Search Results

Search found 23274 results on 931 pages for 'call'.

Page 219/931 | < Previous Page | 215 216 217 218 219 220 221 222 223 224 225 226  | Next Page >

  • Calling Tortoise from command line and build if new code (how to know if tortoise updated anything)?

    - by Iakob
    I am writing a batch file which is supposed to update the source files from tortoise and - if anything new was gotten - build the solution. Should be a very simple task. My batchfile looks like this (I've removed the non-essentials) set updatepath=%1 set solution=%2 set output=%3.txt call TortoiseProc.exe /command:update /path:%updatepath% /closeonend:2 call %devenv% %solution% /Build Debug /Out %output% Now, I'd like to know if tortoise actually got new code for me and the not build if it didn't. How do I do this? I am running Windows Vista (The batch script is called from another batch script about 7 times - one for each project I need updated and - perhaps - build).

    Read the article

  • How to abandon a hg merge?

    - by Grumdrig
    I'm new to collaborating with Mercurial. My situation: Another programmer changed rev 1 of a file to replace 4-space indents with 2-space indent. (I.e. changed every line.) Call that rev 2, pushed to the remote repo. I've committed substantive changes rev 1 with various code changes in my local workspace. Call that rev 3. I've hg pulled and hg merged without a clear idea of what was going on. The conflicts are myriad and not really substantive. So I really wish I'd changed my local repo to 2-space indents before merging; then the merge will be trivial (i'm supposing). But I can't seem to back up. I think I need to hg update -r 3 but it says abort: outstanding uncommitted merges. How can I undo the merge, changes spacing in my local repo, and remerge?

    Read the article

  • how to use proxy with JSON

    - by Dele
    I have a php page called 'dataFetch.php' which sits on one webserver. On another webserver, I have a JS file which issues JSON calls to dataFetch. dataFetch connects to a database, retrieves data and puts it in a JSON format which is fed back to the calling program. In IE, this works fine. In other browsers it does not because of the cross domain restriction. To get across the cross-domain restriction, I make a call to a file, proxy.php, which then makes the call to dataFetch. My problem now is that proxy.php retrieves the file from dataFetch but the JS script file no longer sees the response from proxy.php as a JSON format and so I can't process it. Can anybody help me out?

    Read the article

  • android dialog transparant

    - by Doomic
    It is a simple stupid question, but i cant find any info on the web. I have an android app with a custom dialog. The dialog has the default grey 1px border. But it also has a black border around that grey line. I want to remove the black part. the dialog is made in xml and i call: dialog.setContentView(R.layout.xxxxx); as soon as i do that the black border is there. However the xml has not a background color set. also a transparant color in the xml doesn't helps. if i do not call setcontentview. then a small dialog appears but without a strange border.

    Read the article

  • Subprocess with variables & Command from different class

    - by Pastelinux
    source: http://pastebin.com/utL7Ebeq My thinking is that if i run from controller class "main" it will allow me to take the "data" from Class "model", def "filename". It doesn't seem to work. As you can see below what i mean class Controller: def __init__(self): self.model = Model() self.view = View() def main(self): data = self.model.filename() self.view.tcpdump(data) class View: def tcpdump(self, command): subprocess.call(command.split(), shell=False) When i run my code i get this error: subprocess.call(command.split(), shell=False) AttributeError: 'NoneType' object has no attribute 'split' My guess means that its not picking up command (look at source for reference) or that its not getting command with variables. But i know the error when variables are not being picked up so i don't think it is that. My question is, from what i have thus far, how do i from "class view" grab "command" for my subprocesses to run. Thanks~ John Riselvato

    Read the article

  • TFS 2010 Source Branches Never The Same

    - by Lukasz
    I have my root branch lets call it Alpha and one branch that was branched from that root lets call it Beta. I made some changes in the Beta branch and merged them back to Alpha. In theory now Alpha and Beta should be identical branches and when I do a diff they are identical. If I attempt to merge Alpha with Beta again without making any changes the changes I originally merged from Beta to Alpha will merge again from Alpha to Beta. Completing that merge and checking in the branches are the same. Now I can merge again. I can do this over and over again with no end. I was just wondering if anyone has ran into this problem before and how it can be fix. At first I thought it was harmless but when I make more changes in the Beta branch and merge the new changes as well as the original changes get merges overriding changes to these files making a mess. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How can I embed the result of a rails view in another website?

    - by NotDan
    I would like to allow users to call my ruby on rails app as a service which returns a 'div' with html content in it, and embed that div into their app (which will not be a rails application). For example, assume someone has their own php website that has a header/footer template that gets rendered, and a content area of the page that they need to fill based on some html I generate in my rails app. I would like to allow them, from php, to call to my website, get the 'div' I generate, and embed that as html in their php page. What I'm trying to do is host a service on my site that returns some html content, but actually show that content as part of another site, so that the end user only sees the other site and never really knows about mine. Is this possible?

    Read the article

  • DispatcherOperations.Wait()

    - by Mark
    What happens if you call dispatcherOperation.Wait() on an operation that has already completed? Also, the docs say that it returns a DispatcherOperationStatus, but wouldn't that always be Completed since it (supposedly) doesn't return until it's done? I was trying to use it like this: private void Update() { while (ops.Count > 0) ops.Dequeue().Wait(); } public void Add(T item) { lock (sync) { if (dispatcher.CheckAccess()) { list.Add(item); OnCollectionChanged(new NotifyCollectionChangedEventArgs(NotifyCollectionChangedAction.Add, item)); } else { ops.Enqueue(dispatcher.BeginInvoke(new Action<T>(Add), item)); } } } I'm using this in WPF, so all the Add operations have to occur on the UI thread, but I figured I could basically just queue them up without having to wait for it to switch threads, and then just call Update() before any read operations to ensure that the list is up to date, but my program started hanging.

    Read the article

  • Zend Framework: My custom form filter is not filtering!

    - by Andrew
    So I have a form that is using a custom filter (which is really just a copy of Zend_Filter_Null). When I call it directly, it works: $makeZeroNull = new My_Filter_MakeZeroNull(); $null = $makeZeroNull->filter('0'); //$null === null However, when I try to add it to an element in my form, it doesn't filter the value when I call getValue(). class My_Form extends Zend_Form { public function init() { $makeZeroNull = new My_Filter_MakeZeroNull(); $this->addElement('text', 'State_ID', array('filters' => array($makeZeroNull))); } } //in controller if ($form->isValid($_POST)) { $zero = $form->State_ID->getValue(); //getValue() should return null, but it is returning 0 } What is going on? What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • C++ setTimout function ?

    - by Quandary
    What's the cheapest way for a JavaScript like setTimeout-function in C++? I would need this: 5000 miliseconds from now, start function xy (no parameters, no return value). The reason for this is I need to initialize COM for text to speech, but when I do it on dll attach, it crashes. It works fine however if I do not call CoInitialize from dllmain. I just need to call CoInitialize and CoCreateInstance, and then use the instance in other functions. I can catch the uninitialized instance by checking for NULL, but I need to initialize COM - without crashing.

    Read the article

  • silverlight and windows workflow foundation

    - by wissem
    private void btnUpdate_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { xxxxxxx.Workflow1_WebServiceSoapClient zer = new xxxxx.Workflow1_WebServiceSoapClient(); zer.demanderSubmitReportCompleted += new EventHandler<xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx.demanderSubmitReportCompletedEventArgs>(service2); zer.demanderSubmitReportAsync("zzz", 20000); } public void service2(object sender, xxxxx.demanderSubmitReportCompletedEventArgs e) { string a = e.Result; } I'm trying to call a windows workflow foundation published as a web service from a Silverlight project. When I call it from a console application it works fine because I can add a web reference then I just make an instance of that webservice then I invoke the method I want. The problem is in the silverlight project cause i can just add a service reference so I find myself working with soap stuff that doesn't work at all, and here is the code error: here is the code:i change it a litle bit in english Error in exécution Microsoft JScript: Unhandled Error in Silverlight Application exception happened in the operation, résult not valide. Consult InnerException for more information. in System.ComponentModel.AsyncCompletedEventArgs.RaiseExceptionIfNecessary() in AEDSilverlightIntegrated.ServiceReference2.demanderSubmitReportCompletedEventArgs.get_Result() in AEDSilverlightIntegrated.SilverEntryAedHeaderNew.mmm_demanderSubmitReportCompleted(Object sender, demanderSubmitReportCompletedEventArgs e) in AEDSilverlightIntegrated.ServiceReference2.Workflow1_WebServiceSoapClient.OndemanderSubmitReportCompleted(Object state)

    Read the article

  • Controlling the visibility of a Bitmap in .NET

    - by ET
    Hi everyone, I am trying to create this simple application in c#: when the user double clicks on specific location in the form, a little circle will be drawn. By one click, if the current location is marked by a circle - the circle will be removed. I am trying to do this by simply register the MouseDoubleClick and MouseClick events, and to draw the circle from a .bmp file the following way: private void MouseDoubleClick (object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { Graphics g = this.CreateGraphics(); Bitmap myImage = (Bitmap)Bitmap.FromFile("Circle.bmp"); g.DrawImage(myImage, e.X, e.Y); } My problem is that I dont know how to make the circle unvisible when the user clicks its location: I know how to check if the selected location contains a circle (by managing a list of all the locations containig circles...), but I dont know how exactly to delete it. Another question: should I call the method this.CreateGraphics() everytime the user double-clicks a location, as I wrote in my code snippet, or should I call it once on initialization?

    Read the article

  • How do I set a value to the Session in asp.net on an onClick event of a normal htmlElement?

    - by William Calleja
    I need to make a Function that receives a Session Key and a Session Value and call this function on a normal HTML onClick event. When this function is called the Session variable is assigned the Key I sent with the Value I sent. So far I have this: <script runat="server" type="text/C#"> protected void setSessionValue(string key, string value) { Session[key] = value; } </script> But when I try to call if like so: onclick="setSessionValue('itemID','3345');" Its not working and giving me an error. Any help? I'm using c# and asp.net but I can't use code behind and need to work everything off the page.

    Read the article

  • iPhone memory management (with specific examples/questions)

    - by donkim
    Hey all. I know this question's been asked but I still don't have a clear picture of memory management in Objective-C. I feel like I have a pretty good grasp of it, but I'd still like some correct answers for the following code. I have a series of examples that I'd love for someone(s) to clarify. Setting a value for an instance variable. Say I have an NSMutableArray variable. In my class, when I initialize it, do I need to call a retain on it? Do I do fooArray = [[[NSMutableArray alloc] init] retain]; or fooArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; Does doing [[NSMutableArray alloc] init] already set the retain count to 1, so I wouldn't need to call retain on it? On the other hand, if I called a method that I know returns an autoreleased object, I would for sure have to call retain on it, right? Like so: fooString = [[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d items", someInt] retain]; Properties. I ask about the retain because I'm a bit confused about how @property's automatic setter works. If I had set fooArray to be a @property with retain set, Objective-C will automatically create the following setter, right? - (void)setFooArray:(NSMutableArray *)anArray { [fooArray release]; fooArray = [anArray retain]; } So, if I had code like this: self.fooArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; (which I believe is valid code), Objective-C creates a setter method that calls retain on the value assigned to fooArray. In this case, will the retain count actually be 2? Correct way of setting a value of a property. I know there are questions on this and (possibly) debates, but which is the right way to set a @property? This? self.fooArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; Or this? NSMutableArray *anArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; self.fooArray = anArray; [anArray release]; I'd love to get some clarification on these examples. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Methods in the namespace System.Security.Cryptography take 2 minutes to perform when service is hosted in IIS

    - by Asaf Saf
    I built an ASP.NET web-service that uses the System.Security.Cryptography namespace when it handles its requests. When I hosted the service in ASP.NET Development Server, everything worked fine. Then I moved the service into IIS, still using localhost addresses, and surprisingly, each time the service calls a method from the specified namespace, it takes 2 minutes to complete! If a single request requires the service to call 3 methods of the specified namespace, then the request takes total of 6 minutes to complete! The traces show that the request has been received on time, and they show an interval of around 2 minutes upon each call to the specified namespace. Did anyone see this strange behavior elsewhere? Any speculation would be appreciated!

    Read the article

  • class method as hash value

    - by demas
    I have this working code: class Server def handle(&block) @block = block end def do @block.call end end class Client def initialize @server = Server.new @server.handle { action } end def action puts "some" end def call_server @server.do end end client = Client.new client.call_server My Server will handle more then one action so I want to change code such way: class Server def handle(options) @block = options[:on_filter] end def do @block.call end end class Client def initialize @server = Server.new my_hash = { :on_filter => action } @server.handle(my_hash) end def action puts "some" end def call_server @server.do end end client = Client.new client.call_server It is incorrect code because action() method calls on create my_hash, but if I try to modify code to: my_hash = { :on_filter => { action } } i get error message. Is it possible to create hash with methods as hash values ?

    Read the article

  • Replacing whitespace with sed in a CSV (to use w/ postgres copy command)

    - by Wells
    I iterate through a collection of CSV files in bash, running: iconv --from-code=ISO-8859-1 --to-code=UTF-8 ${FILE} | \ sed -e 's/\"//g' | \ sed -e 's/, /,/g' \ > ${FILE}.utf8 Running iconv to fix UTF-8 characters, then the first sed call removes the double quote characters, and the final sed call is supposed to remove leading and trailing whitespace around the commas. HOWEVER, I still have a line like this in the saved file: FALSE,,,, 2.40,, The COPY command in postgres is kind of dumb, so it thinks " 2.40" is not valid syntax for a numeric value. Where am I going wrong w/ my processing of the CSV file? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Why in Objective-C, we use self = [super init] instead of just [super init]?

    - by ????
    In a book, I saw that if a subclass is overriding a superclass's method, we may have self = [super init]; First, is this supposed to be done in the subclass's init method? Second, I wonder why the call is not just [super init]; ? I mean, at the time of calling init, the memory is allocated by alloc already (I think by [Foobar alloc] where Foobar is the subclass's name. So can't we just call [super init] to initialize the member variables? Why do we have to get the return value of init and assign to self? I mean, before calling [super init], self should be pointing to a valid memory allocation chuck... so why assigning something to self again? (if assigning, won't [super init] just return self's existing value?)

    Read the article

  • Silverlight calling windows workflow foundation as a web service

    - by wissem
    hi, I'm trying to call a windows workflow foundation published as a web service from a Silverlight project. When I call it from a console application it works fine because I can add a web reference then I just make an instance of that webservice then I invoke the method I want. The problem is in the silverlight project cause i can just add a service reference so I find myself working with soap stuff that doesn't work at all, and here is the code: private void btnUpdate_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { xxxxxxx.Workflow1_WebServiceSoapClient zer = new xxxxx.Workflow1_WebServiceSoapClient(); zer.demanderSubmitReportCompleted += new EventHandler<xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx.demanderSubmitReportCompletedEventArgs>(service2); zer.demanderSubmitReportAsync("zzz", 20000); } public void service2(object sender, xxxxx.demanderSubmitReportCompletedEventArgs e) { string a = e.Result; } plz help ,thanks

    Read the article

  • catching the value of a time_select in rails.

    - by ZeroSoul13
    Hello, I have a form that has two field (time_selects), the idea is that the user can select the beginning of a call and end time of the call. I've setup a observe field and works fine: <%= observe_field "llamada_inicio_4i", :update => "total", :with => "llamada_inicio_4i", :url => { :controller => "llamadas", :action => "time_tracker"}%> Sends the value out: Processing LlamadasController#time_tracker (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-04-22 17:48:41) [POST] Parameters:"llamada_inicio_4i"="23",authenticity_token"="+D+yPSVue6yQNfPMuVLkrJn7B9tP6z5S1icKpPFTiso="} Rendering template within layouts/llamadas Rendering llamadas/time_tracker Completed in 5ms (View: 3, DB: 0) | 200 OK [http://0.0.0.0/llamadas /time_tracker] How can i catch this value Parameters:"llamada_inicio_4i"="23"

    Read the article

  • .htaccess: subdomain to sub-folder

    - by Oden
    Hey, How can i redirect a subdomain call to a folder? So when the site, sub.domain.com is requested, the name of the subdomain should point to a subfolder. The server is configured to add every request to the domain, but i get a 404 page everytime i do a non-defined subdomain call (witch is trivial, because theres nothing defined) EDIT my request looks like this: sub.domain.com What and i want to get that it works like a "virtual subdomain", because it has to request a folder with the same name that the subdomain. (domain.com/sub/) So the question is: How to solve this, with .htaccess?

    Read the article

  • iphone singleton object synchronization

    - by user127091
    I'm working on an iphone app but this is probably a general question. I have a singleton Model class and there would be scenarios where multiple NSOperations (threads) would exist and work with the singleton object. If they all call the same method in this object, do i need to have some locking mechanism? Or can this method be executed only one at a time? I do not have a computer science background but my guess is that all threads would have their CALL to the same address (this method). Also can you please suggest a good beginner programming book that discusses general programming concepts. I don't have the brains for Knuth kinda books.

    Read the article

  • Where are the function literals c++?

    - by academicRobot
    First of all, maybe literals is not the right term for this concept, but its the closest I could think of (not literals in the sense of functions as first class citizens). The idea is that when you make a conventional function call, it compiles to something like this: callq <immediate address> But if you make a function call using a function pointer, it compiles to something like this: mov <memory location>,%rax callq *%rax Which is all well and good. However, what if I'm writing a template library that requires a callback of some sort with a specified argument list and the user of the library is expected to know what function they want to call at compile time? Then I would like to write my template to accept a function literal as a template parameter. So, similar to template <int int_literal> struct my_template {...};` I'd like to write template <func_literal_t func_literal> struct my_template {...}; and have calls to func_literal within my_template compile to callq <immediate address>. Is there a facility in C++ for this, or a work around to achieve the same effect? If not, why not (e.g. some cataclysmic side effects)? How about C++0x or another language? Solutions that are not portable are fine. Solutions that include the use of member function pointers would be ideal. I'm not particularly interested in being told "You are a <socially unacceptable term for a person of low IQ>, just use function pointers/functors." This is a curiosity based question, and it seems that it might be useful in some (albeit limited) applications. It seems like this should be possible since function names are just placeholders for a (relative) memory address, so why not allow more liberal use (e.g. aliasing) of this placeholder. p.s. I use function pointers and functions objects all the the time and they are great. But this post got me thinking about the don't pay for what you don't use principle in relation to function calls, and it seems like forcing the use of function pointers or similar facility when the function is known at compile time is a violation of this principle, though a small one.

    Read the article

  • How do I post to a webservice and display the returned Response in MVC3 Razor Application?

    - by DavieDave
    I have need to call a webservice from an HTML helper extension I created (combinbation of Action and Image) and placed in the view as follows @Html.ActionImage("CallService", new { number = ViewBag.number, code = ViewBag.code, account = ViewBag.account, amount = ViewBag.amount }, "~/Content/sb_200x61.png", "Start the Process") I am making the action call and it calls the service and returns a string of the html response, but it doesn't look right. I am using the typical HttpWebRequest to do the POST Action in C# code. Here is the controller action code: public MvcHtmlString CallService(string number, string code, string account, decimal? amount) { string response = MyService.ServiceLayer.ClassName.callService(number, code, account, Convert.ToDecimal(amount); MvcHtmlString mstring = new MvcHtmlString(response); return mstring; } When it returns the string back it's looking like the all styling and js is removed. It that due to MvcHtmlString? Is there a better way to do this? Redirect somehow ?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 215 216 217 218 219 220 221 222 223 224 225 226  | Next Page >