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  • http authentication fails in cucumber when adding @javascript tag

    - by JESii
    I have a feature in my Rials app that works just fine with the message "Responds to browser_basic_authorize" from the Background Given step. However, if I add a @javascript tag before the scenario, then my Background Given fails with "I don't know how to login". What's going wrong and how do I go about testing javascrpt interactions on my app? Background: Given I perform HTTP authentication as "<id>/<password>" When I go to the homepage Then I should see "Text-that-you-should-see-on-your-home-page" Scenario: Displaying injury causative factors Given I am on the new_incident_report page When I choose "incident_report_employee_following_procedures_true" Then I should see "Equipment failure?" Then I should not see "Lack of training" When /^I perform HTTP authentication as "([^\"]*)\/([^\"]*)"$/ do |username, password| puts "id/pswd: #{username}/#{password}" ### Following works ONLY if performed first before even going to a page!!! if page.driver.respond_to?(:basic_auth) puts 'Responds to basic_auth' page.driver.basic_auth(username, password) elsif page.driver.respond_to?(:basic_authorize) puts 'Responds to basic_authorize' page.driver.basic_authorize(username, password) elsif page.driver.respond_to?(:browser) && page.driver.browser.respond_to?(:basic_authorize) puts 'Responds to browser_basic_authorize' page.driver.browser.basic_authorize(username, password) else raise "I don't know how to log in!" end end Rails 3.0.9, current gems, other tests passing.

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  • SharePoint MOSS - Serve HTTP content on an HTTPS page without Mixed Content Warning?

    - by kcb263
    Our "portal-like" SharePoint site is served using HTTPS/SSL. So a user goes to https://web.company.com and sees content and different Web Parts. So far, no problem. The desire now is to have new Web Parts added that either frame HTTP content (such as Weather Bug) or HTTP RSS feeds. The issue that arises is that by doing this, results in a "Mixed Content" warning in the browser. Has anybody successfully been able to implement such a scenario, or one similar to it? The options we have looked at, unsuccessfully, have been: using Apache Reverse Proxy Server mirror an external site Custom Web Parts

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  • ASP.NET: Unable to validate data.

    - by SoloBold
    What is the cause of this exception in ASP.NET? Obviously it is a viewstate exception, but I can't reproduce the error on the page that is throwing the exception (a simple two TextBox form with a button and navigation links). FWIW, I'm not running a web farm. Exception Error Message: Unable to validate data. Error Source: System.Web Error Target Site: Byte[] GetDecodedData(Byte[], Byte[], Int32, Int32, Int32 ByRef) Post Data VIEWSTATE: /wEPDwULLTE4NTUyODcyMTFkZF96FHxDUAHIY3NOAMRJYZ+CKsnB EVENTVALIDATION: /wEWBAK+8ZzHAgKOhZRcApDF79ECAoLch4YMeQ2ayv/Gi76znHooiRyBFrWtwyg= Exception Stack Trace at System.Web.UI.ViewStateException.ThrowError(Exception inner, String persistedState, String errorPageMessage, Boolean macValidationError) at System.Web.UI.ObjectStateFormatter.Deserialize(String inputString) at System.Web.UI.ObjectStateFormatter.System.Web.UI.IStateFormatter.Deserialize(String serializedState) at System.Web.UI.Util.DeserializeWithAssert(IStateFormatter formatter, String serializedState) at System.Web.UI.HiddenFieldPageStatePersister.Load() at System.Web.UI.Page.LoadPageStateFromPersistenceMedium() at System.Web.UI.Page.LoadAllState() at System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) at System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequest(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) at System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequest() at System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestWithNoAssert(HttpContext context) at System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) at ASP.default_aspx.ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) at System.Web.HttpApplication.CallHandlerExecutionStep.System.Web.HttpApplication.IExecutionStep.Execute() at System.Web.HttpApplication.ExecuteStep(IExecutionStep step, Boolean& completedSynchronously) ~ William Riley-Land

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  • Mod_Rewrite: Testing URL got indexed in Google - How do I create a proper 301 redirect?

    - by Jonathan Wold
    I worked on a website for which I had a "development URL" that looked something like this: www.domainname.com.php5-9.dfw1-2.websitetestlink.com/ Now, several weeks after the website launch, there is at least one page of content indexed on Google with that URL. Question: How do I redirect all requests from that test URL to reroute to the actual domain? So, for instance, I would want: www.domainname.com.php5-9.dfw1-2.websitetestlink.com/page-name To go to: www.domainname.com/page-name The website is powered by WordPress and hosted on a PHP server. I've experimented with .htaccess without much success.

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  • Do invisible controls and their children on an ASP.NET page contribute to viewstate?

    - by Mr. Jefferson
    I have an ASP.NET page that has about 40 custom controls embedded in it. The controls vary in size; in their .ascx files, the biggest is about 1,500 lines and the smaller ones are between 100 and 200 lines (markup, script, etc). Each control is contained in a Panel. Only one of these panels is ever visible at any one time, which means only one control is ever visible at one time. My question is this: do the controls that are invisible still send ViewState for themselves and all their children to the client? It makes sense that they might have to serialize the fact that they're invisible, but not all the state info for their children...

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  • What's the best way to offer javascript embed that won't slow a page down?

    - by Shpigford
    I have a chunk of javascript that users can copy and paste to put on their sites. I'm currently using the following code (ala WEDJE) that allows the rest of the page to load even if my script is slow or not responding. <script type="text/javascript"> var number = "987654321"; var key = "123abc"; (function(){ document.write('<div id="ttp"></div>'); s=document.createElement('script'); s.type="text/javascript"; s.src="http://example.com/javascripts/embed.js?" + Math.random(); setTimeout("document.getElementById('ttp').appendChild(s);",1); })() </script> But that method is a few years old and so I wasn't sure if there was a more efficient way of doing the same thing that others have come up with.

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  • "Service Unavailable" when browsing to static HTML page in non-application IIS website on Windows 2003 (possibly SharePoint WSS 2.0 related?)

    - by Jordan Rieger
    Background: My client has an old Pentium III Windows 2003 server whose 16/36 GB disks are dying. On it he has a database-driven web site and email application that needs further customization by a developer (me). First we need to get it working on the new server. The original developer is no longer available to provide a system setup guide. So my client got a tech who imaged the old drives over to the new server and managed to get it booting. But the IIS-driven site no longer works. In fact it seems that IIS itself does not work. Problem: Service Unavailable when attempting to browse from the server itself to the URL for a local Web Site called test which I setup in IIS to serve a single static index.htm file. This I did to isolate the problem, and eliminate the client's application from the equation. The site is setup on port 80 with the host header "test.myclientsdomain.com", and I used the etc\hosts file to point that host at the local IP. I know the host entry took effect because I can ping it. When doing an iisreset, I get: Attempting start... Restart attempt failed. IIS Admin Service or a service dependent on IIS Admin is not active. It most likely failed to start, which may mean that it's disabled. Despite this message, the services all stay in the Started state. The only relevant System event logs I found are: Event Type: Error Event Source: W3SVC Event Category: None Event ID: 1002 Date: 11/4/2012 Time: 11:04:47 PM User: N/A Computer: ALPHA1 Description: Application pool 'DefaultAppPool' is being automatically disabled due to a series of failures in the process(es) serving that application pool. Event Type: Error Event Source: W3SVC Event Category: None Event ID: 1039 Date: 11/4/2012 Time: 11:13:12 PM User: N/A Computer: ALPHA1 Description: A process serving application pool 'DefaultAppPool' reported a failure. The process id was '5636'. The data field contains the error number. Data: 0000: 7e 00 07 80 ~.. And one Application event log: Event Type: Error Event Source: Windows SharePoint Services 2.0 Event Category: None Event ID: 1000 Date: 11/4/2012 Time: 11:34:04 PM User: N/A Computer: ALPHA1 Description: #50070: Unable to connect to the database STS_Config on ALPHA2\SharePoint. Check the database connection information and make sure that the database server is running. That last log tells me that the tech may have initially tried to have both the old and the new server running, by renaming the new server from ALPHA1 to ALPHA2. And perhaps SharePoint grabbed onto that change, and now can't tell that the machine name has been switched back to the old ALPHA1. But why would SharePoint interfere with a static IIS web site serving a single HTML file? The test site is not even within an Application pool (I clicked the Remove button.) What I have tried/eliminated: No relevant services seem to be disabled: IIS Admin, WWW Publishing, Sharepoint Timer Giving Full Control to All Users/Everyone on the c:\inetpub\test folder serving my test site. I can connect to and query the local SharePoint config database (ALPHA1\SHAREPOINT\STS_CONFIG) from SSMS. But when I try to do stsadm -o setconfigdb -connect -databaseserver ALPHA1\SHAREPOINT it tells me The SharePoint admininstration port does not exist. Please use stsadm.exe to create it. And when I do that, using the port 9487 specified in the IIS SharePoint Admin site config, it tells me the port is already in use. Needless to say, simply browsing to the admin site gives me a similar error about being unable to reach the config database. I didn't want to go further down the SharePoint path as it may be completed unrelated to my IIS issue, and I don't even know yet if SharePoint is required for this application to work. The app itself is ASP.Net/C#/Silverlight and a little MS Word integration (maybe that's where the SharePoint stuff comes in.)

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  • ASP.NET MVC How to call a secured page from a windows app?

    - by Malcolm
    Hi, I have a MVC app that has forms authentication enabled. The app allows printing of invoices. I have an external app that converts html to pdf. How can I call the secured page from this pdf converter app so that some security remains? The PDF converter app just requires a URL. One thought was to create a HttpHandler for an extenion of say .print and pass a public key in the URL qureystring that can be validated by the MVC app. Any ideas on this? Malcolm

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  • Why do firefox/chrome show a different page than IE8?

    - by Edward Tanguay
    When I look at this published Google Docs document, I see the latest version with Firefox and Chrome, but an older version with IE8. Also, screen-scraping it via PHP/Curl gives me an older version. I've tried CTRL-Refresh in IE8 but I can't get it to show me the newest version. No matter what headers I try to change in PHP/Curl, I can't get it to show me the newest version. What am I not understanding about browsers/headers/caching here? How can it be that different browsers show different contents of one page?

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  • print web report in C#.Net

    - by jenni
    I need to create a clients details report for a web based application in c#.Net. There will be multiple client details one by one. When take print of this web page, the first page will be the cover page and the remaining pages contains clients details. The pages except the cover page should be numbered “page x of y” in the centre of the footer. The top of each page should display the client name that is the subject of the sub-report. If part of a sub-report section spans onto a new page, the whole section should be moved to the new page. Any solution for implementing this?

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  • Why doesn't my web page load completely every time?

    - by Gayanee Wijayasekara
    I have an intranet website running on IIS 7. When I try to load my site, it reacts differently every time. Here are the following different scenarios that occur when I try to load my site: The site loads right away and is working properly The site loads slowly and some my styling/images/javascript did not appear to load correctly. I receive a "503 service unavailable" error Any ideas why this is happening?

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  • Lots of files being used by blank web page. What are they?

    - by byronyasgur
    I am trying to optimise a website and I was using the network waterfall facility in Google Chrome. When I looked at the results there were lots of files which I didnt recognise. I first thought they might be something to do with Google Chrome itself, so I put a blank HTML file on my desktop and checked but there was nothing in the waterfall except the file itself. So I put a blank file on my server and I got the output below. What are all these files, are they all necessary, is this normal and do I need to be in any way concerned. My hosting provider has always been excellent in every regard that I'm aware of. My host is shared hosting, using cpanel and is based on a LAMP server. I also note that a couple of those file have problems but I have no idea how to fault find that or whether it's a concern. EDIT: I have cleared the cache so I don't think it's a browser cache issue.

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  • Passing URIs as URL arguments in Drupal

    - by wynz
    I'm running into problems trying to pass absolute URIs as parameters with clean URLs enabled. I've got hook_menu() set up like this: function mymodule_menu() { return array( 'page/%' = array( 'title' = 'DBpedia Display Test', 'page callback' = 'mymodule_dbpedia_display', 'page arguments' = array(1), ), ); } and in the page callback: function mymodule_dbpedia_display($uri) { // Make an HTTP request for this URI // and then render some things return $output; } What I'm hoping to do is somehow pass full URIs (e.g. "http://dbpedia.org/resource/Coffee") to my page callback. I've tried a few things and nothing's worked so far... http://mysite.com/page/http%3A%2F%2Fdbpedia.org%2Fresource%2FCoffee Completely breaks Drupal's rewriting http://mysite.com/page/?uri=http%3A%2F%2Fdbpedia.org%2Fresource%2FCoffee Gives a 404 http://mysite.com/page/http://dbpedia.org/resource/Coffee Returns just "http:", which makes sense I could probably use $_GET to pull out the whole query string, but I guess I'm hoping for a more 'Drupal' solution. Any suggestions?

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  • Dropdown selection navigation to different page with dropdown values; Asp.Net + Javascript

    - by fzshah76
    I want to access drop down menu's variable in java script on change event, here is my code <asp:DropDownList ID="DropDownList1" runat="server" onchange="document.location.href = url_Lookbook;" > <asp:ListItem Value="0">hello</asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem Value="1">world</asp:ListItem> </asp:DropDownList> here is the script coding: <script type="text/javascript"> var url_Lookbook = "http://microsoft.com"; </script> My question is how do I pass down value=0 or value = 1 to different page, any help is appreciated.

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  • Why are some web clients requesting a page named "cache"?

    - by Toto
    We see errors like this in the apache error log: [Thu May 17 14:32:35 2012] [error] [client 192.168.1.1] File does not exist: /home/www-data/mywebsite.com/r/cache, referer: http://www.mywebsite.com/r/1010 It is strange because: There is no reference in the code/url about a folder/file "cache". The folder/file "cache" does not exist The client is randomly trying to access a "cache" folder everywhere on the website. It is always trying to access the folder/file "cache" following this pattern: Pattern: /level1/.../levelwhatever/filename (referer) /level1/.../levelwhatever/cache We run a LAMP (Debian stable: PHP 5.3.3-7+squeeze9. We also use APC 3.1.3p1). We use Google Analytics and AdSense. We do not know how to reproduce the problem. Note: I replaced the user's IP in the code for privacy.

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  • How does one suppress a 404 status code in a page?

    - by songdogtech
    I've got a WordPress site that includes pages pulled from a different database. The problem is that these other pages return a 404 status code. (The WordPress posts/pages are fine.) The 404'ed pages display fine, and I removed the "Page not Found" text from the title tag in WordPress. But Googlebot and W3C see the 404 header. So: wow does one tell Apache to suppress a 404 status? And will Apache override WordPress's 404 header? Does that make sense? What other info and things should I be looking at? Can I suppress the status code in .htaccess so I don't change WP core files?

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  • How to read a (SharePoint) custom web part property before the page loads?

    - by Josh
    I have a custom web part in SharePoint that has one property. Here is it: // Specify report path private string _report_path = string.Empty; [WebBrowsable(true), Personalizable(true), WebDisplayName("Enter Path"), WebDescription("Embeds an OBIEE Report in the portal"), SPWebCategoryName("Report")] public string ReportPath { get { return _report_path; } set { _report_path = value; } } The problem is that, I have to refresh the page manually a second time for the property to get set. Apparently, I need to put the method inside a PreRender event. Does anyone know how I can do this? Thanks.

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  • Programmatically login to a website and redirect the user to the logged in page?

    - by Santhosh
    Hi, Right now, I have all the employees of my company login to an external website using the company id, username and a password. We are trying to integrate it into an intranet portal which should provide seamless access to this website without requiring the user to enter these credentials. Is there any way of doing this programmatically (.NET C#)? Very similar to screenscraping, Can I simulate the appropriate POST action and then redirect the user to the logged in page? Any help is appreciated. Thanks.

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  • ModRewrite weird redirect behavior on removing WWW

    - by vitto
    Hi, I'm trying to use some rule on my project to remove www from the beginning of the URL but I've some problem. my server structure is: domain.com/beta_folder domain.com/beta_folder/page+type domain.com/beta_folder/page+type/content+name domain.com/beta_folder/page+type/content+name/edit domain.com/beta_folder/page+type/content+name/etc. domain.com/beta_folder/.htaccess //here is where my htaccess is beta_folder is the site folder, and content+name are content vars, created to retrieve pages from the database. the site works perfect with this rules RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^(page\+type/)([a-zA-Z0-9_+-]+)[/]?$ page_folder/page.php?varname=$2 My intention was to remove www, so I've added this rule but it isn't effective RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www.domain.com$ [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://domain.com$1 [R=301,L] RewriteRule ^(page\+type/)([a-zA-Z0-9_+-]+)[/]?$ page_folder/page.php?varname=$2 My problem starts if I digit www in front of my domain name: this works http://domain.com/beta_folder/page+type/content+name if i write http://www.domain.com/beta_folder/page+type/content+name the rewrite rule redirect me at http://www.domain.compage+type/content+name if i remove the www rules, the problem still active unfortunately, I can't make a public test for my domain basically, if I write http://www.domain.com/beta_folder the rules sends me to http://domain.com/ where I'm wrong?

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  • Trying to get JQuery Autocomplete working on Asp.Net page.

    - by JasonMHirst
    Can someone shed some light on the problem please: I have the following: $(document).ready(function () { $("#txtFirstContact").autocomplete({url:'http://localhost:7970/Home/FindSurname' }); }); On my Asp.Net page. The http request is a function on an MVC Controller and that code is here: Function FindSurname(ByVal surname As String, ByVal count As Integer) Dim sqlConnection As New SqlClient.SqlConnection sqlConnection.ConnectionString = My.Settings.sqlConnection Dim sqlCommand As New SqlClient.SqlCommand sqlCommand.CommandText = "SELECT ConSName FROM tblContact WHERE ConSName LIKE '" & surname & "%'" sqlCommand.Connection = sqlConnection Dim ds As New DataSet Dim da As New SqlClient.SqlDataAdapter(sqlCommand) da.Fill(ds, "Contact") sqlConnection.Close() Dim contactsArray As New List(Of String) For Each dr As DataRow In ds.Tables("Contact").Rows contactsArray.Add(dr.Item("ConSName")) Next Return Json(contactsArray, JsonRequestBehavior.AllowGet) End Function As far as I'm aware, the Controller is returning JSON data, however I don't know if the Function Parameters are correct, or indeed if the format returned is interprettable by the AutoComplete plugin. If anyone can assist in the matter I'd really appreciate it.

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  • Foreign key relationships in Entity Framework

    - by Anders Svensson
    I'm trying to add an object created from Entity Data Model classes. I have a table called Users, which has turned into a User EDM class. And I also have a table Pages, which has become a Page EDM class. These tables have a foreign key relationship, so that each page is associated with many users. Now I want to be able to add a page, but I can't get how to do it. I get a nullreference exception on Users below. I'm still rather confused by all this, so I'm sure it's a simple error, but I just can't see how to do it. Also, by the way, the compiler requires that I set PageID in the object initializer, even though this field is set to be an automatic id in the table. Am I doing it right just setting it to 0, expecting it to be updated automatically in the table when saved, or how should I do that? Any help appreciated! The method in question: private Page GetPage(User currentUser) { string url = _request.ServerVariables["url"].ToLower(); var userPages = from p in _context.PageSet where p.Users.UserID == currentUser.UserID select p; var existingPage = userPages.FirstOrDefault(e => e.Url == url); //Could be combined with above, but hard to read? if (existingPage != null) return existingPage; Page page = new Page() { Count = 0, Url = _request.ServerVariables["url"].ToLower(), PageID = 0, //Only initial value, changed later? }; _context.AddToPageSet(page); page.Users.UserID = currentUser.UserID; //Here's the problem... return page; }

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  • Anyone have a good solution for scraping the HTML source of a page with content (in this case, HTML

    - by phpwns
    Anyone have a good solution for scraping the HTML source of a page with content (in this case, HTML tables) generated with Javascript? An embarrassingly simple, though workable solution using Crowbar: <?php function get_html($url) // $url must be urlencode(d) { $context = stream_context_create(array( 'http' => array('timeout' => 120) // HTTP timeout in seconds )); $html = substr(file_get_contents('http://127.0.0.1:10000/?url=' . $url . '&delay=3000&view=browser', 0, $context), 730, -32); // substr removes HTML from the Crowbar web service, returning only the $url HTML return $html; } ?> The advantage to using Crowbar is that the tables will be rendered (and accessible) thanks to the headless mozilla-based browser. The problem, of course, is being dependent on on an external web service, especially given that SIMILE seems to undergo regular server maintenance. :( A pure php solution would be nice, but any functional (and reliable) alternatives would be great.

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  • How to modify the HTML and BODY tags in an ASP.NET page without adding runat=server to the elements?

    - by jon333
    In an ASP.NET web forms project that is not quite ready to be upgraded from 2.0 to 4.0 , there is a change that needs to be made to allow modifications to the HTML and BODY tags on the pages without adding runat=server to the tags which results in the 2.0 styled "ugly ids" like "ctrl_100..." For example, how could we change these using JavaScript, a Response Filter (the regex to find these specific tags would really help on this one), or something else...from: <html xmlns="//www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <body> To: <html lang="jp=JP" xmlns="//www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" dir="rtl"> <body dir="rtl"> JavaScript seems like a possibility, but functions from the server-side could would determine the language and direction the page should have.

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  • What is the best way to maintain an entity's original properties when they are not included in MVC binding from edit page?

    - by kingdango
    I have an ASP.NET MVC view for editing a model object. The edit page includes most of the properties of my object but not all of them -- specifically it does not include CreatedOn and CreatedBy fields since those are set upon creation (in my service layer) and shouldn't change in the future. Unless I include these properties as hidden fields they will not be picked up during Binding and are unavailable when I save the modified object in my EF 4 DB Context. In actuality, upon save the original values would be overwritten by nulls (or some type-specific default). I don't want to drop these in as hidden fields because it is a waste of bytes and I don't want those values exposed to potential manipulation. Is there a "first class" way to handle this situation? Is it possible to specify a EF Model property is to be ignored unless explicitly set?

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  • When is a cookie available?

    - by H4mm3rHead
    Hi i have a web application where i plant a cookie on my page. Then the user goes to another page, and from that page calls my page from a script, like this: <script type="text/javascript" src="http://domain.com/page.aspx?id=6" ></script> But i cant access the cookie when it calls my page, why not? and how to work around it? Please note that this question is in relation to: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2660427/javascript-and-webshop-tracking-affiliate-across-websites-how-to-do

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