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• Calling a web service from a windows service

  - by Arun

  I'm sure there's an elegant solution to the problem but I just can't get my head around it. I am trying to call a web service from within a Windows service. The web service is secured (using Windows authentication). The account that the windows service runs under does have the rights to call the web service but I can't figure out how to get those credentials and send them off to the web service. The web service is WCF and is hosted on the same machine (in IIS) as the windows service.

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• NSNotifications vs delegate for multiple instances of same protocol

  - by Brent Traut

  I could use some architectural advice. I've run into the following problem a few times now and I've never found a truly elegant way to solve it. The issue, described at the highest level possible:I have a parent class that would like to act as the delegate for multiple children (all using the same protocol), but when the children call methods on the parent, the parent no longer knows which child is making the call. I would like to use loose coupling (delegates/protocols or notifications) rather than direct calls. I don't need multiple handlers, so notifications seem like they might be overkill. To illustrate the problem, let me try a super-simplified example: I start with a parent view controller (and corresponding view). I create three child views and insert each of them into the parent view. I would like the parent view controller to be notified whenever the user touches one of the children. There are a few options to notify the parent: Define a protocol. The parent implements the protocol and sets itself as the delegate to each of the children. When the user touches a child view, its view controller calls its delegate (the parent). In this case, the parent is notified that a view is touched, but it doesn't know which one. Not good enough. Same as #1, but define the methods in the protocol to also pass some sort of identifier. When the child tells its delegate that it was touched, it also passes a pointer to itself. This way, the parent know exactly which view was touched. It just seems really strange for an object to pass a reference to itself. Use NSNotifications. The parent defines a separate method for each of the three children and then subscribes to the "viewWasTouched" notification for each of the three children as the notification sender. The children don't need to attach themselves to the user dictionary, but they do need to send the notification with a pointer to themselves as the scope. Same as #4, but rather than using separate methods, the parent could just use one with a switch case or other branching along with the notification's sender to determine which path to take. Create multiple man-in-the-middle classes that act as the delegates to the child views and then call methods on the parent either with a pointer to the child or with some other differentiating factor. This approach doesn't seem scalable. Are any of these approaches considered best practice? I can't say for sure, but it feels like I'm missing something more obvious/elegant.

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• Displaying pic for user through a question's answer

  - by bgadoci

  Ok, I am trying to display the profile pic of a user. The application I have set up allows users to create questions and answers (I am calling answers 'sites' in the code) the view in which I am trying to do so is in the /views/questions/show.html.erb file. It might also be of note that I am using the Paperclip gem. Here is the set up: Associations Users class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :questions, :dependent => :destroy has_many :sites, :dependent => :destroy has_many :notes, :dependent => :destroy has_many :likes, :through => :sites , :dependent => :destroy has_many :pics, :dependent => :destroy has_many :likes, :dependent => :destroy end Questions class Question < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :sites, :dependent => :destroy has_many :notes, :dependent => :destroy has_many :likes, :dependent => :destroy belongs_to :user end Answers (sites) class Site < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :question belongs_to :user has_many :notes, :dependent => :destroy has_many :likes, :dependent => :destroy has_attached_file :photo, :styles => { :small => "250x250>" } end Pics class Pic < ActiveRecord::Base has_attached_file :profile_pic, :styles => { :small => "100x100" } belongs_to :user end The /views/questions/show.html.erb is rendering the partial /views/sites/_site.html.erb which is calling the Answer (site) with: <% div_for site do %> <%=h site.description %> <% end %> I have been trying to do things like: <%=image_tag site.user.pic.profile_pic.url(:small) %> <%=image_tag site.user.profile_pic.url(:small) %> etc. But that is obviously wrong. My error directs me to the Questions#show action so I am imagining that I need to define something in there but not sure what. Is is possible to call the pic given the current associations, placement of the call, and if so what Controller additions do I need to make, and what line of code will call the pic? UPDATE: Here is the QuestionsController#show code: def show @question = Question.find(params[:id]) @sites = @question.sites.all(:select => "sites.*, SUM(likes.like) as like_total", :joins => "LEFT JOIN likes AS likes ON likes.site_id = sites.id", :group => "sites.id", :order => "like_total DESC") respond_to do |format| format.html # show.html.erb format.xml { render :xml => @question } end end

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• Where are the function literals in c++?

  - by academicRobot

  First of all, maybe literals is not the right term for this concept, but its the closest I could think of (not literals in the sense of functions as first class citizens). The idea is that when you make a conventional function call, it compiles to something like this: callq <immediate address> But if you make a function call using a function pointer, it compiles to something like this: mov <memory location>,%rax callq *%rax Which is all well and good. However, what if I'm writing a template library that requires a callback of some sort with a specified argument list and the user of the library is expected to know what function they want to call at compile time? Then I would like to write my template to accept a function literal as a template parameter. So, similar to template <int int_literal> struct my_template {...};` I'd like to write template <func_literal_t func_literal> struct my_template {...}; and have calls to func_literal within my_template compile to callq <immediate address>. Is there a facility in C++ for this, or a work around to achieve the same effect? If not, why not (e.g. some cataclysmic side effects)? How about C++0x or another language? Solutions that are not portable are fine. Solutions that include the use of member function pointers would be ideal. I'm not particularly interested in being told "You are a <socially unacceptable term for a person of low IQ>, just use function pointers/functors." This is a curiosity based question, and it seems that it might be useful in some (albeit limited) applications. It seems like this should be possible since function names are just placeholders for a (relative) memory address, so why not allow more liberal use (e.g. aliasing) of this placeholder. p.s. I use function pointers and functions objects all the the time and they are great. But this post got me thinking about the don't pay for what you don't use principle in relation to function calls, and it seems like forcing the use of function pointers or similar facility when the function is known at compile time is a violation of this principle, though a small one.

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• GTKMM/C++ Window Event on loosing/regaining focus?

  - by ace

  How can i call a function whenever my gtkmm app looses or regains focus? Thanks.

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• How can I quickly set up a RESTful site using PHP without a Framework?

  - by Sanoj

  I would like to quickly set up a RESTful site using PHP without learning a PHP Framework. I would like to use a single .htaccess-file in Apache (no mod_rewrite) or a single rule using Nginx, so I easyli can change web server without changing my code. So I want to direct all requests to a single PHP-file, and that file takes care of the RESTful-handling and call the right PHP-file. In example: The user request http://mysite.com/test The server sends all requests to rest.php The rest.php call test.php (maybe with a querystring). If this can be done, is there a free PHP-script that works like my rest.php? or how can I do this PHP-script?

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• Python: User-Defined Exception That Proves The Rule

  - by bandana

  Python documentations states: Exceptions should typically be derived from the Exception class, either directly or indirectly. the word 'typically' leaves me in an ambiguous state. consider the code: class good(Exception): pass class bad(object): pass Heaven = good() Hell = bad() >>> raise Heaven Traceback (most recent call last): File "<pyshell#163>", line 1, in <module> raise Heaven good >>> raise Hell Traceback (most recent call last): File "<pyshell#171>", line 1, in <module> raise Hell TypeError: exceptions must be classes or instances, not bad so when reading the python docs, should i change 'typically' with ''? what if i have a class hierarchy that has nothing to do with the Exception class, and i want to 'raise' objects belonging to the hierarchy? i can always raise an exception with an argument: raise Exception, Hell This seems slightly awkward to me What's so special about the Exception class, that only its family members can be raised?

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• JavaScript regular expression literal persists between function calls

  - by Charles Anderson

  I have this piece of code: function func1(text) { var pattern = /([\s\S]*?)(\<\?(?:attrib |if |else-if |else|end-if|search |for |end-for)[\s\S]*?\?\>)/g; var result; while (result = pattern.exec(text)) { if (some condition) { throw new Error('failed'); } ... } } This works, unless the throw statement is executed. In that case, the next time I call the function, the exec() call starts where it left off, even though I am supplying it with a new value of 'text'. I can fix it by writing var pattern = new RegExp('.....'); instead, but I don't understand why the first version is failing. How is the regular expression persisting between function calls? (This is happening in the latest versions of Firefox and Chrome.) Edit Complete test case: <!DOCTYPE HTML> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-type" content="text/html;charset=UTF-8"> <title>Test Page</title> <style type='text/css'> body { font-family: sans-serif; } #log p { margin: 0; padding: 0; } </style> <script type='text/javascript'> function func1(text, count) { var pattern = /(one|two|three|four|five|six|seven|eight)/g; log("func1"); var result; while (result = pattern.exec(text)) { log("result[0] = " + result[0] + ", pattern.index = " + pattern.index); if (--count <= 0) { throw "Error"; } } } function go() { try { func1("one two three four five six seven eight", 3); } catch (e) { } try { func1("one two three four five six seven eight", 2); } catch (e) { } try { func1("one two three four five six seven eight", 99); } catch (e) { } try { func1("one two three four five six seven eight", 2); } catch (e) { } } function log(msg) { var log = document.getElementById('log'); var p = document.createElement('p'); p.innerHTML = msg; log.appendChild(p); } </script> </head> <body><div> <input type='button' id='btnGo' value='Go' onclick='go();'> <hr> <div id='log'></div> </div></body> </html> The regular expression continues with 'four' as of the second call on FF and Chrome, not on IE7 or Opera.

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• Transliteration API: Is it possible to make all input fields in the page transliteratable?

  - by SolidSnakeGTI

  Hello, I've used "Google AJAX Transliteration API" and it's going well with me. http://code.google.com/apis/ajaxlanguage/documentation/referenceTransliteration.html Currently I've a project that I need all input fields in every page (input & textarea tags) to be transliteratable, while these input fields differs from page to page (dynamic). As I know, I've to call makeTransliteratable(elementIds, opt_options) method in the API call to define which input fields to make transliteratable, and in my case here I can't predefine those fields manually. Is there a way to achieve this? Thanks in advance

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• Ruby execute code in class getting inherited to

  - by AdamB

  I'm trying to be able to have a global exception capture where I can add extra information when an error happens. I have two classes, "crawler" and "amazon". What I want to do is be able to call "crawl", execute a function in amazon, and use the exception handling in the crawl function. Here are the two classes I have: require 'mechanize' class Crawler Mechanize.html_parser = Nokogiri::HTML def initialize @agent = Mechanize.new end def crawl puts "crawling" begin #execute code in Amazon class here? rescue Exception => e puts "Exception: #{e.message}" puts "On url: #{@current_url}" puts e.backtrace end end def get(url) @current_url = url @agent.get(url) end end class Amazon < Crawler #some code with errors def stuff page = get("http://www.amazon.com") puts page.parser.xpath("//asldkfjasdlkj").first['href'] end end a = Amazon.new a.crawl Is there a way I can call "stuff" inside of "crawl" so I can use that exception handling over the entire stuff function? Is there a better way to accomplish this?

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• Question of using static_cast on "this" pointer in a derived object to base class

  - by Johnyy

  Hi, this is an example taken from Effective C++ 3ed, it says that if the static_cast is used this way, the base part of the object is copied, and the call is invoked from that part. I wanted to understand what is happening under the hood, will anyone help? class Window { // base class public: virtual void onResize() { } // base onResize impl }; class SpecialWindow: public Window { // derived class public: virtual void onResize() { // derived onResize impl; static_cast<Window>(*this).onResize(); // cast *this to Window, // then call its onResize; // this doesn't work! // do SpecialWindow- } // specific stuff };

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• Is this an UITableView -beginUpdates documentation error?

  - by mystify

  I can't wrap my head around what they tried to say here in the docs for -beginUpdate: Call this method if you want subsequent insertions, deletion, and selection operations (for example, cellForRowAtIndexPath: and indexPathsForVisibleRows) to be animated simultaneously. Let's see... cellForRowAtIndexPath: and indexPathsForVisibleRows are both GETTER methods. They do not update anything and do not change anything. So why should I call -beginUpdates before calling these? And what's animated regarding these? Well, nothing, huh? Just want to make sure this is really an error in the docs and I didn't miss something.

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• How to override inner class methods if the inner class is defined as a property of the top class

  - by Maddy

  I have a code snippet like this class A(object): class b: def print_hello(self): print "Hello world" b = property(b) And I want to override the inner class b (please dont worry about the lowercase name) behaviour. Say, I want to add a new method or I want to change an existing method, like: class C(A): class b(A.b): def print_hello(self): print "Inner Class: Hello world" b = property(b) Now if I create C's object as c = C(), and call c.b I get TypeError: 'property' object is not callable error. How would I get pass this and call print_hello of the extended inner class? Disclaimer: I dont want to change the code for A class.

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• Using windows CopyFile function to copy all files with certain name format

  - by Ben313

  Hello! I am updating some C code that copys files with a certain name. basically, I have a directory with a bunch of files named like so: AAAAA.1.XYZ AAAAA.2.ZYX AAAAA.3.YZX BBBBB.1.XYZ BBBBB.2.ZYX Now, In the old code, they just used a call to ShellExecute and used xcopy.exe. to get all the files starting with AAAAA, they just gave xcopy the name of the file as AAAAA.* and it knew to copy all of the files starting with AAAAA. now, im trying to get it to copy with out having to use the command line, and I am running into trouble. I was hoping CopyFile would be smart enough to handle AAAAA.* as the file to be copied, but it doesnt at all do what xcopy did. So, any Ideas on how to do this without the external call to xcopy.exe?

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• DllImport Based on OS Platform

  - by Ngu Soon Hui

  I have a mixture of unmanaged code ( backend) and managed code ( front end), as such, I would need to call the unmanaged code from my managed code, using interop techniques and DllImport attribute. Now, I've compiled two versions of unmanaged code, for both 32 and 64 bit OS; they are named service32.dll and service64.dll respectively. So, in my .Net code, I would have to do a DllImport for both dlls: [DllImport(@"service32.dll")] //for 32 bit OS invocation public static void SimpleFunction(); [DllImport(@"service64.dll")] //for 64 bit OS invocation public static void SimpleFunction(); And call them depending on which platform my application is running on. The issue now is that for every unmanaged function, I have to declared it twice, one for 32 bit OS and one for 64 bit OS. This is a duplication of work, and everytime I change the signature of an unmanaged function, I have to modified it in two places. Is there anyway that I can change the argument in DllImport so that the correct dll will be invoked automagically, depending on the platform?

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• using LoadControl with object initializer to create properties

  - by lloydphillips

  In the past I've used UserControls to create email templates which I can fill properties on and then use LoadControl and then RenderControl to get the html for which to use for the body text of my email. This was within asp.net webforms. I'm in the throws of building an mvc website and wanted to do something similar. I've actually considered putting this functionality in a seperate class library and am looking into how I can do this so that in my web layer I can just call EmailTemplate.SubscriptionEmail() which will then generate the html from my template with properties in relevant places (obviously there needs to be parameters for email address etc in there). I wanted to create a single Render control method for which I can pass a string to the path of the UserControl which is my template. I've come across this on the web that kind of suits my needs: public static string RenderUserControl(string path, string propertyName, object propertyValue) { Page pageHolder = new Page(); UserControl viewControl = (UserControl)pageHolder.LoadControl(path); if (propertyValue != null) { Type viewControlType = viewControl.GetType(); PropertyInfo property = viewControlType.GetProperty(propertyName); if (property != null) property.SetValue(viewControl, propertyValue, null); else { throw new Exception(string.Format( "UserControl: {0} does not have a public {1} property.", path, propertyName)); } } pageHolder.Controls.Add(viewControl); StringWriter output = new StringWriter(); HttpContext.Current.Server.Execute(pageHolder, output, false); return output.ToString(); } My issue is that my UserControl(s) may have multiple and differing properties. So SubscribeEmail may require FirstName and EmailAddress where another email template UserControl (lets call it DummyEmail) would require FirstName, EmailAddress and DateOfBirth. The method above only appears to carry one parameter for propertyName and propertyValue. I considered an array of strings that I could put the varying properties into but then I thought it'd be cool to have an object intialiser so I could call the method like this: RenderUserControl("EmailTemplates/SubscribeEmail.ascs", new object() { Firstname="Lloyd", Email="[email protected]" }) Does that make sense? I was just wondering if this is at all possible in the first place and how I'd implement it? I'm not sure if it would be possible to map the properties set on 'object' to properties on the loaded user control and if it is possible where to start in doing this? Has anyone done something like this before? Can anyone help? Lloyd

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• pywinauto: taking more than one app windows

  - by Denis Barmenkov

  I have a GUI application which can create many similar windows on desktop. All windows have same title. I have to enumerate all dialogs with same title and make some tests against each of such dialogs. If I call: dialog = app['Window Name'] pywinauto returns a WindowSpecification object which is useful along with accessing controls by name. When I call: dialogs = app.windows_(title='Window Name') pywinauto returns me a list of HwndWrapper instances which are not so useful. How to obtain a list of windows with specified title but as WindowSpecification objects?

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• F# pattern matching when mixing DU's and other values

  - by Roger Alsing

  What would be the most effective way to express the following code? match cond.EvalBool() with | true -> match body.Eval() with | :? ControlFlowModifier as e -> match e with | Break(scope) -> e :> obj //Break is a DU element of ControlFlowModifier | _ -> next() //other members of CFM should call next() | _ -> next() //all other values should call next() | false -> null cond.EvalBool returns a boolean result where false should return null and true should either run the entire block again (its wrapped in a func called next) or if the special value of break is found, then the loop should exit and return the break value. Is there any way to compress that block of code to something smaller?

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• Performance of DirectX and Recent Windows Mobile Version

  - by Kevin

  I'm seeing very poor performance while using the managed DirectDraw wrappers for WindowsMobile. Microsoft.WindowsMobile.DirectX.Direct3D I would appear the biggest bottle neck is calling Device.Present() after building up the scene. When using the System.Diagnostics.Stopwatch and running this very trivial exmaple Using Sprites on MSDN I'm seeing it's taking approximately 150ms to call the Device.Present() method. I'm seeing this on my AT&T Tilt and on the emulator. In larger applications such as the UltimateGMan sample it's taking over a second to call this method. Does anyone have any experience with using DirectX on mobile devices? What am I missing? I would prefer to stay in the managed world but if I drop back into C++ would I see better performance?

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• passing self data into a recursive function

  - by user272689

  I'm trying to set a function to do something like this def __binaryTreeInsert(self, toInsert, currentNode=getRoot(), parentNode=None): where current node starts as root, and then we change it to a different node in the method and recursivly call it again. However, i cannot get the 'currentNode=getRoot()' to work. If i try calling the funcion getRoot() (as above) it says im not giving it all the required variables, but if i try to call self.getRoot() it complains that self is an undefined variable. Is there a way i can do this without having to specify the root while calling this method?

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• Moving Function With Arguments To RequireJS

  - by Jazimov

  I'm not only relatively new to JavaScript but also to RequireJS (coming from string C# background). Currently on my web page I have a number of JavaScript functions. Each one takes two arguments. Imagine that they look like this: functionA(x1, y1) { ... } functionB(x2, y2) { ... } functionC(x3, y3) { ... } Currently, these functions exist in a tag on my HTML page and I simply call each as needed. My functions have dependencies on KnockoutJS, jQuery, and some other JS libraries. I currently have Script tags that synchronously load those external .js dependencies. But I want to use RequireJS so that they're loaded asynchronously, as needed. To do this, I plan to move all three functions above into an external .js file (a type of AMD "module") called MyFunctions.js. That file will have a define() call (to RequireJS's define function) that will look something like this: define(["knockout", "jquery", ...], function("ko","jquery", ...) {???} ); My question is how to "wrap" my functionA, functionB, and functionC functions where the ??? is above so that I can use those functions on my page as needed. For example, in the onclick event handler for a button on my HTML page, I would want to call functionA and pass two it two arguments; same for functionB and functionC. I don't fully understand how to expose those functions when they're wrapped in a define that itself is located in an external .js file. I know that define assures that my listed libraries are loaded asynchronously before the callback function is called, but after that's done I don't understand how the web page's script tags would use my functions. Would I need to use require to ensure they're available, such as: require(["myfunctions"],function({not sure what to put here})] I think I understand the basics of RequireJS but I don't understand how to wrap my functions so that they're in external .js files, don't pollute the global namespace, and yet can still be called from the main page so that arguments can be passed to them. I imagine they're are many ways to do this but in reviewing the RequireJS docs and some videos out there, I can't say I understand how... Thank you for any help.

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• Netbeans PHP require_once() problem

  - by mawg

  I'm stumped! In PHP in Netbeans (6.8), a project has two files, file1.php and file2.php file1.php starts require_once('file2.php'); and I get Warning: require_once(query_form.php): failed to open stream: No such file or directory in C:\xampp\htdocs\my_project\file1.php on line 3 Call Stack: 0.0741 322920 1. {main}() C:\xampp\htdocs\my_project\file1.php:0 Fatal error: require_once(): Failed opening required 'file2.php' (include_path='.;\xampp\php\PEAR') in C:\xampp\htdocs\my_project\file1.php on line 3 Call Stack: 0.0741 322920 1. {main}() C:\xampp\htdocs\my_project\file1.php:0 I tried require_once('./file2.php'); and require_once('.\file2.php'); since it is windows. I even added C:\xampp\htdocs\my_project\ to the projects include path and it shows up as such on the prject view and see file1.php and file2.php It doesn't show up on this error report, but possibly because Netbeans (or PHP ]) knows that C:\xampp\htdocs\my_project\ === . Any suggestions? Btw, I am new to Netbeans, so it i sprobably something very obvious.

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• Trying to run multiple HTTP requests in parallel, but being limited by Windows (registry)

  - by Nailuj

  I'm developing an application (winforms C# .NET 4.0) where I access a lookup functionality from a 3rd party through a simple HTTP request. I call an url with a parameter, and in return I get a small string with the result of the lookup. Simple enough. The challenge is however, that I have to do lots of these lookups (a couple of thousands), and I would like to limit the time needed. Therefore I would like to run requests in parallel (say 10-20). I use a ThreadPool to do this, and the short version of my code looks like this: public void startAsyncLookup(Action<LookupResult> returnLookupResult) { this.returnLookupResult = returnLookupResult; foreach (string number in numbersToLookup) { ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem(lookupNumber, number); } } public void lookupNumber(Object threadContext) { string numberToLookup = (string)threadContext; string url = @"http://some.url.com/?number=" + numberToLookup; WebClient webClient = new WebClient(); Stream responseData = webClient.OpenRead(url); LookupResult lookupResult = parseLookupResult(responseData); returnLookupResult(lookupResult); } I fill up numbersToLookup (a List<String>) from another place, call startAsyncLookup and provide it with a call-back function returnLookupResult to return each result. This works, but I found that I'm not getting the throughput I want. Initially I thought it might be the 3rd party having a poor system on their end, but I excluded this by trying to run the same code from two different machines at the same time. Each of the two took as long as one did alone, so I could rule out that one. A colleague then tipped me that this might be a limitation in Windows. I googled a bit, and found amongst others this post saying that by default Windows limits the number of simultaneous request to the same web server to 4 for HTTP 1.0 and to 2 for HTTP 1.1 (for HTTP 1.1 this is actually according to the specification (RFC2068)). The same post referred to above also provided a way to increase these limits. By adding two registry values to [HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Internet Settings] (MaxConnectionsPerServer and MaxConnectionsPer1_0Server), I could control this myself. So, I tried this (sat both to 20), restarted my computer, and tried to run my program again. Sadly though, it didn't seem to help any. I also kept an eye on the Resource Monitor (see screen shot) while running my batch lookup, and I noticed that my application (the one with the title blacked out) still only was using two TCP connections. So, the question is, why isn't this working? Is the post I linked to using the wrong registry values? Is this perhaps not possible to "hack" in Windows any longer (I'm on Windows 7)? Any ideas would be highly appreciated :) And just in case anyone should wonder, I have also tried with different settings for MaxThreads on ThreadPool (everyting from 10 to 100), and this didn't seem to affect my throughput at all, so the problem shouldn't be there either.

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• How do I access a php variable from JavaScript?

  - by anitabehal

  How do I call php variables or queries in JavaScript?

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• .NET threading: how can I capture an abort on an unstarted thread?

  - by Groxx

  I have a chunk of threads I wish to run in order, on an ASP site running .NET 2.0 with Visual Studio 2008 (no idea how much all that matters, but there it is), and they may have aborted-clean-up code which should be run regardless of how far through their task they are. So I make a thread like this: Thread t = new Thread(delegate() { try { /* do things */ System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("try"); } catch (ThreadAbortException) { /* cleanup */ System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("catch"); } }); Now, if I wish to abort the set of threads part way through, the cleanup may still be desirable later on down the line. Looking through MSDN implies you can .Abort() a thread that has not started, and then .Start() it, at which point it will receive the exception and perform normally. Or you can .Join() the aborted thread to wait for it to finish aborting. Presumably you can combine them. http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ty8d3wta(v=VS.80).aspx To wait until a thread has aborted, you can call the Join method on the thread after calling the Abort method, but there is no guarantee the wait will end. If Abort is called on a thread that has not been started, the thread will abort when Start is called. If Abort is called on a thread that is blocked or is sleeping, the thread is interrupted and then aborted. Now, when I debug and step through this code: t.Abort(); // ThreadState == Unstarted | AbortRequested t.Start(); // throws ThreadStartException: "Thread failed to start." // so I comment it out, and t.Join(); // throws ThreadStateException: "Thread has not been started." At no point do I see any output, nor do any breakpoints on either the try or catch block get reached. Oddly, ThreadStartException is not listed as a possible throw of .Start(), from here: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/a9fyxz7d(v=VS.80).aspx (or any other version) I understand this could be avoided by having a start parameter, which states if the thread should jump to cleanup code, and foregoing the Abort call (which is probably what I'll do). And I could .Start() the thread, and then .Abort() it. But as an indeterminate amount of time may pass between .Start and .Abort, I'm considering it unreliable, and the documentation seems to say my original method should work. Am I missing something? Is the documentation wrong? edit: ow. And you can't call .Start(param) on a non-parameterized Thread(Start). Is there a way to find out if a thread is parameterized or not, aside from trial and error? I see a private m_Delegate, but nothing public...

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