it is a huge buffer for onboard video RAM and it's being at least double or triple buffered internally due to it's dynamic nature. On the other hand, the debug output (D3D9 debug DLL + max. warning output) remains silent. p.s 2 - Had it tested on more machines and still works -- it's probably a matter of circumstance: the huge dynamic, internally double/trippled buffered buffer, not a lot of memory and drivers that don't complain when they should.. Unless someone has a better suggestion; I'd still love to hear it :)

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• Best Practices / Patterns for Enterprise Protection/Remediation of SSNs (Social Security Numbers)

  - by Erik Neu

  I am interested in hearing about enterprise solutions for SSN handling. (I looked pretty hard for any pre-existing post on SO, including reviewing the terriffic SO automated "Related Questions" list, and did not find anything, so hopefully this is not a repeat.) First, I think it is important to enumerate the reasons systems/databases use SSNs: (note—these are reasons for de facto current state—I understand that many of them are not good reasons) Required for Interaction with External Entities. This is the most valid case—where external entities your system interfaces with require an SSN. This would typically be government, tax and financial. SSN is used to ensure system-wide uniqueness. SSN has become the default foreign key used internally within the enterprise, to perform cross-system joins. SSN is used for user authentication (e.g., log-on) The enterprise solution that seems optimum to me is to create a single SSN repository that is accessed by all applications needing to look up SSN info. This repository substitutes a globally unique, random 9-digit number (ASN) for the true SSN. I see many benefits to this approach. First of all, it is obviously highly backwards-compatible—all your systems "just" have to go through a major, synchronized, one-time data-cleansing exercise, where they replace the real SSN with the alternate ASN. Also, it is centralized, so it minimizes the scope for inspection and compliance. (Obviously, as a negative, it also creates a single point of failure.) This approach would solve issues 2 and 3, without ever requiring lookups to get the real SSN. For issue #1, authorized systems could provide an ASN, and be returned the real SSN. This would of course be done over secure connections, and the requesting systems would never persist the full SSN. Also, if the requesting system only needs the last 4 digits of the SSN, then that is all that would ever be passed. Issue #4 could be handled the same way as issue #1, though obviously the best thing would be to move away from having users supply an SSN for log-on. There are a couple of papers on this: UC Berkely: http://bit.ly/bdZPjQ Oracle Vault: bit.ly/cikbi1

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• Why does Python's math.factorial not play nice with threads?

  - by W1N9Zr0

  Why does math.factorial act so weird in a thread? Here is an example, it creates three threads: thread that just sleeps for a while thread that increments an int for a while thread that does math.factorial on a large number. It calls start on the threads, then join with a timeout The sleep and spin threads work as expected and return from start right away, and then sit in the join for the timeout. The factorial thread on the other hand does not return from start until it runs to the end! import sys from threading import Thread from time import sleep, time from math import factorial # Helper class that stores a start time to compare to class timed_thread(Thread): def __init__(self, time_start): Thread.__init__(self) self.time_start = time_start # Thread that just executes sleep() class sleep_thread(timed_thread): def run(self): sleep(15) print "st DONE:\t%f" % (time() - time_start) # Thread that increments a number for a while class spin_thread(timed_thread): def run(self): x = 1 while x < 120000000: x += 1 print "sp DONE:\t%f" % (time() - time_start) # Thread that calls math.factorial with a large number class factorial_thread(timed_thread): def run(self): factorial(50000) print "ft DONE:\t%f" % (time() - time_start) # the tests print print "sleep_thread test" time_start = time() st = sleep_thread(time_start) st.start() print "st.start:\t%f" % (time() - time_start) st.join(2) print "st.join:\t%f" % (time() - time_start) print "sleep alive:\t%r" % st.isAlive() print print "spin_thread test" time_start = time() sp = spin_thread(time_start) sp.start() print "sp.start:\t%f" % (time() - time_start) sp.join(2) print "sp.join:\t%f" % (time() - time_start) print "sp alive:\t%r" % sp.isAlive() print print "factorial_thread test" time_start = time() ft = factorial_thread(time_start) ft.start() print "ft.start:\t%f" % (time() - time_start) ft.join(2) print "ft.join:\t%f" % (time() - time_start) print "ft alive:\t%r" % ft.isAlive() And here is the output on Python 2.6.5 on CentOS x64: sleep_thread test st.start: 0.000675 st.join: 2.006963 sleep alive: True spin_thread test sp.start: 0.000595 sp.join: 2.010066 sp alive: True factorial_thread test ft DONE: 4.475453 ft.start: 4.475589 ft.join: 4.475615 ft alive: False st DONE: 10.994519 sp DONE: 12.054668 I've tried this on python 2.6.5 on CentOS x64, 2.7.2 on Windows x86 and the factorial thread does not return from start on either of them until the thread is done executing. I've also tried this with PyPy 1.8.0 on Windows x86, and there result is slightly different. The start does return immediately, but then the join doesn't time out! sleep_thread test st.start: 0.001000 st.join: 2.001000 sleep alive: True spin_thread test sp.start: 0.000000 sp DONE: 0.197000 sp.join: 0.236000 sp alive: False factorial_thread test ft.start: 0.032000 ft DONE: 9.011000 ft.join: 9.012000 ft alive: False st DONE: 12.763000

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