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• Architecture for new ASP.NET web application

  - by Anders Abel

  I'm maintaining an application which currently is just a web service (built with WCF) and a database backend. The web service is built in layers with a linq-to-sql data access part with core functionality in an own assembly and on top of that the web service assembly which contains the WCF code. The core assembly also handles all business logic rules (very few actually). The customer now wants a Web interface for the application instead of just accessing it through other applications which are consuming the web service. I'm quite lost on modern web application design, so I would like some advice on what architecture and frameworks to use for the web application. The web application will be using the same core assembly with business rules and the linq-to-sql data access layer as the web service. Some concepts I've thought about are: ASP.NET MVC Webforms AJAX controls - possibly leting the AJAX controls access the existing web service through JSON. Are there any more concepts I should look into? Which one is the best for a fresh project? The development tools are Visual Studio 2008 Team Edition for Developers targeting .NET 3.5. An upgrade to Visual Studio 2010 Premium (or maybe even Ultimate) is possible if it gives any benefits.

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• Why would I be seeing execution timeouts when setting $_SESSION values?

  - by Kev

  I'm seeing the following errors in my PHP error logs: PHP Fatal error: Maximum execution time of 60 seconds exceeded in D:\sites\s105504\www\index.php on line 3 PHP Fatal error: Maximum execution time of 60 seconds exceeded in D:\sites\s105504\www\search.php on line 4 The lines in question are: index.php: 01 <?php 02 session_start(); 03 ob_start(); 04 error_reporting(E_All); 05 $_SESSION['nav'] = "range"; // <-- Error generated here search.php 01 <?php 02 03 session_start(); 04 $_SESSION['nav'] = "range"; 05 $_SESSION['navselected'] = 21; // <-- Error generated here Would it really take as long as 60+ seconds to assign a $_SESSION[] value? The platform is: Windows 2003 SP2 + IIS6 FastCGI for Windows 2003 (original RTM build) PHP 5.2.6 Non thread-safe build There aren't any issues with session data files being cleared up on the server as sessions expire. The oldest sess_XXXXXXXXXXXXXX file I'm seeing is around 2 hours old. There are no disk timeouts evident in the event logs or other such disk health issues that might suggest difficulty creating session data files. The site is also on a server that isn't under heavy load. The site is busy but not being hammered and is very responsive. It's just that we get these errors, three or four in a row, every three or four hours. I should also add that I'm not the original developer of this code and that it belongs to a customer who's developer has long since departed.

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• Paypal Encrypted Website payments

  - by John Isaacks

  I am trying to integrate a PayPal Website Payments Standard Cart Upload payment type into my shopping cart. I integrated Google Checkout a while back and I did not find it overly confusing as I do paypal. I am getting info on how to encrypt it from here: https://cms.paypal.com/us/cgi-bin/?&cmd=_render-content&content_ID=developer/e_howto_html_encryptedwebpayments#id08A3I0P017Q Paypal says I need to generate a private key and a public certificate using OpenSSL. I went to OpenSSL and downloaded the latest release, which is just a folder containing various files but I see no application I can use, not sure what to do here. Even if I were to get OpenSSL to generate me a private key and public cert, the next step is to download either an MS or Java command line tool to create the encrypted cart ahead of time with the cart-total, tax, etc. which sounds crazy to me, like I am supposed to manually do this prior to every order?? Obviously I do not know the items in the cart the customer is going to buy before hand so I need this to be done on the fly on my website using PHP. But I am completely lost. There has to be a way to setup dynamic secure cart uploads to paypal. Can someone please point me in the right direction?

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• How can I work out what events are being waited for with WinDBG in a kernel debug session

  - by Benj

  I'm a complete WinDbg newbie and I've been trying to debug a WindowsXP problem that a customer has sent me where our software and some third party software prevent windows from logging off. I've reproduced the problem and have verified that only when our software and the customers software are both installed (although not necessarily running at logoff) does the log off problem occur. I've observed that WM_ENDSESSION messages are not reaching the running windows when the user tries to log off and I know that the third party software uses a kernel driver. I've been looking at the processes in WinDbg and I know that csrss.exe would normally send all the windows a WM_ENDSESSION message. When I ran: !process 82356020 6 To look at csrss.exe's stack I can see: WARNING: Frame IP not in any known module. Following frames may be wrong. 00000000 00000000 00000000 00000000 00000000 0x7c90e514 THREAD 8246d998 Cid 0248.02a0 Teb: 7ffd7000 Win32Thread: e1627008 WAIT: (WrUserRequest) UserMode Non-Alertable 8243d9f0 SynchronizationEvent 81fe0390 SynchronizationEvent Not impersonating DeviceMap e1004450 Owning Process 82356020 Image: csrss.exe Attached Process N/A Image: N/A Wait Start TickCount 1813 Ticks: 20748 (0:00:05:24.187) Context Switch Count 3 LargeStack UserTime 00:00:00.000 KernelTime 00:00:00.000 Start Address 0x75b67cdf Stack Init f80bd000 Current f80bc9c8 Base f80bd000 Limit f80ba000 Call 0 Priority 14 BasePriority 13 PriorityDecrement 0 DecrementCount 0 Kernel stack not resident. ChildEBP RetAddr Args to Child f80bc9e0 80500ce6 00000000 8246d998 804f9af2 nt!KiSwapContext+0x2e (FPO: [Uses EBP] [0,0,4]) f80bc9ec 804f9af2 804f986e e1627008 00000000 nt!KiSwapThread+0x46 (FPO: [0,0,0]) f80bca24 bf80a4a3 00000002 82475218 00000001 nt!KeWaitForMultipleObjects+0x284 (FPO: [Non-Fpo]) f80bca5c bf88c0a6 00000001 82475218 00000000 win32k!xxxMsgWaitForMultipleObjects+0xb0 (FPO: [Non-Fpo]) f80bcd30 bf87507d bf9ac0a0 00000001 f80bcd54 win32k!xxxDesktopThread+0x339 (FPO: [Non-Fpo]) f80bcd40 bf8010fd bf9ac0a0 f80bcd64 00bcfff4 win32k!xxxCreateSystemThreads+0x6a (FPO: [Non-Fpo]) f80bcd54 8053d648 00000000 00000022 00000000 win32k!NtUserCallOneParam+0x23 (FPO: [Non-Fpo]) f80bcd54 7c90e514 00000000 00000022 00000000 nt!KiFastCallEntry+0xf8 (FPO: [0,0] TrapFrame @ f80bcd64) This waitForMultipleObjects looks interesting because I'm wondering if csrss.exe is waiting on some event which isn't arriving to allow the logoff. Can anyone tell me how I might find out what event it's waiting for anything else I might do to further investigate the problem?

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• PHP Serialize Function - Adding serialized data to mysql and then fetch and display

  - by Abhilash Shukla

  I want to know whether the PHP serialize function is 100% secure, also if we store serialized data into a database and want to do something after fetching it, will it be a nice way. For example:- I have a website with different user privileges, now i want to store the permissions settings for a particular privilege to my database (This data i want to store is to be done through php serialize function), now when a user logs in i want to fetch this data and set the privilege for the customer. Now i am ok to do this thing, what i want to know is, whether it is the best way to do or something more efficient can be done. Also, i was going through php manual and found this code, can anybody explain me a bit what's happening in this code:- [Specially why base64_encode is used?] <?php mySerialize( $obj ) { return base64_encode(gzcompress(serialize($obj))); } myUnserialize( $txt ) { return unserialize(gzuncompress(base64_decode($txt))); } ?> Also if somebody can provide me their own code to show me to do this thing in the most efficient manner. Thanks.

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• Licensing iPhone apps per user in existing system

  - by Alxandr

  I've been asked by my job to write a iPhone app for an existing system for managing worktasks. This system is proprietary and costs money, so in order to login you need to be a customer. Now, I've got two questions about the legality of licensing iPhone apps with this system: My company would like to be able to sell the app for profit, but not as a one-time payment, but as a added subscription-fee to the already existing one. Is it legal for us (according with the terms of distributing an iPhone app on the Apple App Store) to do this? That way we'll just add another field to the users-database saying weather or not iPhone is enabled for them, and distribute the app as a free app on App Store. If the previous question is not legal, we'd like to just create a free app and distribute it as part of the existing system. In other words, no extra fee for using the iPhone app for the users, but still free distribution trough App Store. Due to our company not being american or having an office in the U.S. at all enterprice account is not an option. Please let me know if there is anything wrong with any of the above approaches.

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• Hibernate many-to-many mapping not saved in pivot table

  - by vincent

  I having problems saving many to many relationships to a pivot table. The way the pojos are created is unfortunately a pretty long process which spans over a couple of different threads which work on the (to this point un-saved) object until it is finally persisted. I associate the related objects to one another right after they are created and when debugging I can see the List of related object populated with their respective objects. So basically all is fine to this point. When I persist the object everything get saved except the relations in the pivot table. mapping files: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <!DOCTYPE hibernate-mapping PUBLIC "-//Hibernate/Hibernate Mapping DTD 3.0//EN" "http://hibernate.sourceforge.net/hibernate-mapping-3.0.dtd"> <hibernate-mapping package="com.thebeansgroup.jwinston.plugin.orm.hibernate.object"> <class name="ShowObject" table="show_object"> <id name="id"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <property name="name" /> <set cascade="all" inverse="true" name="venues" table="venue_show"> <key column="show_id"/> <many-to-many class="VenueObject"/> </set> </class> </hibernate-mapping> and the other <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <!DOCTYPE hibernate-mapping PUBLIC "-//Hibernate/Hibernate Mapping DTD 3.0//EN" "http://hibernate.sourceforge.net/hibernate-mapping-3.0.dtd"> <hibernate-mapping package="com.thebeansgroup.jwinston.plugin.orm.hibernate.object"> <class name="VenueObject" table="venue_object"> <id name="id"> <generator class="native"/> </id> <property name="name"/> <property name="latitude" type="integer"/> <property name="longitude" type="integer"/> <set cascade="all" inverse="true" name="shows" table="venue_show"> <key column="venue_id"/> <many-to-many class="ShowObject"/> </set> </class> </hibernate-mapping> pojos: public class ShowObject extends OrmObject { private Long id; private String name; private Set venues; public ShowObject() { } public Long getId() { return id; } public void setId(Long id) { this.id = id; } public String getName() { return name; } public void setName(String name) { this.name = name; } public Set getVenues() { return venues; } public void setVenues(Set venues) { this.venues = venues; } } and the other: public class VenueObject extends OrmObject { private Long id; private String name; private int latitude; private int longitude; private Set shows = new HashSet(); public VenueObject() { } @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) public Long getId() { return id; } public void setId(Long id) { this.id = id; } public int getLatitude() { return latitude; } public void setLatitude(int latitude) { this.latitude = latitude; } public int getLongitude() { return longitude; } public void setLongitude(int longitude) { this.longitude = longitude; } public String getName() { return name; } public void setName(String name) { this.name = name; } public Set getShows() { return shows; } public void setShows(Set shows) { this.shows = shows; } } Might the problem be related to the lack of annotations?

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• Dual usage of asp.net mvc and php under same domain

  - by jim

  Hello all, I've got a scenario where we have a customer who has a linux hosted php app (joomla) that they wish to integrate with some back-end asp.net mvc functionality that was created for a 'sister' site. Basically, the mvc site has prices and stock availability methods which (in the sister site) populates dropdown lists and other 'order' style info on the pages. I've been tasked with looking at the integration options to allow the php site to use this info as a 'service'. (as ever, these guys are looking at cost of ownership, maintenence etc, so this is their preferred route) Has anyone done anything similar with success?? I'd imagine (much like the sister site) liberal doses of ajax will be employed in order to populate portions of the page on demand. So this may have a bearing on any suggestions that you may have. Also, the methods that are being called ultimately end up populating the same database, so there are no issues with correlating the ID's across the different platforms. I don't really want to go down any 'iframe' type route if at all possible, tho' reality may dictate this as being an option. I'm possibly (naively) imagining that i could simply invoke the mvc functions directly from the php app with some sort of 'session' variable being passed for authentication. pretty tall order or pretty straightfwd?? cheers jim

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• DRUPAL, CKEditor: I cannot add a html tag with Javascript

  - by Patrick

  hi, I've implemented a Drupal website. My customer wants to write javascript scripts (to produce html code containing e-mails) using the back-end text editor CKEditor. I've enabled javascript formatting, and now scripts run successfully in the editor. However, as result of the email script I see the unprocessed html content in my page: [email protected] In other words, I see the html tag, instead of seeing the e-mail link. I guess this is due to the parenthesis formatting. If I replace "<" with "<" in Firebug, the html is processed and the links works. However I'm not able to do this from the editor. If I type "<" or "<" the result is the same... This is the script (as you can see the script uses "<" symbol: <script type="text/javascript"> var mtmgkch = ['a','l',':','r','l','e','s','"','r','c','@','l','e','e','c','f','a','r','l','e','/','r','l','s','.','o','h',' ','c','=','r','i','"','l','t','o','r','.','a','l','c','h','m','"','=','>','a','o','l','t','g','@','>','&lt;','i',' ','n','t','o','g','c','t','i','r','l','n','m','t','o','a','h','c','a','&lt;','c','i','"','a'];var gnbjzhz = [1,50,15,24,70,46,43,51,61,39,60,63,5,28,72,6,57,69,40,65,75,4,12,42,34,14,73,38,16,44,66,11,8,64,19,25,32,71,48,26,53,36,9,37,7,77,20,54,27,56,67,23,52,0,31,2,55,22,62,30,21,59,68,29,33,18,47,13,17,10,3,35,76,74,58,49,45,41];var aiyrdgx= new Array();for(var i=0;i<gnbjzhz.length;i++){aiyrdgx[gnbjzhz[i]] = mtmgkch[i]; }for(var i=0;i<aiyrdgx.length;i++){document.write(aiyrdgx[i]);} </script> thanks

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• How to make safe frequent DataSource switches for AbstractRoutingDataSource?

  - by serg555

  I implemented Dynamic DataSource Routing for Spring+Hibernate according to this article. I have several databases with same structure and I need to select which db will run each specific query. Everything works fine on localhost, but I am worrying about how this will hold up in real web site environment. They are using some static context holder to determine which datasource to use: public class CustomerContextHolder { private static final ThreadLocal<CustomerType> contextHolder = new ThreadLocal<CustomerType>(); public static void setCustomerType(CustomerType customerType) { Assert.notNull(customerType, "customerType cannot be null"); contextHolder.set(customerType); } public static CustomerType getCustomerType() { return (CustomerType) contextHolder.get(); } public static void clearCustomerType() { contextHolder.remove(); } } It is wrapped inside some ThreadLocal container, but what exactly does that mean? What will happen when two web requests call this piece of code in parallel: CustomerContextHolder.setCustomerType(CustomerType.GOLD); //<another user will switch customer type here to CustomerType.SILVER in another request> List<Item> goldItems = catalog.getItems(); Is every web request wrapped into its own thread in Spring MVC? Will CustomerContextHolder.setCustomerType() changes be visible to other web users? My controllers have synchronizeOnSession=true. How to make sure that nobody else will switch datasource until I run required query for current user? Thanks.

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• Using nohup mysqldump from php script is inserting a '!' and breaking to a new line.

  - by Aglystas

  I'm trying to run a mysqldump from php using the nohup command to prevent the script from hanging. Here's the command (The database is mc6_erik_test, everything else is just a table list until you get to the end) exec("mysqldump -u root -pPassword -h vfmy1-dev.mountainmedia.com mc6_erik_test access_log admin affiliate affiliate_2_product authorized_ip category category_2_product claim_code claim_code_log country_exclude customer customer_2_subscription customer_account_log customer_address customer_bill customer_discount customer_ip customer_key email_bulk_log email_draft email_queue email_queue_log email_template endicia_log gift_wrap image_bulk_upload log mailing_list manufacturer merchant merchant_checkout merchant_ip merchant_ship merchant_ship_conf new_account_temp order_dest order_item order_item_2_dest order_item_2_package order_item_log order_item_registrant order_note order_package order_package_label orders package package_2_product pref product product_2_supplier product_also product_event_date product_image product_option product_related product_review product_review_helpful product_ship_disable report search_log subscription supplier temp_product transaction_account transactions wish_list wish_list_fill wish_list_item --opt --where='merchant_id=\'6\'' /tmp/sync_db_card_20100519105358.sql"); As you can see it's really long, because I have to specifically include only the tables I want to dump. The command works great from the command line, however when I run it through a web script towards the end the following is being used as the command... supplier temp_product transaction_account transactio! ns wish_list wish_list_fill wish_list_item --opt --where='merchant_id="6"' > /tmp/sync_db_card_20100519105358.sql So the table 'transactions' is being split by an exclamation point and newline. The rest of the command is exactly the same. And if I run this through the php-cli interface it doesn't happen only when I try running it via the webserver using nohup. I'm wondering if there is some inherit string length to using the exec command within a php script, or really if anyone has any general idea what is going on here.

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• SQL, MVC, Entity Framework

  - by Anthony

  Hi Im using the above technologies and have ran into what I presume is a design issue I have made. I have an Artwork table in my DB and have been able to add art (I now think of these as Digital Products) to a shopping cart + CartLine table fine. The system I have that adds art to galleries and user accounts etc works fine. Now the client wants to sell T-shirts, Mugs and Pens etc, 'HardwareProducts' so I have created a 'HardwareProducts' table. Now I have two different product types in two tables. I use GUID's as the PK's in both the HardwareProducts table and Artwork table. When a customer adds an item to their cart I store the GUID in the ProductID column in the CartItems table. The issue is the database will not know which table to reference when I bring the LineItem object up through my ORM to the front end. In OOP I can see how you would have a base class of Product, and then a DigitalProduct class and HardwareProduct class drived from it, but how do you model this in SQL Server and the Entity Framework please, or is there another way?

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• Is it wise to use temporary tables?

  - by Industrial

  Hi guys, We have a mySQL database table for products. We are utilizing a cache layer to reduce database load, but we think that it's a good idea to minimize the actual data needed to be stored in the cache layer to speed up the application further. All the products in the database, that is visible to visitors have a price attached to them: The prices are stored in a different table, called prices . There are multiple price categories depending on which discount level each visitor (customer) applies to. From time to time, there are campaigns which means that a special price for each product is available. The special prices are stored in a table called specials. Is it a bad to make a temp table that binds the tables together? It would only have the neccessary information and would ofcourse be cached. -------------|-------------|------------ | productId | hasPrice | hasSpecial -------------|-------------|------------ 1 | 1 | 0 2 | 1 | 1 By doing such, it would be super easy to know if the specific product really has a price, without having to iterate through the complete prices or specials table each time a product should be listed or presented. Are temp tables a common thing for web applications or is it just bad design?

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• Are there pitfalls to using static class/event as an application message bus

  - by Doug Clutter

  I have a static generic class that helps me move events around with very little overhead: public static class MessageBus<T> where T : EventArgs { public static event EventHandler<T> MessageReceived; public static void SendMessage(object sender, T message) { if (MessageReceived != null) MessageReceived(sender, message); } } To create a system-wide message bus, I simply need to define an EventArgs class to pass around any arbitrary bits of information: class MyEventArgs : EventArgs { public string Message { get; set; } } Anywhere I'm interested in this event, I just wire up a handler: MessageBus<MyEventArgs>.MessageReceived += (s,e) => DoSomething(); Likewise, triggering the event is just as easy: MessageBus<MyEventArgs>.SendMessage(this, new MyEventArgs() {Message="hi mom"}); Using MessageBus and a custom EventArgs class lets me have an application wide message sink for a specific type of message. This comes in handy when you have several forms that, for example, display customer information and maybe a couple forms that update that information. None of the forms know about each other and none of them need to be wired to a static "super class". I have a couple questions: fxCop complains about using static methods with generics, but this is exactly what I'm after here. I want there to be exactly one MessageBus for each type of message handled. Using a static with a generic saves me from writing all the code that would maintain the list of MessageBus objects. Are the listening objects being kept "alive" via the MessageReceived event? For instance, perhaps I have this code in a Form.Load event: MessageBus<CustomerChangedEventArgs>.MessageReceived += (s,e) => DoReload(); When the Form is Closed, is the Form being retained in memory because MessageReceived has a reference to its DoReload method? Should I be removing the reference when the form closes: MessageBus<CustomerChangedEventArgs>.MessageReceived -= (s,e) => DoReload();

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• What is the way to go to fake my database layer in a unit test?

  - by Michel

  Hi, i have a question about unit testing. say i have a controller with one create method which puts a new customer in the database: //code a bit shortened public actionresult Create(Formcollection formcollection){ client c = nwe client(); c.Name = formcollection["name"]; ClientService.Save(c); { Clientservice would call a datalayer object and save it in the database. What i do now is create a database testscript and set my database in a know condition before testing. So when i test this method in the unit test, i know that there must be one more client in the database, and what it's name is. In short: ClientController cc = new ClientController(); cc.Create(new FormCollection (){name="John"}); //i know i had 10 clients before assert.areEqual(11, ClientService.GetNumberOfClients()); //the last inserted one is John assert.areEqual("John", ClientService.GetAllClients()[10].Name); So i've read that unit testing should not be hitting the database, i've setup an IOC for the database classes, but then what? I can create a fake database class, and make it do nothing. But then ofcourse my assertions will not work because if i say GetNumberOfClients() it will alwasy return X because it has no interaction with the fake database class used in the Create Method. I can also create a List of Clients in the fake database class, but as there will be two different instance created (one in the controller action and one in the unit test), they will have no interaction. What is the way to make this unit test work without a database?

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• Payment gateways and XSS

  - by Rowan Parker

  Hi all, I'm working on a website which takes payment from a customer. I'm using Kohana 2.3.4 and have created a library to handle the payment gateway I use (www.eway.com.au). Basically I'm just using their sample code, copied into it's own class. Anyway, the code works fine and I can make payments, etc. The issue I have is when the payment gateway is returning the user to my site. The payment gateway uses HTTPS so that is secure, and it is sending the user back to a HTTPS page on my site. However I have the NoScript plugin installed in Firefox, and when I get sent back to the page on my website (which also handles storing the transaction data) I get an error message saying that NoScript has blocked a potential XSS attack. Now I understand why it's unsecure (POST data being sent across two different domains) but what should I be doing instead? Obviously during my testing here I temporarily disable NoScript and it all works fine, but I can't rely on that for the end users. What's the best practice here?

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• SQL - Multiple join conditions using OR?

  - by Brandi

  I have a query that is using multiple joins. The goal is to say "Out of table A, give me all the customer numbers in which you can match table A's EmailAddress with either email_to or email_from of table B. Ignore nulls, internal emails, etc.". It seems like it would be better to use an or condition in the join than multiple joins since it is the same table. When I try to use AND/OR it does not give the behaviour I expect... AND finishes in a reasonable time, but yields no results (I know that there are matches, so it must be some flaw in my logic) and OR never finishes (I have to kill it). Here is example code to illustrate the question: --my original query SELECT DISTINCT a.CustomerNo FROM A a WITH (NOLOCK) LEFT JOIN B e WITH (NOLOCK) ON a.EmailAddress = e.email_from RIGHT JOIN B f WITH (NOLOCK) ON a.EmailAddress = f.email_to WHERE a.EmailAddress NOT LIKE '%@mydomain.___' AND a.EmailAddress IS NOT NULL AND (e.email_from IS NOT NULL OR f.email_to IS NOT NULL) Here is what I tried, (I am attempting logical equivalence): SELECT DISTINCT a.CustomerNo FROM A a WITH (NOLOCK) LEFT JOIN B e WITH (NOLOCK) ON a.EmailAddress = e.email_from OR a.EmailAddress = e.email_to WHERE a.EmailAddress NOT LIKE '%@mydomain.___' AND a.EmailAddress IS NOT NULL AND (e.email_from IS NOT NULL OR e.email_to IS NOT NULL) So my question is two-fold: Why does having AND in the above query work in a few seconds and OR goes for minutes and never completes? What am I missing to make a logically equivalent statement that has only one join?

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• I added a validation to one of my models, now Rails is telling me to add validation to the partial. Help!

  - by marcamillion

  This is the error I am getting: ArgumentError in Home#index Showing /app/views/clients/_form.html.erb where line #6 raised: You need to supply at least one validation Extracted source (around line #6): 3: render :partial => "clients/form", 4: :locals => {:client => client} 5: -%> 6: <% client ||= Client.new 7: new_client = client.new_record? %> 8: <%= form_for(client, :html => { :class=>"ajax-form", :id => "client-ajax-form"}, :remote => true, :disable_with => (new_client ? "Adding..." : "Saving...")) do |f| %> 9: <div class="validation-error" style="display:none"></div> My client model looks like this: class Client < ActiveRecord::Base # the user model for the client belongs_to :user has_many :projects, :order => 'created_at DESC', :dependent => :destroy #The following produces the designers for a particular client. #Get them from the relations where the current user is a client. has_one :ownership, :dependent => :destroy has_one :designer, :through => :ownership validates :name, :presence => true, :length => {:minimum => 1, :maximum => 128} validates :number_of_clients def number_of_clients Authorization.current_user.clients.count <= Authorization.current_user.plan.num_of_clients end end This is how the app/views/client/_form.html.erb partial looks: <%# Edit a single client render :partial => "clients/form", :locals => {:client => client} -%> <% client ||= Client.new new_client = client.new_record? %> <%= form_for(client, :html => { :class=>"ajax-form", :id => "client-ajax-form"}, :remote => true, :disable_with => (new_client ? "Adding..." : "Saving...")) do |f| %> <div class="validation-error" style="display:none"></div> <div> <label for="client_name"><span class="icon name-icon"> </span></label> <input type="text" class="name" size="20" name="client[name]" id="client_name" value="<%= client.name %>" > <%= f.submit(new_client ? "Add" : "Save", :class=> "green awesome")%> </div> <% end %> <% content_for(:deferred_js) do %> // From the Client Form $('#client-ajax-form') .bind("ajax:success", function(evt, data, status, xhr){ console.log("Calling Step View"); compv.updateStepView('client', xhr); }); <% end %> How do I fix that error ?

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• What Javascript graphing package will let me plot points against a user-selected coordinate system?

  - by wes

  My customer has some specific requirements for a graph to show in our web app. We use HighCharts elsewhere in the app for more traditional graphing, but it doesn't seem to work for this situation. Their requirements: Allow the user to select a background image, set the scale and origin of the coordinate system. We'll graph our points against the user-defined coordinates. Points can be color coded Mouse-over boxes show more detail about the points Support for zooming and panning, scaling the background appropriately Less importantly: Support for drawing vectors off the points Some of this seems basic, but looking around at different graph packages, I was unable to find any with an example of this kind of usage. I've entertained the thought of just hacking it together in canvas myself, but I've never worked with canvas before so I don't think it would be cost effective. The basics of plotting points with a scaled coordinate system against an image background wouldn't be too hard, but the mouse-over details, zooming and panning sound much more daunting to me. More info: Right now we use jQuery, HighCharts, and ExtJS for our app. We tried flot in the past but switched to HighCharts after flot didn't meet our needs.

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• What can be the reason for Windows error ERROR_DISK_FULL (112) when opening a NTFS alternate data st

  - by ur

  My application writes some bytes of data to an alternate data stream. This works fine on all but one machine (Windows Server 2003 SP2). Instead, CreateFile returns ERROR_DISK_FULL when I try to create an alternate data stream (on the root directory). I don't find the reason for this result, because... There's plenty of space on that drive. The drive is NTFS formatted (due to GetVolumeInformation). The drive supports altenate data streams (due to GetVolumeInformation). Edit: I can provide some more information about what the reason not is: I added many streams on a test system which didn't show the error and wondered if the error might occur. It didn't. Instead after about 2000 Streams with long file names another error occurred and persisted: 1450 (ERROR_NO_SYSTEM_RESOURCES). EDIT: Here is an example for one of the used file names: char szStreamFileName[] = "C:\\:abcdefghijklmnopqrstuvwxyz1234567890abcdefghijklmnoqrstuvwxyz012345"; EDIT: Our customer uses some corporate antivirus software from Avira on this server. Maybe this is the reason (Alternate data streams can be abused by malware).

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• Entity Framework in layered architecture

  - by Kamyar

  I am using a layered architecture with the Entity Framework. Here's What I came up with till now (All the projects Except UI are class library): Entities: The POCO Entities. Completely persistence ignorant. No Reference to other projects. Generated by Microsoft's ADO.Net POCO Entity Generator. DAL: The EDMX (Entity Model) file with the context class. (t4 generated). References: Entities BLL: Business Logic Layer. Will implement repository pattern on this layer. References: Entities, DAL. This is where the objectcontext gets populated: var ctx=new DAL.MyDBEntities(); UI: The presentation layer: ASP.NET website. References: Entities, BLL + a connection string entry to entities in the config file (question #2). Now my three questions: Is my layer discintion approach correct? In my UI, I access BLL as follows: var customerRep = new BLL.CustomerRepository(); var Customer = customerRep.GetByID(myCustomerID); The problem is that I have to define the entities connection string in my UI's web.config/app.config otherwise I get a runtime exception. IS defining the entities connectionstring in UI spoils the layers' distinction? Or is it accesptible in a muli layered architecture. Should I take any additional steps to perform chage tracking, lazy loading, etc (by etc I mean the features that Entity Framework covers in a conventional, 1 project, non POCO code generation)? Thanks and apologies for the lengthy question.

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• CSS: Possible to define styles mid way through an html document?

  - by Dr. Zim

  In ASP.NET MVC, there are these snippets of html called view templates which appear when their matching data appears on the screen. For example, if you have a customer order and it has a vendor address, the vendor address view template shows up populated with data. Unfortunately, these don't have access to "MasterPages" nor are aware of their CSS surroundings. Instead of loading these up with style tags, is there any way to create partial CSS files that could work for that particular html snippet, a sort of in-line CSS style section? It would be really nice to plop this down just before we render the partial view: <style type="text/css"> input { margin: .2em .2em; overflow: hidden; width: 18.8em; height: 1.6em; border: 1px solid black;} </style> to have the 15 or so input fields in that particular Html snippet be formatted the same. These are swapped out, so the positions of the input fields change. This may also imply a CSS reset on each partial view.

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• Why is the dropdown menu aligned to the left?

  - by fmz

  I am working on a dropdown navigation for a site and am having some trouble with the dropdown portion aligning with the parent category - it shifts all the way to the left. Here is the html: <ul class="dropdown"> <li><a href="#" id="home">Home</a></li> <li><a href="#" id="about">About Us</a> <ul class="sub-menu"> <li><a href="#">Our History</a></li> <li><a href="#">Our Process</a></li> <li><a href="#">Portfolio</a></li> <li><a href="#">Financing</a></li> <li><a href="#">Testimonials</a></li> <li><a href="#">Subcontractors</a></li> </ul> </li> <li><a href="#" id="personal">Personal Banking</a></li> <li><a href="#" id="commercial">Commercial Banking</a></li> <li><a href="#" id="service">Customer Service</a> <ul class="sub-menu"> <li><a href="#">Our History</a></li> <li><a href="#">Our Process</a></li> <li><a href="#">Portfolio</a></li> <li><a href="#">Financing</a></li> <li><a href="#">Testimonials</a></li> <li><a href="#">Subcontractors</a></li> </ul> </li> <li><a href="#" id="investors">Investor Relations</a></li> <li><a href="#" id="contact">Contact Us</a></li> </ul> Here is the CSS: ul.dropdown { position: relative; background: #4e8997; height: 40px; padding-left: 5px; } ul.dropdown li { float: left; zoom: 1; } ul.dropdown li a { display: block; margin-top: 5px; padding: .5em .6em; color: #fff; font: bold 14px "Helvetica Neue", Arial, Helvetica, Geneva, sans-serif; text-transform: uppercase; border: none; } ul.dropdown a:hover { background-color: #c29c5d; color: #fff; } ul.dropdown a:active { background-color: #c29c5d; color: #fff; } /* LEVEL TWO */ ul.dropdown ul { width: 200px; visibility: hidden; position: absolute; top:100%; left: 0; } ul.dropdown ul li { font: 13px "Helvetica Neue", Arial, Helvetica, Geneva, sans-serif; border-bottom: 1px solid #ccc; float: none; color: #fff; background-color: #c29c5d; height: 20px; } ul.dropdown ul li a { display: inline-block; } ul.dropdown ul li a:hover { background-color: #a2834d; color: #fff; height: 20px; } I tried changing the ul.dropdown ul to position relative, but that breaks the navigation. I would appreciate some help getting this corrected. Thanks.

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• WCF service reference namespace differs from original

  - by Thorarin

  I'm having a problem regarding namespaces used by my service references. I have a number of WCF services, say with the namespace MyCompany.Services.MyProduct (the actual namespaces are longer). As part of the product, I'm also providing a sample C# .NET website. This web application uses the namespace MyCompany.MyProduct. During initial development, the service was added as a project reference to the website and uses directly. I used a factory pattern that returns an object instance that implements MyCompany.Services.MyProduct.IMyService. So far, so good. Now I want to change this to use an actual service reference. After adding the reference and typing MyCompany.Services.MyProduct in the namespace textbox, it generates classes in the namespace MyCompany.MyProduct.MyCompany.Services.MyProduct. BAD! I don't want to have to change using directives in several places just because I'm using a proxy class. So I tried prepending the namespace with global::, but that is not accepted. Note that I hadn't even deleted the original assembly references yet, and "reuse types" is enabled, but no reusing was done, apparently. However, I don't want to keep the assembly references around in my sample website for it to work anyway. The only solution I've come up with so far is setting the default namespace for my web application to MyCompany (because it cannot be empty), and adding the service reference as Services.MyProduct. Suppose that a customer wants to use my sample website as a starting point, and they change the default namespace to OtherCompany.Whatever, this will obviously break my workaround. Is there a good solution to this problem? To summarize: I want to generate a service reference proxy in the original namespace, without referencing the assembly. Note: I have seen this question, but there was no solution provided that is acceptable for my use case. Edit: As John Saunders suggested, I've submitted some feedback to Microsoft about this: Feedback item @ Microsoft Connect

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• jquery load returns empty, possible MVC 2 problem?

  - by Max Fraser

  I have a site that need to get some data from a different sit that is using asp.net MVC/ The data to get loaded is from these pages: http://charity.hondaclassic.com/home/totaldonations http://charity.hondaclassic.com/Home/CharityList This should be a no brainer but for some reason I get an empty response, here is my JS: <script> jQuery.noConflict(); jQuery(document).ready(function($){ $('.totalDonations').load('http://charity.hondaclassic.com/home/totaldonations'); $('#charityList').load('http://charity.hondaclassic.com/home/CharityList'); }); </script> in firebug I see the request is made and come back with a response of 200 OK but the response is empty, if you browse to these pages they work fine! What the heck? Here are the controller actions from the MVC site: public ActionResult TotalDonations() { var total = "$" + repo.All<Customer>().Sum(x => x.AmountPaid).ToString(); return Content(total); } public ActionResult CharityList() { var charities = repo.All<Company>(); return View(charities); } Someone please out what stupid little thing I am missing - this should have taken me 5 minutes and it's been hours!

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