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  • echo -e acts differently when run in a script by root on ubuntu

    - by ekrub
    When running a bash script on ubuntu 9.10, I get different behavior from bash echo's "-e" option depending on whether or not I'm running as root. Consider this script: $ cat echo-test if [ "`whoami`" = "root" ]; then echo "Running as root" fi echo Testing /bin/echo -e /bin/echo -e "foo\nbar" echo Testing bash echo -e echo -e "foo\nbar" When run as non-root user, I see this output: $ ./echo-test Testing /bin/echo -e foo bar Testing bash echo -e foo bar When run as root, I see this output: $ sudo ./echo-test Running as root Testing /bin/echo -e foo bar Testing bash echo -e -e foo bar Notice the "-e" being echoed in the last case ("-e foo" instead of "foo" on the second-to-last line). When running a script as root, the echo command runs as if "-e" was given and, if -e is given, the option itself is echoed. I can understand some subtle differences in behavior between /bin/echo and bash echo, but I would expect bash echo to behave the same no matter which user invokes it. Anyone know why this is the case? Is this a bug in bash echo? FYI -- I'm running GNU bash, version 4.0.33(1)-release (x86_64-pc-linux-gnu)

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  • Why can't I roll a loop in Javascript?

    - by Carl Manaster
    I am working on a web page that uses dojo and has a number (6 in my test case, but variable in general) of project widgets on it. I'm invoking dojo.addOnLoad(init), and in my init() function I have these lines: dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 0).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(0);}); dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 1).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(1);}); dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 2).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(2);}); dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 3).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(3);}); dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 4).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(4);}); dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + 5).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(5);}); and change events for my project widgets properly invoke the makeMatch function. But if I replace them with a loop: for (var i = 0; i < 6; i++) dojo.connect(dijit.byId("project" + i).InputNode, "onChange", function() {makeMatch(i);}); same makeMatch() function, same init() invocation, same everything else - just rolling my calls up into a loop - the makeMatch function is never called; the objects are not wired. What's going on, and how do I fix it? I've tried using dojo.query, but its behavior is the same as the for loop case.

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  • Few Basic Questions in Overriding

    - by Dahlia
    I have few problems with my basic and would be thankful if someone can clear this. What does it mean when I say base *b = new derived; Why would one go for this? We very well separately can create objects for class base and class derived and then call the functions accordingly. I know that this base *b = new derived; is called as Object Slicing but why and when would one go for this? I know why it is not advisable to convert the base class object to derived class object (because base class is not aware of the derived class members and methods). I even read in other StackOverflow threads that if this is gonna be the case then we have to change/re-visit our design. I understand all that, however, I am just curious, Is there any way to do this? class base { public: void f(){cout << "In Base";} }; class derived:public base { public: void f(){cout << "In Derived";} }; int _tmain(int argc, _TCHAR* argv[]) { base b1, b2; derived d1, d2; b2 = d1; d2 = reinterpret_cast<derived*>(b1); //gives error C2440 b1.f(); // Prints In Base d1.f(); // Prints In Derived b2.f(); // Prints In Base d1.base::f(); //Prints In Base d2.f(); getch(); return 0; } In case of my above example, is there any way I could call the base class f() using derived class object? I used d1.base()::f() I just want to know if there any way without using scope resolution operator? Thanks a lot for your time in helping me out!

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  • pure/const functions in C++

    - by Albert
    Hi, I'm thinking of using pure/const functions more heavily in my C++ code. (pure/const attribute in GCC) However, I am curious how strict I should be about it and what could possibly break. The most obvious case are debug outputs (in whatever form, could be on cout, in some file or in some custom debug class). I probably will have a lot of functions, which don't have any side effects despite this sort of debug output. No matter if the debug output is made or not, this will absolutely have no effect on the rest of my application. Or another case I'm thinking of is the use of my own SmartPointer class. In debug mode, my SmartPointer class has some global register where it does some extra checks. If I use such an object in a pure/const function, it does have some slight side effects (in the sense that some memory probably will be different) which should not have any real side effects though (in the sense that the behaviour is in any way different). Similar also for mutexes and other stuff. I can think of many complex cases where it has some side effects (in the sense of that some memory will be different, maybe even some threads are created, some filesystem manipulation is made, etc) but has no computational difference (all those side effects could very well be left out and I would even prefer that). How does it work out in practice? If I mark such functions as pure/const, could it break anything (considering that the code is all correct)?

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  • C++: parsing with simple regular expression or shoud I use sscanf?

    - by Helltone
    I need to parse a string like func1(arg1, arg2); func2(arg3, arg4);. It's not a very complex parsing problem, so I would prefer to avoid resorting to flex/bison or similar utilities. My first approch was to try to use POSIX C regcomp/regexec or Boost implementation of C++ std::regex. I wrote the following regular expression, which does not work (I'll explain why further on). "^" "[ ;\t\n]*" "(" // (1) identifier "[a-zA-Z_][a-zA-Z0-9_]*" ")" "[ \t\n]*" "(" // (2) non-marking "\[" "(" // (3) non-marking "[ \t]*" "(" // (4..n-1) argument "[a-zA-Z0-9_]+" ")" "[ \t\n]*" "," ")*" "[ \t\n]*" "(" // (n) last argument "[a-zA-Z0-9_]+" ")" "]" ")?" "[ \t\n]*" ";" Note that the group 1 captures the identifier and groups 4..n-1 are intended to capture arguments except the last, which is captured by group n. When I apply this regex to, say func(arg1, arg2, arg3) the result I get is an array {func, arg2, arg3}. This is wrong because arg1 is not in it! The problem is that in the standard regex libraries, submarkings only capture the last match. In other words, if you have for instance the regex "((a*|b*))*" applied on "babb", the results of the inner match will be bb and all previous captures will have been forgotten. Another thing that annoys me here is that in case of error there is no way to know which character was not recognized as these functions provide very little information about the state of the parser when the input is rejected. So I don't know if I'm missing something here... In this case should I use sscanf or similar instead? Note that I prefer to use C/C++ standard libraries (and maybe boost).

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  • leak in fgets when assigning to buffer

    - by monkeyking
    I'm having problems understanding why following code leaks in one case, and not in the other case. The difference is while(NULL!=fgets(buffer,length,file))//doesnt leak while(NULL!=(buffer=fgets(buffer,length,file))//leaks I thought it would be the same. Full code below. #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #define LENS 10000 void no_leak(const char* argv){ char *buffer = (char *) malloc(LENS); FILE *fp=fopen(argv,"r"); while(NULL!=fgets(buffer,LENS,fp)){ fprintf(stderr,"%s",buffer); } fclose(fp); fprintf(stderr,"%s\n",buffer); free(buffer); } void with_leak(const char* argv){ char *buffer = (char *) malloc(LENS); FILE *fp=fopen(argv,"r"); while(NULL!=(buffer=fgets(buffer,LENS,fp))){ fprintf(stderr,"%s",buffer); } fclose(fp); fprintf(stderr,"%s\n",buffer); free(buffer); }

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  • Ruby TypeErrors involving `expected Data`

    - by Kenny Peng
    I've ran into situations where I have gotten these expected Data errors before, but they have always pointed to ActiveRecord not playing well with other libraries in the past. This piece of code: def load(kv_block, debug=false) # Converts a string block to a Hash using split kv_map = StringUtils.kv_array_to_hash(kv_block) # Loop through each key, value kv_map.each do |mem,val| # Format the member from camel case to underscore member = mem.camel_to_underscore() # If the object includes a method to set the key (i.e. the key # is a member of self), invoke the method, setting the value of # the member) if self.methods.include?(member.to_set_method_name()) then # Exception thrown here self.send(member.to_set_method_name(), val) # Else, check for the same case, this time for an instance variable elsif self.instance_variable_defined?(member.to_instance_var_name()) self.instance_variable_set(member.to_instance_var_name(), val) # Else, complain that the object doesn't understand the key with # respect to its class definition. else raise ArgumentError, "I don't know what to do with #{member}. #{self.class} does not have a member or function called #{member}" end end end produces the error wrong argument type #<Class:0x11a02088> (expected Data) (TypeError) in the each loop on the first if test. I've inspected a post-mortem debugging instance using rdebug, and running that line manually, it works without a hitch. Has anyone seen this error before and what's been your solution to it? I used to think it was ActiveRecord and other gems stomping on each other's definitions, but I removed any references to ActiveRecord and this still occurs.

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  • Making it look like the computer is thinking in TicTacToe game

    - by rage
    here is a slice of code that i've written in VB.net Private Sub L00_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles L00.Click, L01.Click, L02.Click, L03.Click, L10.Click, L11.Click, L12.Click, L13.Click, L20.Click, L21.Click, L22.Click, L23.Click, L30.Click, L31.Click, L32.Click, L33.Click Dim ticTac As Label = CType(sender, Label) Dim strRow As String Dim strCol As String 'Once a move is made, do not allow user to change whether player/computer goes first, because it doesn't make sense to do so since the game has already started. ComputerFirstStripMenuItem.Enabled = False PlayerFirstToolStripMenuItem.Enabled = False 'Check to make sure clicked tile is a valid tile i.e and empty tile. If (ticTac.Text = String.Empty) Then ticTac.Text = "X" ticTac.ForeColor = ColorDialog1.Color ticTac.Tag = 1 'After the player has made his move it becomes the computers turn. computerTurn(sender, e) Else MessageBox.Show("Please pick an empty tile to make next move", "Invalid Move") End If End Sub Private Sub computerTurn(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Call Randomize() row = Int(4 * Rnd()) col = Int(4 * Rnd()) 'Check to make sure clicked tile is a valid tile i.e and empty tile. If Not ticTacArray(row, col).Tag = 1 And Not ticTacArray(row, col).Tag = 4 Then ticTacArray(row, col).Text = "O" ticTacArray(row, col).ForeColor = ColorDialog2.Color ticTacArray(row, col).Tag = 4 checkIfGameOver(sender, e) Else 'Some good ole pseudo-recursion(doesn't require a base case(s)). computerTurn(sender, e) End If End Sub Everything works smoothly, except i'm trying to make it seem like the computer has to "think" before making its move. So what i've tried to do is place a System.Threading.Sleep() call in different places in the code above. The problem is that instead of making the computer look like its thinking, the program waits and then puts the X and O together at the same time. Can someone help me make it so that the program puts an X wherever i click AND THEN wait before it places an O? Edit: in case any of you are wondering, i realize that the computers AI is ridiculously dumb, but its just to mess around right now. Later on i will implement a serious AI..hopefully.

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  • Javascript/jQuery: programmatically follow a link

    - by Dan
    In Javascript code, I would like to programmatically cause the browser to follow a link that's on my page. Simple case: <a id="foo" href="mailto:[email protected]">something</a> function goToBar() { $('#foo').trigger('follow'); } This is hypothetical as it doesn't actually work. And no, triggering click doesn't do it. I am aware of window.location and window.open but these differ from native link-following in some ways that matter to me: a) in the presence of a <base /> element, and b) in the case of mailto URLs. The latter in particular is significant. In Firefox at least, calling window.location.href = "mailto:[email protected]" causes the window's unload handlers to fire, whereas simply clicking a mailto link does not, as far as I can tell. I'm looking for a way to trigger the browser's default handling of links, from Javascript code. Does such a mechanism exist? Toolkit-specific answers also welcome (especially for Gecko).

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  • How to write this function as a pL/pgSQl function ?

    - by morpheous
    I am trying to implement some business logic in a PL/pgSQL function. I have hacked together some pseudo code that explains the type of business logic I want to include in the function. Note: This function returns a table, so I can use it in a query like: SELECT A.col1, B.col1 FROM (SELECT * from some_table_returning_func(1, 1, 2, 3)) as A, tbl2 as B; The pseudocode of the pl/PgSQL function is below: CREATE FUNCTION some_table_returning_func(uid int, type_id int, filter_type_id int, filter_id int) RETURNS TABLE AS $$ DECLARE where_clause text := 'tbl1.id = ' + uid; ret TABLE; BEGIN switch (filter_type_id) { case 1: switch (filter_id) { case 1: where_clause += ' AND tbl1.item_id = tbl2.id AND tbl2.type_id = filter_id'; break; //other cases follow ... } break; //other cases follow ... } // where clause has been built, now run query based on the type ret = SELECT [COL1, ... COLN] WHERE where_clause; IF (type_id <> 1) THEN return ret; ELSE return select * from another_table_returning_func(ret,123); ENDIF; END; $$ LANGUAGE plpgsql; I have the following questions: How can I write the function correctly to (i.e. EXECUTE the query with the generated WHERE clause, and to return a table How can I write a PL/pgSQL function that accepts a table and an integer and returns a table (another_table_returning_func) ?

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  • OpenGLES - Rendering a background image only once and not wiping it

    - by chaosbeaker
    Hello, first time asking a question here but been watching others answers for a while. My own question is one for improving the performance of my program. Currently I'm wiping the viewFrameBuffer on each pass through my program and then rendering the background image first followed by the rest of my scene. I was wondering how I go about rendering the background image once, and only wiping the rest of the scene for updating/re-rendering. I tried using a seperate buffer but I'm not sure how to present this new buffer to the render buffer. // Set the current EAGLContext and bind to the framebuffer. This will direct all OGL commands to the // framebuffer and the associated renderbuffer attachment which is where our scene will be rendered [EAGLContext setCurrentContext:context]; glBindFramebufferOES(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_OES, viewFramebuffer); // Define the viewport. Changing the settings for the viewport can allow you to scale the viewport // as well as the dimensions etc and so I'm setting it for each frame in case we want to change i glViewport(0, 0, screenBounds.size.width , screenBounds.size.height); // Clear the screen. If we are going to draw a background image then this clear is not necessary // as drawing the background image will destroy the previous image glClearColor(0.0f, 1.0f, 0.0f, 1.0f); glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT); // Setup how the images are to be blended when rendered. This could be changed at different points during your // render process if you wanted to apply different effects glBlendFunc(GL_SRC_ALPHA, GL_ONE_MINUS_SRC_ALPHA); switch (currentViewInt) { case 1: { [background render:CGPointMake(240, 0) fromTopLeftBottomRightCenter:@"Bottom"]; // Other Rendering Code }} // Bind to the renderbuffer and then present this image to the current context glBindRenderbufferOES(GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES, viewRenderbuffer); [context presentRenderbuffer:GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES]; Hopefully by solving this I'll also be able to implement another buffer just for rendering particles as I can set them to always use a black background as their alpha source. Any help is greatly appreciated

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  • CIE XYZ colorspace: do I have RGBA or XYZA?

    - by Tronic
    I plan to write a painting program based on linear combinations of xy plane points (0,1), (1,0) and (0,0). Such system works identically to RGB, except that the primaries are not within the gamut but at the corners of a triangle that encloses the entire gamut. I have seen the three points being referred to as X, Y and Z (upper case) somewhere, but I cannot find the page anymore (I marked them to the picture myself). My pixel format stores the intensity of each of those three components the same way as RGB does, together with alpha value. This allows using pretty much any image manipulation operation designed for RGBA without modifying the code. What is my format called? Is it XYZA, RGBA or something else? Google doesn't seem to know of XYZA. RGBA will get confused with sRGB + alpha (which I also need to use in the same program). Notice that the primaries X, Y and Z and their intensities have little to do with the x, y and z coordinates (lower case) that are more commonly used.

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  • A generic error occurred in GDI+, JPEG Image to MemoryStream

    - by madcapnmckay
    Hi, This seems to be a bit of an infamous error all over the web. So much so that I have been unable to find an answer to my problem as my scenario doesn't fit. An exception gets thrown when I save the image to the stream. Weirdly this works perfectly with a png but gives the above error with jpg and gif which is rather confusing. Most similar problem out there relate to saving images to files without permissions. Ironically the solution is to use a memory stream as I am doing.... public static byte[] ConvertImageToByteArray(Image imageToConvert) { using (var ms = new MemoryStream()) { ImageFormat format; switch (imageToConvert.MimeType()) { case "image/png": format = ImageFormat.Png; break; case "image/gif": format = ImageFormat.Gif; break; default: format = ImageFormat.Jpeg; break; } imageToConvert.Save(ms, format); return ms.ToArray(); } } More detail to the exception. The reason this causes so many issues is the lack of explanation :( System.Runtime.InteropServices.ExternalException was unhandled by user code Message="A generic error occurred in GDI+." Source="System.Drawing" ErrorCode=-2147467259 StackTrace: at System.Drawing.Image.Save(Stream stream, ImageCodecInfo encoder, EncoderParameters encoderParams) at System.Drawing.Image.Save(Stream stream, ImageFormat format) at Caldoo.Infrastructure.PhotoEditor.ConvertImageToByteArray(Image imageToConvert) in C:\Users\Ian\SVN\Caldoo\Caldoo.Coordinator\PhotoEditor.cs:line 139 at Caldoo.Web.Controllers.PictureController.Croppable() in C:\Users\Ian\SVN\Caldoo\Caldoo.Web\Controllers\PictureController.cs:line 132 at lambda_method(ExecutionScope , ControllerBase , Object[] ) at System.Web.Mvc.ActionMethodDispatcher.Execute(ControllerBase controller, Object[] parameters) at System.Web.Mvc.ReflectedActionDescriptor.Execute(ControllerContext controllerContext, IDictionary`2 parameters) at System.Web.Mvc.ControllerActionInvoker.InvokeActionMethod(ControllerContext controllerContext, ActionDescriptor actionDescriptor, IDictionary`2 parameters) at System.Web.Mvc.ControllerActionInvoker.<>c__DisplayClassa.<InvokeActionMethodWithFilters>b__7() at System.Web.Mvc.ControllerActionInvoker.InvokeActionMethodFilter(IActionFilter filter, ActionExecutingContext preContext, Func`1 continuation) InnerException: OK things I have tried so far. Cloning the image and working on that. Retrieving the encoder for that MIME passing that with jpeg quality setting. Please can anyone help.

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  • Deal with undefined values in code or in the template?

    - by David
    I'm writing a web application (in Python, not that it matters). One of the features is that people can leave comments on things. I have a class for comments, basically like so: class Comment: user = ... # other stuff where user is an instance of another class, class User: name = ... # other stuff And of course in my template, I have <div>${comment.user.name}</div> Problem: Let's say I allow people to post comments anonymously. In that case comment.user is None (undefined), and of course accessing comment.user.name is going to raise an error. What's the best way to deal with that? I see three possibilities: Use a conditional in the template to test for that case and display something different. This is the most versatile solution, since I can change the way anonymous comments are displayed to, say, "Posted anonymously" (instead of "Posted by ..."), but I've often been told that templates should be mindless display machines and not include logic like that. Also, other people might wind up writing alternate templates for the same application, and I feel like I should be making things as easy as possible for the template writer. Implement an accessor method for the user property of a Comment that returns a dummy user object when the real user is undefined. This dummy object would have user.name = 'Anonymous' or something like that and so the template could access it and print its name with no error. Put an actual record in my database corresponding to a user with user.name = Anonymous (or something like that), and just assign that user to any comment posted when nobody's logged in. I know I've seen some real-world systems that operate this way. (phpBB?) Is there a prevailing wisdom among people who write these sorts of systems about which of these (or some other solution) is the best? Any pitfalls I should watch out for if I go one way vs. another? Whoever gives the best explanation gets the checkmark.

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  • Hibernate not saving foreign key, but with junit it's ok

    - by Leonardo
    Hi All, I have this strange problem. In a J2ee webapp with spring, smartgwt and hibernate, it happens that I have a class A wich has a set of class B, both of them mapped to table A and table B. I wrote a simple test case for testing the service manager which is supposed to do insert, update, delete and everything work as expected especially during insert. In the end I have one record in A and records in B with foreign key to A. But when I try to call the service from the web app, the entity in B are saved without a foreign key reference. I am sure that the service is the same. One thing I noticed is that enabling hibernate logging, seems that when the service is called from the application, one more update is made: insert A insert B update A update B update B (foreign key only) update A <--- ??? update B <--- ??? Instead, when junit test case is run, the update is as follows: insert A insert B update A update B update B (foreign key only) I suppose the latest update is what is causing the erroe, maybe it is overwriting values. Considering that the app is using spring, with the well known mechanism of DAO + Manager, where can I investigate to solve this issue ? Someone told me that the session is not closed, so hibernate would do one more update before release the objects by itself. I am pretty sure that all the configuration hbm, xml, and the rest are fine...but I maybe wrong. thanks

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  • prototype findElements querySelectorAll error

    - by JD
    i'm call the "down" function but am getting an invalid argument using 1.6.1_rc2 here's the html snippet: <TR id=000000214A class="activeRow searchResultsDisplayOver" conceptID="0000001KIU"> <TD> <DIV class=gridRowWrapper> <SPAN class=SynDesc>Asymmetric breasts</SPAN> <DIV class=buttonWrapper> <SPAN class=btnAddFav title="Add to Favorites">&nbsp;</SPAN> </DIV> </DIV> </TD> </TR> here's the code: var description = row.down('span.SynDesc').innerHTML; row is a dom reference to the element. prototype is appending a # then the id of the element: findElements: function(root) { root = root || document; var e = this.expression, results; switch (this.mode) { case 'selectorsAPI': if (root !== document) { var oldId = root.id, id = $(root).identify(); id = id.replace(/[\.:]/g, "\\$0"); e = "#" + id + " " + e; } results = $A(root.querySelectorAll(e)).map(Element.extend); <-- e = "#000000214A span.SynDesc" root.id = oldId; return results; case 'xpath': return document._getElementsByXPath(this.xpath, root); default: return this.matcher(root); } i get an "invalid argument" error? if i put a breakpoint before the offending line and change e to be equal to "span.SynDesc" it works fine. help. :)

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  • Does "epsilon" really guarantees anything in floating-point computations?!

    - by Michal Czardybon
    To make the problem short let's say I want to compute expression: a / (b - c) on float's. To make sure the result is meaningful, I can check if 'b' and 'c' are inequal: float eps = std::numeric_limits<float>::epsilon(); if ((b - c) > EPS || (c - b) > EPS) { return a / (b - c); } but my tests show it is not enough to guarantee either meaningful results nor not failing to provide a result if it is possible. Case 1: a = 1.0f; b = 0.00000003f; c = 0.00000002f; Result: The if condition is NOT met, but the expression would produce a correct result 100000008 (as for the floats' precision). Case 2: a = 1e33f; b = 0.000003; c = 0.000002; Result: The if condition is met, but the expression produces not a meaningful result +1.#INF00. I found it much more reliable to check the result, not the arguments: const float INF = numeric_limits<float>::infinity(); float x = a / (b - c); if (-INF < x && x < INF) { return x; } But what for is the epsilon then and why is everyone saying epsilon is good to use?

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  • How to implement jsf validator?

    - by Krishna
    HI, I want to know how to implement Validator in JSF. What is the advantages of declaring the validator-id. When it will be called in the life cycle?. I have implemented the following code. Please find out what is wrong in the code. I am not seeing it called anywhere in the life cycle. <?xml version="1.0"?> <!DOCTYPE faces-config PUBLIC "-//Sun Microsystems, Inc.//DTD JavaServer Faces Config 1.1//EN" "http://java.sun.com/dtd/web-facesconfig_1_1.dtd"> <faces-config> <lifecycle> <phase-listener>javabeat.net.jsf.JsfPhaseListener</phase-listener> </lifecycle> <validator> <validator-id>JsfValidator</validator-id> <validator-class>javabeat.net.jsf.JsfValidator</validator-class> </validator> <managed-bean> <managed-bean-name>jsfBean</managed-bean-name> <managed-bean-class>javabeat.net.beans.ManagedBean</managed-bean-class> <managed-bean-scope>request</managed-bean-scope> </managed-bean> <navigation-rule> <navigation-case> <from-outcome>success</from-outcome> <to-view-id>success.jsp</to-view-id> </navigation-case> </navigation-rule> </faces-config> public class JsfValidator implements Validator { public JsfValidator() { System.out.println("Inside JsfValidator Constructor"); } @Override public void validate(FacesContext facesContext, UIComponent uiComponent, Object object) throws ValidatorException { System.out.println("Inside Validator"); } }

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  • committing to a branch that's not checked out

    - by intuited
    I'm using git to version my home directories on a couple different machines. I'd like for them to each use separate branches and both pull from a common branch. So most commits should be made to that common branch, unless something specific to that machine is being committed, in which case the commit should go to the checked out, machine-specific branch. Switching branches is clearly not a very good option in this case. It's mentioned in this post that what I want to do is impossible, but I found that answer to be rather blunt and to perhaps not take into account the possibility of using the plumbing commands. Unfortunately I don't have enough reputation to comment on that thread. I rather suspect that there is some way to do this and am hoping to save myself an hour or few of questing for the answer by just asking you good folk. So is it possible to commit to a different branch without checking that branch out first? Ideally I'd like to use the index in the same way that git commit normally does.

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  • Doing without partial commits the "Mercurial way"

    - by David Moles
    Subversion shop considering switching to Mercurial, trying to figure out in advance what all the complaints from developers are going to be. There's one fairly common use case here that I can't see how to handle. I'm working on some largish feature, and I have a significant part of the code -- or possibly several significant parts of the code -- in pieces all over the garage floor, totally unsuitable for checkin, maybe not even compiling. An urgent bugfix request comes in. The fix is nice and local and doesn't touch any of the code I've been working on. I make the fix in my working copy. Now what? I've looked at "Mercurial cherry picking changes for commit" and "best practices in mercurial: branch vs. clone, and partial merges?" and all the suggestions seem to be extensions of varying complexity, from Record and Shelve to Queues. The fact that there apparently isn't any core functionality for this makes me suspect that in some sense this working style is Doing It Wrong. What would a Mercurial-like solution to this use case look like?

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  • Chrome extension sendRequest from async callback not working?

    - by Eugene
    Can't figure out what's wrong. onRequest not triggered on call from async callback method, the same request from content script works. The sample code below. background.js ============= ... makeAsyncRequest(); ... chrome.extension.onRequest.addListener(function(request, sender, sendResponse) { switch (request.id) { case "from_content_script": // This works console.log("from_content_script"); sendResponse({}); // clean up break; case "from_async": // Not working! console.log("from_async"); sendResponse({}); // clean up break; } }); methods.js ========== makeAsyncRequest = function() { ... var xhr = new XMLHttpRequest(); xhr.onreadystatechange = function() { if (xhr.readyState == 4) { ... // It works console.log("makeAsyncRequest callback"); chrome.extension.sendRequest({id: "from_async"}, function(response) { }); } } ... }; UPDATE: manifest configuration file. Don't no what's wrong here. { "name": "TestExt", "version": "0.0.1", "icons": { "48": "img/icon-48-green.gif" }, "description": "write it later", "background_page": "background.html", "options_page": "options.html", "browser_action": { "default_title": "TestExt", "default_icon": "img/icon-48-green.gif" }, "permissions": [ "tabs", "http://*/*", "https://*/*", "file://*/*", "webNavigation" ] }

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  • Unit testing a Grails custom taglib based on built-in Grails taglib

    - by dipess
    I've an app based on Grails 1.3.7. And I need to write a unit test for a custom taglib that is based on the built-in taglib, <g:select /> to be specific. I checked out the solution on this previous SO post but the solution stated is not working in my case (some properties are not being prooperly mocked up). The other solution that I found was this. Using this approach, I get most of the properties of FormTagLib mocked up except for the grailsApplication property that select requires. The actual error that I get is Cannot invoke method getArtefact() on null object. How can I properly write the unit test in such a case? Edit Here are my test class and the full stacktrace. Line #45 on the stacktrace is the call to the g.select from my custom taglib. My custom taglib is something like def clientSpecificQueues = {attrs-> def queueList = taskService.getClientSpecificQueues(session.clientName) def queueLabel = "Some String" if (queueList.size() > 0){ out << queueLabel else out << g.select(name:'queueId', from: queueList, optionKey: 'id', optionValue: 'name') }

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  • Project management and bundling dependencies

    - by Joshua
    I've been looking for ways to learn about the right way to manage a software project, and I've stumbled upon the following blog post. I've learned some of the things mentioned the hard way, others make sense, and yet others are still unclear to me. To sum up, the author lists a bunch of features of a project and how much those features contribute to a project's 'suckiness' for a lack of a better term. You can find the full article here: http://spot.livejournal.com/308370.html In particular, I don't understand the author's stance on bundling dependencies with your project. These are: == Bundling == Your source only comes with other code projects that it depends on [ +20 points of FAIL ] Why is this a problem, (especially given the last point)? If your source code cannot be built without first building the bundled code bits [ +10 points of FAIL ] Doesn't this necessarily have to be the case for software built against 3rd party libs? Your code needs that other code to be compiled into its library before the linker can work? If you have modified those other bundled code bits [ +40 points of FAIL ] If this is necessary for your project, then it naturally follows that you've bundled said code with yours. If you want to customize a build of some lib,say WxWidgets, you'll have to edit that projects build scripts to bulid the library that you want. Subsequently, you'll have to publish those changes to people who wish to build your code, so why not use a high level make script with the params already written in, and distribute that? Furthermore, (especially in a windows env) if your code base is dependent on a particular version of a lib (that you also need to custom compile for your project) wouldn't it be easier to give the user the code yourself (because in this case, it is unlikely that the user will already have the correct version installed)? So how would you respond to these comments, and what points may I be failing to take into consideration? Would you agree or disagree with the author's take (or mine), and why?

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  • Empty Postbacks on ASP.NET pages

    - by AaronLS
    We are having a problem that seems to only be a problem when accessing our websites from internal intranet machines. When logged into the domain, and accessing our websites, postbacks are not working. Basically the page behaves as if it were refreshed and nothing was changed. When logging the GETs and POSTs with an HTTP analyzer, the post is complete empty and the ContentLength is 0. It is also very sporadic, but seems to be happening fairly often. In the case where it failed, we could see that there was an extra item in the Header for the POST, it was "Authorization" and the value was the word "Negotiate " followed by a space and then a bunch of characters and two equal symbols at the end, which looked like some kind of base64 encoded value. In a case where it succeeded, this Authorization item was no in the header, but I have logged more than one successful cases to know if that is consistent. We have seen this occur only with IE8 so far, and when it occurs it is sometimes sporadic. I can close and open the browser and it will begin working sometimes, and other times it is still broken. What might be causing the postback to be empty? This means the viewstate is not sent to the server which makes the page basically broken. It seems to certainly be a client side issue, but not sure if it's not aggravated by some server settings. Thanks in advance.

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  • Auto increment with a Unit Of Work

    - by Derick
    Context I'm building a persistence layer to abstract different types of databases that I'll be needing. On the relational part I have mySQL, Oracle and PostgreSQL. Let's take the following simplified MySQL tables: CREATE TABLE Contact ( ID varchar(15), NAME varchar(30) ); CREATE TABLE Address ( ID varchar(15), CONTACT_ID varchar(15), NAME varchar(50) ); I use code to generate system specific alpha numeric unique ID's fitting 15 chars in this case. Thus, if I insert a Contact record with it's Addresses I have my generated Contact.ID and Address.CONTACT_IDs before committing. I've created a Unit of Work (amongst others) as per Martin Fowler's patterns to add transaction support. I'm using a key based Identity Map in the UoW to track the changed records in memory. It works like a charm for the scenario above, all pretty standard stuff so far. The question scenario comes in when I have a database that is not under my control and the ID fields are auto-increment (or in Oracle sequences). In this case I do not have the db generated Contact.ID beforehand, so when I create my Address I do not have a value for Address.CONTACT_ID. The transaction has not been started on the DB session since all is kept in the Identity Map in memory. Question: What is a good approach to address this? (Avoiding unnecessary db round trips) Some ideas: Retrieve the last ID: I can do a call to the database to retrieve the last Id like: SELECT Auto_increment FROM information_schema.tables WHERE table_name='Contact'; But this is MySQL specific and probably something similar can be done for the other databases. If do this then would need to do the 1st insert, get the ID and then update the children (Address.CONTACT_IDs) – all in the current transaction context.

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