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  • How To Block The UserName After 3 Invalid Password Attempts IN ASP.NET

    - by shihab
    I used the following code for checking user name and password. and I want ti block the user name after 3 invalid password attempt. what should I add in my codeing MD5CryptoServiceProvider md5hasher = new MD5CryptoServiceProvider(); Byte[] hashedDataBytes; UTF8Encoding encoder = new UTF8Encoding(); hashedDataBytes = md5hasher.ComputeHash(encoder.GetBytes(TextBox3.Text)); StringBuilder hex = new StringBuilder(hashedDataBytes.Length * 2); foreach (Byte b in hashedDataBytes) { hex.AppendFormat("{0:x2}", b); } string hash = hex.ToString(); SqlConnection con = new SqlConnection("Data Source=Shihab-PC;Initial Catalog=test;User ID=SOMETHING;Password=SOMETHINGELSE"); SqlDataAdapter ad = new SqlDataAdapter("select password from Users where UserId='" + TextBox4.Text + "'", con); DataSet ds = new DataSet(); ad.Fill(ds, "Users"); SqlDataAdapter ad2 = new SqlDataAdapter("select UserId from Users ", con); DataSet ds2 = new DataSet(); ad2.Fill(ds2, "Users"); Session["id"] = TextBox4.Text.ToString(); if ((string.Compare((ds.Tables["Users"].Rows[0][0].ToString()), hash)) == 0) { if (string.Compare(TextBox4.Text, (ds2.Tables["Users"].Rows[0][0].ToString())) == 0) { Response.Redirect("actioncust.aspx"); } else { Response.Redirect("actioncust.aspx"); } } else { Label2.Text = "Invalid Login"; } con.Close(); }

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  • Creating 1 page PDF of iPad Screen view - How?

    - by user314695
    Hi All, I've asked this question on a couple other forums and have had zero response, so I'm hoping someone here can help point me in the right direction. I have a pretty simple one screen application for my work. It's basically just a recreation of a 1 page paper report that has a company logo, some labels, a few text boxes and a scroll text box for the report. I need to be able to fill out the report then click a button to save it in a graphical form so I can fax, print or email it later. Currently, I'm just programmatically taking a screen capture and saving it to the photo's library (default for screen capture). Then I can just email it from photo's. This works ok, but is kind of hacky, at best. I've read through the new iPad 3.2 guide for creating PDF's (apparently it's supposed to be much easier than before) but I can not get it to work and I've spent countless hours on it now. I'm hoping someone has the answer for me. Alternatively, if anyone knows how I can redirect where the screen capture is stored (default is in the photo album) then maybe I can make that function work. If I could redirect the screen capture to store in my applications document folder, then I can use MFMailCompose to attach it to an email. Lastly, on a side note, does anyone know of a good way to capture a digital signature via touch. For instance, I'd love to have my users be able to just sign their name via touch at the bottom of the document before I convert to PDF or take a screen capture. Thanks in advance for your help. -Ray

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  • Codeigniter: validation problem

    - by krike
    For some reason a user can login with any password, first I thought I forgot to check for the password but I didn't... and I just cant find the problem here is the model: /*#######################################################*/ function validate() /*#######################################################*/ { $this->db->where('username', $this->input->post('username')); $this->db->where('password', md5($this->input->post('password'))); $q = $this->db->get('user_extra'); if($q->num_rows() == 1): return true; else: return false; endif; }//end of function validate() The controller /*#######################################################*/ function validate_credentials() /*#######################################################*/ { $this->load->model('membership_model'); $this->load->library('form_validation'); $this->form_validation->set_rules('username', 'Name', 'trim|required'); $this->form_validation->set_rules('password', 'password', 'trim|required'); if(!$this->membership_model->validate()): $this->form_validation->set_message('check_login', 'Login not correct, please try again.'); endif; if($this->form_validation->run() == FALSE): $this->index(); else: $this->membership_model->userinfo($this->input->post('username')); //should redirect to last view redirect($this->session->flashdata('redirect_url')); endif; }// end of validate_credentials()

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  • using action helpers in Zend Framework 1.8

    - by Nasser
    Hi am starting off with Zend Framework and have a question about action helpers. My first application is a simple authentication system (following a tutorial from a book). The registration and authentication seems to work fine but the redirect doesn't. I have a customer controller that has this among others: class CustomerController extends Zend_Controller_Action { // some code here...... public function authenticateAction() { $request = $this->getRequest(); if (!$request->isPost()) { return $this->_helper->redirector('login'); } // Validate $form = $this->_forms['login']; if (!$form->isValid($request->getPost())) { return $this->render('login'); } if (false === $this->_authService->authenticate($form->getValues())) { $form->setDescription('Login failed, please try again.'); return $this->render('login'); } return $this->_helper->redirector('index'); } the authenticate url is http://localhost/customer/authenticate and this seems to work fine but it does not redirect. After authentication I get a blank page which looks like its taking me to the index and just sits there. I tried using '/index' instead but that did not help either. Do I need to do anything special to make the redirector helper work? I have a logout action which behaves the same.

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  • Protecting routes with authentication in an AngularJS app

    - by Chris White
    Some of my AngularJS routes are to pages which require the user to be authenticated with my API. In those cases, I'd like the user to be redirected to the login page so they can authenticate. For example, if a guest accesses /account/settings, they should be redirected to the login form. From brainstorming I came up with listening for the $locationChangeStart event and if it's a location which requires authentication then redirect the user to the login form. I can do that simple enough in my applications run() event: .run(['$rootScope', function($rootScope) { $rootScope.$on('$locationChangeStart', function(event) { // Decide if this location required an authenticated user and redirect appropriately }); }]); The next step is keeping a list of all my applications routes that require authentication, so I tried adding them as parameters to my $routeProvider: $routeProvider.when('/account/settings', {templateUrl: '/partials/account/settings.html', controller: 'AccountSettingCtrl', requiresAuthentication: true}); But I don't see any way to get the requiresAuthentication key from within the $locationChangeStart event. Am I overthinking this? I tried to find a way for Angular to do this natively but couldn't find anything.

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  • Saving associated domain classes in Grails

    - by Cesar
    I'm struggling to get association right on Grails. Let's say I have two domain classes: class Engine { String name int numberOfCylinders = 4 static constraints = { name(blank:false, nullable:false) numberOfCylinders(range:4..8) } } class Car { int year String brand Engine engine = new Engine(name:"Default Engine") static constraints = { engine(nullable:false) brand(blank:false, nullable:false) year(nullable:false) } } The idea is that users can create cars without creating an engine first, and those cars get a default engine. In the CarController I have: def save = { def car = new Car(params) if(!car.hasErrors() && car.save()){ flash.message = "Car saved" redirect(action:index) }else{ render(view:'create', model:[car:car]) } } When trying to save, I get a null value exception on the Car.engine field, so obviously the default engine is not created and saved. I tried to manually create the engine: def save = { def car = new Car(params) car.engine = new Engine(name: "Default Engine") if(!car.hasErrors() && car.save()){ flash.message = "Car saved" redirect(action:index) }else{ render(view:'create', model:[car:car]) } } Didn't work either. Is Grails not able to save associated classes? How could I implement such feature?

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  • IIS7 URL Rewriting: How not to drop HTTPS protocol from rewritten URL?

    - by Scott Mitchell
    I'm working on a website that's using IIS 7's URL rewriting feature to do a permanent redirect from example.com to www.example.com, as well as rewrites from similar domain names to the "main" one, such as from www.examples.com to www.example.com. This rewrite rule - shown below - has worked well for sometime now. However, we recently added HTTPS support and noticed that if users visit one of the URLs to be rewritten to www.example.com then HTTPS is dropped. For instance, if a user visits https://example.com they get redirected to http://www.example.com, whereas we would like them to be sent to https://www.example.com. Here is the rewrite rule of interest (in Web.config): <rule name="Canonical Host Name" stopProcessing="true"> <match url="(.*)" /> <conditions logicalGrouping="MatchAny"> <add input="{HTTP_HOST}" pattern="^example\.com$" /> <add input="{HTTP_HOST}" pattern="^(www\.)?example\.net$" /> <add input="{HTTP_HOST}" pattern="^(www\.)?example\.info$" /> <add input="{HTTP_HOST}" pattern="^(www\.)?examples\.com$" /> </conditions> <action type="Redirect" url="http://www.example.com/{R:1}" redirectType="Permanent" /> </rule> As you can see, the action element's url attribute points directly to http://, so I get why https://example.com is redirected to http://www.example.com. My question is, how do I fix this? I tried (naively) to just drop the http:// part from the url attribute, but that didn't work. Thanks!

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  • [MVC] logic before dispatcher + controller?

    - by Spoonface
    I believe for a typical MVC web application the router / dispatcher routine is used to decide which controller is loaded based primarily on the area requested in the url by the user. However, in addition to checking the url query string, I also like to use the dispatcher to check whether the user is currently logged in or not to decide which controller is loaded. For example if they are logged in and request the login page, the dispatcher would load their account instead. But is this a fairly non-standard design? Would it violate MVC in any way? I only ask as the examples I've read through this weekend have had no major calculations performed before the dispatcher routine, and commonly check whether the user is logged in or not per controller, and then redirect where necessary. But to me it seems odd to redirect a logged in user from the login area to account area if you could just load the account controller in the first place? I hope I've explained my consternation well enough, but could anyone offer some details on how they handle logged in users, and similar session data?

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  • Hide form if javascript disabled

    - by Kero
    I need to check on disabling JavaScript if the user disabled JavaScript from browser or firewall or any other place he will never show the form. I have lots of search and solutions, but unfortunately didn't got the right one. - Using style with no-script tag: This one could be broke with removing style... <noscript> <style type="text/css"> .HideClass { display:none; } </style> </noscript> The past code will work just fine but there is lots of problems in no-script tag as here Beside that i don't want to redirect user with no-script tag too...Beside that i can quickly stop loading the page to broke this meta or disable Meta tag from IE: <meta http-equiv="refresh" content="0; URL=Frm_JavaScriptDisable.aspx" /> Another way to redirect user with JavaScript but this will work let's say for 99% of users and this one isn't lovely way and will slow down the website... window.location="http://www.location.com/page.aspx"; Is there is any other ideas or suggestions to secure working with JavaScript...and prevent user from entering the website or see my form except when JavaScript enabled...

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  • How to make html-files with content to be used in a simple ajax site to behave nicely in google?

    - by metatron
    I made some ajax sites in the past where I used ajax to get more of a desktop application feeling for my sites and also to keep the site maintainable. My strategy was making one index page and from there pulling in html content from some subpages. (So far I didn't use ajax to send data to the server.) The problem that I ran into is this: I want the subpages to be readable by google since they contain valuable content but once they show up in google's results they lead to the naked html-file (no css nor Javascript). I solved this by putting a javascript redirect (window.location = ...) on the subpages so they lead to the correct page. So as an example let's say I have a site at example.com with some javascript and css and a naked content page that should be loaded via ajax: example.com/content.html. Via ajax I pull in what I need from the content file but since my index.html contains href's to the content.html file (I want the content of my ajax site to be readable without Javascript) it will be indexed by google and gets listed in the search results. But I don't want people to see the naked html file. Hence the redirect that goes to the index page and gets handled by some Javascript to show the content as I want it to be showed. I was wondering if there are nicer solutions to this problem or different approaches.

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  • PHP Infine Loop Problem

    - by Ashwin
    function httpGet( $url, $followRedirects=true ) { global $final_url; $url_parsed = parse_url($url); if ( empty($url_parsed['scheme']) ) { $url_parsed = parse_url('http://'.$url); } $final_url = $url_parsed; $port = $url_parsed["port"]; if ( !$port ) { $port = 80; } $rtn['url']['port'] = $port; $path = $url_parsed["path"]; if ( empty($path) ) { $path="/"; } if ( !empty($url_parsed["query"]) ) { $path .= "?".$url_parsed["query"]; } $rtn['url']['path'] = $path; $host = $url_parsed["host"]; $foundBody = false; $out = "GET $path HTTP/1.0\r\n"; $out .= "Host: $host\r\n"; $out .= "User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 5.1; en-US; rv:1.8.1) Gecko/20061010 Firefox/2.0\r\n"; $out .= "Connection: Close\r\n\r\n"; if ( !$fp = @fsockopen($host, $port, $errno, $errstr, 30) ) { $rtn['errornumber'] = $errno; $rtn['errorstring'] = $errstr; } fwrite($fp, $out); while (!@feof($fp)) { $s = @fgets($fp, 128); if ( $s == "\r\n" ) { $foundBody = true; continue; } if ( $foundBody ) { $body .= $s; } else { if ( ($followRedirects) && (stristr($s, "location:") != false) ) { $redirect = preg_replace("/location:/i", "", $s); return httpGet( trim($redirect) ); } $header .= $s; } } fclose($fp); return(trim($body)); } This code sometimes go infinite loop. What's wrong here?

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  • how to pass instance variables between handlers (routes) in sinatra (without flash, sessions, class variable or db)?

    - by jj_
    Say you have: get '/' do haml :index end get '/form' do haml :form end post '/form' do @message = params[:message] redirect to ('/') --- how to pass @message here? end I'd like the @message instance variable to be available (passed to) in "/" action as well, so I can show it in haml view. How can I do that without using session, flash, a @@class_variable, or db persistence ? I'd simply like to pass values as if I was working with passing values between methods. I don't want to use session cookies because user could have them turned off, I don't like it being a class variable which is exposed to all code, and I don't need to overhead of a db. Thanks edit: This is another question explaining a very easy way to deal with this in rails Passing parameters in rails redirect_to This is some more info i gathered around from forums. The following works for rails, i've tried it in Sinatra but no luck, but please try it, maybe I did something wrong, I don't know, and if this code help someone come up with a new idea, please share it If you are redirecting to action2 at the end of action1, just append the value to the end of the redirect: my_var = <some logic> redirect_to :action => 'action2', :my_var => my_var on the same thread another user proposes the folowing: def action1 redirect_to :action => 'action2', :value => params[:current_varaible] end def action2 puts params[:value].inspect end source: http://www.ruby-forum.com/topic/134953 Can something like this work in Sinatra? Thanks

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  • How to disable the RAID in x3400 M2

    - by BanKtsu
    Hi I just wanna disable the default RAID in my server IBM System X3400 M2 Server(7837-24X),i have 3 disk drives SAS. I want to make them a JBOD "Just a Bunch Of Disks", because I want to install in the drive 0 CentOS, and the other two make them cache files for a squid server. I disable the RAID in the BIOS: System Settings/Adapters and UEFI drivers/LSI Logic Fusion MPT SAS Driver -PciRoot(0x0)/Pci(0x3,0X0)/Pci(0x0,0x0) LSI Logic MPT Setup Utility RAID Properties/Delete Array Later I boot the CentOS live CD and install the OS in the drive 0, and the others 2 mounted like this: *LVM Volume Groups vg_proxyserver 139508 lv_root 51200 / ext4 lv_home 84276 /home ext4 lv_swap 4032 Hard Drive sdb(/dev/sdb) free 140011 sdc(/dev/sdc) free 140011 sdd(/dev/sdd) sdd1 500 /boot ext4 sdd2 139512 vg_proxyserver physical volume(LVM) But when I restart the server give me the error: Boot failed Hard Disk 0 UEFI PXE PciRoot(0x0)/Pci(0x1,0X0)/Pci(0x0,0x0)/MAC(001A64B15130,0X0)) ........PXE-E18:Server response timeout. UEFI PXE PciRoot(0x0)/Pci(0x1,0X0)/Pci(0x0,0x0)/MAC(001A64B15132,0X0)) ........PXE-E18:Server response timeout. and the OS not start. The IBM force me to do a RAID?,why?

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  • How to ask memcached auth connection by sasl and pam?

    - by user199216
    I use memcached in a untrust network, so I try to use sasl and pam to auth connection to memcached. I installed sasl and pam module, compiled and installed memcached with sasl enabled. Also I created db and table for pam user. I run: $ sudo testsaslauthd -u tester -p abc123 -s /etc/pam.d/memcached 0: OK "Success." where the tester and abc123 is the authed user in db, which I inserted. But my python script cannot be authed, always authentication failed returned. It seems it dose not use pam to authentication, still use sasldb, because when I add user by: $ sudo saslpasswd2 -a memcached -c tester and input password: abc123, It can passed. Python script: client = bmemcached.Client(('localhost:11211'), 'tester', 'abc123') and error: bmemcached.exceptions.MemcachedException: Code: 32 Message: Auth failure. memcached log: authenticated() in cmd 0x21 is true mech: ``PLAIN'' with 14 bytes of data SASL (severity 2): Password verification failed sasl result code: -20 Unknown sasl response: -20 >30 Writing an error: Auth failure. >30 Writing bin response: no auth log found in: /var/log/auth.log Configurations: vi /etc/default/saslauthd MECHANISMS="pam" vi /etc/pam.d/memcached auth sufficient pam_mysql.so user=sasl passwd=abc123 host=localhost db=sasldb table=sasl_user usercolumn=user_name passwdcolumn=password crypt=0 sqllog=1 verbose=1 account required pam_mysql.so user=sasl passwd=abc123 host=localhost db=sasldb table=sasl_user usercolumn=user_name passwdcolumn=password crypt=0 sqllog=1 verbose=1 vi /etc/sasl2/memcached.conf pwcheck_method: saslauthd Do I make my question clear, english is not my native language, sorry! Any tips will be thankful!

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  • Route specific HTTP requests through pfSense OpenVPN

    - by DennisQ
    Hi, to start, I have very little knowledge on routes, iptables, etc. That said, here's what I'm trying to accomplish and where I think I'm stumped: Problem: We have an external website which we recently firewalled so it only accepts traffic from our office IP addresses. This works well at the office, but doesn't work for remote access through VPN as we don't route all traffic through OpenVPN. I would rather avoid forcing everyone to route all traffic through just to accommodate this one site. Environment: Main router box is running pfSense. Em0 is internal IP, Em1 is external. Internal net is 10.23.x and VPN is 10.0.8.0/24 I believe what I need to do is add a route to the VPN server config to send all traffic to that IP over the VPN tunnel. I think that part's working, but I don't get a response back, so I'm assuming that I need some NAT config on the VPN server to route the response back over the tunnel? What I've found so far is to try the following, but since this is a pfSense box on FreeBSD, I can't run iptables, etc. Make sure ip forwarding is enabled: echo 1 /proc/sys/net/ipv4/ip_forward Setup NAT back out: iptables -t nat -A POSTROUTING -s 10.0.8.0/24 -o em0 -j MASQUERADE Am I on the right path, and if so how do I accomplish this through pfSense UI or FreeBSD CLI? Thanks!

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  • Why Hebrew letters in the address bar break the ARR gateway (Only With Explorer 8,9,10)?

    - by Noamway
    The ARR is working great in all browsers except Internet Explorer 8,9,10. When I paste Hebrew URL directly to the address bar it's working good, but when I surf (click on a simple href URL) from one Hebrew URL page to another Hebrew URL the ARR return me that error: "502 - Web server received an invalid response while acting as a gateway or proxy server." There is a problem with the page you are looking for, and it cannot be displayed. When the Web server (while acting as a gateway or proxy) contacted the upstream content server, it received an invalid response from the content server. I checked it number of times including with HTTP analyzer and I saw that the "referer" is making all the problems and cause to that error. For example when I enter to that page: mydomain.com/somehebrewchars (mydomain.com/???? you will need Hebrew install) And click in the page on a link to: mydomain.com/somehebrewchars2 (mydomain.com/???????? you will need Hebrew install) I will get the error above and when you look at the referrer you will see something like that: mydomain.com/עמוד-× ×—×™×ª×” We use other proxies application to others projects and we don't have the same issue like that. For this example we used WIN 2008 and 2012 with ARR 2.5 and also 3 beta. Any help is welcome :-) Thanks, Noam

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  • Downloading a file from the internet with '&' in URL using wget

    - by matt_tm
    Hi, I'm trying to download a file from a URL that looks like this: http://pdf.example.com/filehandle.ashx?p1=ABC&p2=DEF.pdf Within the browser, this link prompts me to download a file called x.pdf irrespective of what DEF is (but 'x.pdf' is the right content). However using wget, I get the following: >wget.exe http://pdf.example.com/filehandle.ashx?p1=ABC&p2=DEF.pdf SYSTEM_WGETRC = c:/progra~1/wget/etc/wgetrc syswgetrc = C:\Program Files\GnuWin32/etc/wgetrc --2011-01-06 07:52:05-- http://pdf.example.com/filehandle.ashx?p1=ABC Resolving pdf.example.com... 99.99.99.99 Connecting to pdf.example.com|99.99.99.99|:80... connected. HTTP request sent, awaiting response... 500 Internal Server Error 2011-01-06 07:52:08 ERROR 500: Internal Server Error. 'p2' is not recognized as an internal or external command, operable program or batch file. This is on a Windows Vista system Edit1 >wget.exe "http://pdf.example.com/filehandle.ashx?p1=ABC&p2=DEF.pdf" SYSTEM_WGETRC = c:/progra~1/wget/etc/wgetrc syswgetrc = C:\Program Files\GnuWin32/etc/wgetrc --2011-02-06 10:18:31-- http://pdf.example.com/filehandle.ashx?p1=ABC&p2=DEF.pdf Resolving pdf.example.com... 99.99.99.99 Connecting to pdf.example.com|99.99.99.99|:80... connected. HTTP request sent, awaiting response... 200 OK Length: 4568 (4.5K) [image/JPEG] Saving to: `filehandle.ashx@p1=ABC&p2=DEF.pdf' 100%[======================================>] 4,568 --.-K/s in 0.1s 2011-02-06 10:18:33 (30.0 KB/s) - `filehandle.ashx@p1=ABC&p2=DEF.pdf' saved [4568/4568]

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  • IPMI not fucntioning with Network Bonding

    - by muhammed sameer
    Hey, I am having problems with running IPMI on my servers that have network bonding enabled. Platform: CentOS release 5.3 (Final) Kernel: 2.6.18-92.el5 64bit Dell PowerEdge 1950 Ethernet controller: Broadcom Corporation NetXtreme II BCM5708 Gigabit Ethernet I have bonded the interface eth0 and eth1 as active passive, with eth0 as the active interface, below is conf description from /proc Bonding Mode: fault-tolerance (active-backup) Primary Slave: eth0 Currently Active Slave: eth0 MII Status: up MII Polling Interval (ms): 30 Up Delay (ms): 0 Down Delay (ms): 0 Slave Interface: eth0 MII Status: up Link Failure Count: 0 Permanent HW addr: 00:22:19:56:b9:cd Slave Interface: eth1 MII Status: up Link Failure Count: 0 Permanent HW addr: 00:22:19:56:b9:cf My IPMI device is as follows IPMI Device Information Interface Type: KCS (Keyboard Control Style) Specification Version: 2.0 I2C Slave Address: 0x10 NV Storage Device: Not Present Base Address: 0x0000000000000CA8 (I/O) Register Spacing: 32-bit Boundaries I Have used openIPMI as well as freeipmi both to control the chassis via the IPMI card, but on servers which have bonding enabled, the command times out, below is the full run of the command with debug info. ipmi_lan_send_cmd:opened=[0], open=[4482848] IPMI LAN host 70.87.28.115 port 623 Sending IPMI/RMCP presence ping packet ipmi_lan_send_cmd:opened=[1], open=[4482848] No response from remote controller Get Auth Capabilities command failed ipmi_lan_send_cmd:opened=[1], open=[4482848] No response from remote controller Get Auth Capabilities command failed Error: Unable to establish LAN session Failed to open LAN interface Unable to get Chassis Power Status On the other hand I configured IPMI on a box with the same specs as mentioned above without bonding and IPMI works perfectly. Has anyone faced this problem with IPMI + Bonding ? I would be thankful is someone helps circumvent this issue. Muhammed Sameer

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  • NRPE unable to read output, but why?

    - by ticktockhouse
    I have this problem with NRPE, all the stuff I've found so far on the net seems to point me at things I've already tried. # /usr/local/nagios/plugins/check_nrpe -H nrpeclient gives NRPE v2.12 as expected. Running the command by hand (as defined in nrpe.cfg on "nrpeclient", gives the expected response nrpe.cfg: command[check_openmanage]=/usr/lib/nagios/plugins/additional/check_openmanage -s -e -b ctrl_driver=0 bat_charge "Expected response" But if I try to run the command from the Nagios server I get the following: # /usr/local/nagios/plugins/check_nrpe -H comxps -c check_openmanage NRPE: Unable to read output Can anyone think of anywhere else I might have made a mistake with this? I've done the same thing on multiple other servers with no problem. The only difference I can think of with this is that this box is RHEL 5 based, whereas the others are RHEL 4 based. Those two bits above that I've tested are the what most people seem to suggest when people have had this problem. I should mention that I get a weird error in the logs when I restart nrpe: nrpe[14534]: Unable to open config file '/usr/local/nagios/etc/nrpe.cfg' for reading nrpe[14534]: Continuing with errors... nrpe[14535]: Starting up daemon nrpe[14535]: Warning: Daemon is configured to accept command arguments from clients! nrpe[14535]: Listening for connections on port 5666 nrpe[14535]: Allowing connections from: bodbck,combck,nam-bck Even though, it's plainly reading that /usr/local/nagios/etc/nrpe.cfg file to get the stuff it's talking about further down..

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  • Apache, Tomcat 5 and problem with HTTP basic auth

    - by Juha Syrjälä
    I have setup a Tomcat with a webapp that uses http basic auth in some of its URLs. There is a Apache server in front of the Tomcat. I have setup Apache as a proxy like this (all traffic should go directly to tomcat): /etc/httpd/conf.d/proxy_ajp.conf: LoadModule proxy_ajp_module modules/mod_proxy_ajp.so ProxyPass / ajp://localhost:8009/ ProxyPassReverse / ajp://localhost:8009/ There is a webapp installed to root of Tomcat (ROOT.war), so I should be able to use http://localhost/ to access my webapp. But it is not working with http basic auth. The problem is that everything works until I try to access URL that are protected by the HTTP basic auth. URLs without authentication work just fine. When accessing this url via apache I am getting an error message from Apache. If I access the same URL directly from tomcat, everything works just fine. I am getting this to Apache error log: [Wed Sep 01 21:34:01 2010] [error] proxy: dialog to [::1]:8009 (localhost) failed access log looks like this: ::1 - - [01/Sep/2010:21:34:01 +0300] "GET /protected_path/ HTTP/1.0" 503 360 "-" "w3m/0.5.2" I am using: Fedora release 13 (Goddard) httpd-2.2.16-1.fc13.x86_64 tomcat5-5.5.27-7.4.fc12.noarch The basic auth is implemented in the webapp (not in Apache or Tomcat). The webapp is actually implemented in Scala/Lift, but that shouldn't matter. The auth works if I access the tomcat directly. Error message that I am getting from Apache. It is curious that the title is Unauthorized and not Internal error: Unauthorized The server is temporarily unable to service your request due to maintenance downtime or capacity problems. Please try again later. Apache/2.2.16 (Fedora) Server at my.server.name.com Port 80 It could be that Apache is seeing a some thing else than 200 OK response and thinks that it is an error when it actually should pass the received 401 Unauthorized response directly to browser. If this is the problem, how to fix it?

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  • SSL on local sub-domain and sub-sub-domain

    - by Eduard Luca
    I have both local.domain.com and lmarket.local.domain.com pointing to my localhost from etc/hosts. The problem is that I am using XAMPP on Windows 7, and have 2 SSL VirtualHosts in my apache config, but no matter which one I access, I am taken to local.domain.com. On non-HTTPS requests all works fine, and the vhosts are basically the same. Here is the relevant part of my vhosts: <VirtualHost local.domain.com:443> DocumentRoot "C:/xampp/htdocs/local" ServerName local.domain.com ServerAdmin webmaster@localhost ErrorLog "logs/error.log" <IfModule log_config_module> CustomLog "logs/access.log" combined </IfModule> SSLEngine on SSLCipherSuite ALL:!ADH:!EXPORT56:RC4+RSA:+HIGH:+MEDIUM:+LOW:+SSLv2:+EXP:+eNULL SSLCertificateFile "conf/ssl.crt/server.crt" SSLCertificateKeyFile "conf/ssl.key/server.key" <FilesMatch "\.(cgi|shtml|pl|asp|php)$"> SSLOptions +StdEnvVars </FilesMatch> <Directory "C:/xampp/cgi-bin"> SSLOptions +StdEnvVars </Directory> BrowserMatch ".*MSIE.*" nokeepalive ssl-unclean-shutdown downgrade-1.0 force-response-1.0 CustomLog "logs/ssl_request.log" "%t %h %{SSL_PROTOCOL}x %{SSL_CIPHER}x \"%r\" %b" </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost lmarket.local.domain.com:443> DocumentRoot "C:/xampp/htdocs/lmarket.local" ServerName lmarket.local.domain.com ServerAdmin webmaster@localhost ErrorLog "logs/error.log" <IfModule log_config_module> CustomLog "logs/access.log" combined </IfModule> SSLEngine on SSLCipherSuite ALL:!ADH:!EXPORT56:RC4+RSA:+HIGH:+MEDIUM:+LOW:+SSLv2:+EXP:+eNULL SSLCertificateFile "conf/ssl.crt/server.crt" SSLCertificateKeyFile "conf/ssl.key/server.key" <FilesMatch "\.(cgi|shtml|pl|asp|php)$"> SSLOptions +StdEnvVars </FilesMatch> <Directory "C:/xampp/cgi-bin"> SSLOptions +StdEnvVars </Directory> BrowserMatch ".*MSIE.*" nokeepalive ssl-unclean-shutdown downgrade-1.0 force-response-1.0 CustomLog "logs/ssl_request.log" "%t %h %{SSL_PROTOCOL}x %{SSL_CIPHER}x \"%r\" %b" </VirtualHost> If I invert these blocks, then the opposite happens: local.domain.com goes to lmarket.local.domain.com. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • openssl client authentication error: tlsv1 alert unknown ca: ... SSL alert number 48

    - by JoJoeDad
    I've generated a certificate using openssl and place it on the client's machine, but when I try to connect to my server using that certificate, I error mentioned in the subject line back from my server. Here's what I've done. 1) I do a test connect using openssl to see what the acceptable client certificate CA names are for my server, I issue this command from my client machine to my server: openssl s_client -connect myupload.mysite.net:443/cgi-bin/posupload.cgi -prexit and part of what I get back is as follow: Acceptable client certificate CA names /C=US/ST=Colorado/L=England/O=Inteliware/OU=Denver Office/CN=Tim Drake/[email protected] /C=US/ST=Colorado/O=Inteliware/OU=Denver Office/CN=myupload.mysite.net/[email protected] 2) Here is what is in the apache configuration file on the server regarding SSL client authentication: SSLCACertificatePath /etc/apache2/certs SSLVerifyClient require SSLVerifyDepth 10 3) I generated a self-signed client certificate called "client.pem" using mypos.pem and mypos.key, so when I run this command: openssl x509 -in client.pem -noout -issuer -subject -serial here is what is returned: issuer= /C=US/ST=Colorado/O=Inteliware/OU=Denver Office/CN=myupload.mysite.net/[email protected] subject= /C=US/ST=Colorado/O=Inteliware/OU=Denver Office/CN=mlR::mlR/[email protected] serial=0E (please note that mypos.pem is in /etc/apache2/certs/ and mypos.key is saved in /etc/apache2/certs/private/) 4) I put client.pem on the client machine, and on the client machine, I run the following command: openssl s_client -connect myupload.mysite.net:443/cgi-bin/posupload.cgi -status -cert client.pem and I get this error: CONNECTED(00000003) OCSP response: no response sent depth=1 /C=US/ST=Colorado/L=England/O=Inteliware/OU=Denver Office/CN=Tim Drake/[email protected] verify error:num=19:self signed certificate in certificate chain verify return:0 574:error:14094418:SSL routines:SSL3_READ_BYTES:tlsv1 alert unknown ca:/SourceCache/OpenSSL098/OpenSSL098-47/src/ssl/s3_pkt.c:1102:SSL alert number 48 574:error:140790E5:SSL routines:SSL23_WRITE:ssl handshake failure:/SourceCache/OpenSSL098/OpenSSL098-47/src/ssl/s23_lib.c:182: I'm really stumped as to what I've done wrong. I've searched quite a bit on this error and what I found is that people are saying the issuing CA of the client's certificate is not trusted by the server, yet when I look at the issuer of my client certificate, it matches to one of the accepted CA returned by my server. Can anyone help, please? Thank you in advance.

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  • Linksys WAP54G v3.1 no access, power and link LED solid

    - by user142113
    I'm managing the Network of a small enterprise. A Linksys WAP54G v3.1 used to provide the WiFi network. I was called, because the device did not provide a WiFi network anymore. I first of all tried to ping the device via LAN, but there was no reaction. I've frequently reconnected the AP to the mains and always the POWER and the LINK LED keep solid, even if no network cable is connected. What I've done yet: Reset as documented: Pressed the RESET button for 10 seconds. After that I have tried to access the AP with a direct cable connection to my computer, that I've set to a static ip of 192.168.1.240, but i got no ping response on the default IP 192.168.1.245. Furthermore ipconfig reports "media disconnected". More complex reset method as described here http://bruceshankle.blogspot.de/2005/12/how-to-reset-linksys-wap54g.html as well had no effect. also tried to ping 192.168.1.1 without success Tried this method: http://www.daniweb.com/hardware-and-software/networking/threads/142437/linksys-wireless-access-point-problem#post680245 but there was no ping response when powering up. As well the tftp transfer timed out Finally tried to short pin 15 and 16 of the flash chip on the bottom side of the AP mainboard while booting to provoke a Checksum error. This should lead to the possibility to upload a firmware with tftp, as the AP stops booting and waits for a tftp connection on 192.168.1.1. But I've had no success. As well i've put pin 15 and 16 to ground while booting, also without an effect. After all that I still can't ping the AP, ipconfig still tells me "media disconnected". The POWER and LINK LED are solid. I would appreciate your answers

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  • What characteristic of networking/TCP causes linear relation between TCP activity and latency?

    - by DeLongey
    The core of this problem is that our application uses websockets for real-time interfaces. We are testing our app in a new environment but strangely we're noticing an increasing delay in TCP websocket packets associated with an increase in websocket activity. For example, if one websocket event occurs without any other activity in a 1-minute period, the response from the server is instantaneous. However, if we slowly increase client activity the latency in server response increases with a linear relationship (each packet will take more time to reach the client with more activity). For those wondering this is NOT app-related since our logs show that our server is running and responding to requests in under 100ms as desired. The delay starts once the server processes the request and creates the TCP packet and sends it to the client (and not the other way around). Architecture This new environment runs with a Virtual IP address and uses keepalived on a load balancer to balance the traffic between instances. Two boxes sit behind the balancer and all traffic runs through it. Our host provider manages the balancer and we do not have control over that part of the architecture. Theory Could this somehow be related to something buffering the packets in the new environment? Thanks for your help.

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  • Lighttpd - byte range request doesn't work. can't stream mp4

    - by w-01
    Am attempting to use the lastest flowplayer. (if it could work it would be pretty awesome btw) http://flowplayer.org One of the cool things about it is it uses the new HTML5 video element and supports random seeking/playback. In order to do this, you need a byte range request capable server on the backend. Luckily I'm using Lighttpd 1.5.0 on the backend. Unfortunately the current behavior is that when I do a random seek, the video simply restarts itself from the beginning. the docs say: "For HTML5 video you don't have to do any client side configuration. If your server supports byte range requests then seeking should work on the fly. Most servers including Apache, Nginx and Lighttpd support this." On my page, using chrome web developer tools, i can see when the video is requested, the server response headers indicate it is able to acce[t byte ranges. Accept-Ranges:bytes when I do random seek in the player, I can see that that byte ranges are request appropriately in the request header: Range: bytes=5668-10785 I can also verify the moov atom is at the front of the video file. My question here is if there is something else on the lighttpd side i'm missing in order to enable byte-range requests? The reason i ask is because the current behavior suggests that the lighttpd simply doesn't understand the byte range request and is just reserving the video from the beginning. Update it's clearer to put this here. As per RJS' suggestion I ran a curl command. in the response it looks like lighttpd is working as expected. Content-Range: bytes 1602355-18844965/18844966 Content-Length: 17242611

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