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• My ifelse statement's result depends on the actions for true/false?

  - by Antal

  Currently I am building a route for a truck to drive inside my netlogo-land. When the truck is next to the shop-patch where it should deliver, the truck needs to change its actions. However my if or ifelse statement does not seem to respond well and the answer depends on the output. With some tests: turtles ifelse ((patch (first dirx) (first diry)) = one-of neighbors4) [write "11"] [write "22"] "11" turtles ifelse ((patch (first dirx) (first diry)) = one-of neighbors4) [write "111"] [write "122"] "122" turtles ifelse (patch (first dirx) (first diry)) = one-of neighbors4 [write "111"] [write "122"] "122" turtles ifelse (patch (first dirx) (first diry)) = one-of neighbors4 [write "11"] [write "12"] "12" turtles ifelse (patch (first dirx) (first diry)) = one-of neighbors4 [write "11"] [write "22"] "11" Please note that during this time I do not move my truck, I use the command center to ask these questions (from turtle truck perspective). I am very confused about this. As the only thing I change is the action (what to write). This should not impact the true/false statement itself. Does anybody have any clue what is going on here and why the ifelse responds strange?

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• MVC3 View For Loop values initialization

  - by Ryan

  So I have a for loop in my View that is supposed to render out the input boxes. Now inside these input boxes I want to put lables that disappear when you click on them. This is all simple. Now it's probably because my brain was wired for php first, and it has been difficult to get it to think in lambdas and object orientation, but I can't figure out how to do this: @{ for (int i = 0; i < 3; i++) { <div class="editor-label grid_2">User</div> Model.Users[i].UserFirstName = "First Name"; Model.Users[i].UserLastName = "Last Name"; Model.Users[i].UserEmailAddress = "Email Address"; <div class="grid_10"> @Html.TextBoxFor(m => Model.Users[i].UserFirstName, new { @class = "user-input" }) @Html.TextBoxFor(m => Model.Users[i].UserLastName, new { @class = "user-input" }) @Html.TextBoxFor(m => Model.Users[i].UserEmailAddress, new { @class = "user-input-long" }) @Html.CheckBoxFor(m => Model.Users[i].IsUserAdmin) <span>&nbsp;admin?</span> </div> <div class="clear"> </div> } } And initialize the values for the users. And you're probably thinking "Of course that won't work. You're going to get a Null Reference Exception", and you would be correct. I might need to initialize them somewhere else and I don't realize it but I'm just not sure. I've tried the [DefaultValue("First Name")] route and that doesn't work. I'm probably thinking about this wrong, but my brain is already shot from trying to figure out how to wire up these events to the controller, so any help would be appreciated!

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• Product Name Print Several times, How to fix.?

  - by mans

  i had added the following Opencart module for my order report list... http://www.opencart.com/index.php?route=extension/extension/info&extension_id=3597&filter_search=order%20list%20filter%20model&page=4 I have problems with the column "Products". If there are more than one option the products name prints several times. So if I got a product with three options the product name prints three times. Is there any way to fix this problem? i want print product name and model number only once, any idea.? i will attach the results what i got now... this is my sql query... public function getOrders($data = array()) { $sql = "select o.order_id,o.email,o.telephone,CONCAT(o.shipping_address_1, ' ', o.shipping_address_2) AS address,CONCAT(o.firstname, ' ', o.lastname) AS customer,o.payment_zone AS state,o.payment_address_2 AS block, o.payment_address_1 AS address,o.payment_postcode AS postcode,(SELECT os.name FROM " . DB_PREFIX . "order_status os WHERE os.order_status_id = o.order_status_id AND os.language_id = '" . (int)$this->config->get('config_language_id') . "') AS status,o.payment_city AS city,GROUP_CONCAT(pd.name) AS pdtname,GROUP_CONCAT(op.model) AS model,o.date_added,sum(op.quantity) AS quantity,GROUP_CONCAT(opt.value ) AS options, GROUP_CONCAT(opt.order_product_id ) AS ordprdid,GROUP_CONCAT(op.order_product_id ) AS optprdid, GROUP_CONCAT(op.quantity) AS opquantity from `" . DB_PREFIX . "order` o LEFT JOIN " . DB_PREFIX . "order_product op ON (op.order_id = o.order_id) LEFT JOIN " . DB_PREFIX . "product_description pd ON (pd.product_id = op.product_id and pd.language_id = '" . (int)$this->config->get('config_language_id') . "') LEFT JOIN " . DB_PREFIX . "order_option opt ON (opt.order_product_id = op.order_product_id) "; Product Name = GROUP_CONCAT(pd.name) AS pdtname,

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• Is it possible to send OSC commands to an iPad via the Camera Connection Kit?

  - by HELVETICADE

  I'm building a small controller device that I'd like to partner with a computer. I've settled on using OSC out from my custom built hardware and am pretty satisfied with what I can get from WOscLib. Two goals I'd like to achieve are portability and a very nice ratio between battery:computing power, and this has lured me towards using iPhoneOS to accomplish my goals. I think the iPad would suit my needs perfectly, except that using wifi to broadcast OSC out from my device requires that device to be connected to a third device with a wifi chip, and this would destroy the goal of portability, whilst also introducing potential latency and stability headaches. My question is pretty simple: Can I push OSC commands FROM my controller TO an iPad via USB and the Camera Connection Kit? If I could accomplish this, the two major goals of my project would be fulfilled very nicely. This seems like it should be a simple little question, but researching this obsessively over the past few weeks has left me more almost more uncertain than if I had done no research at all. I'd really like some more confidence before I go down this route, and it seems like it should be possible. Any insight would be very, very appreciated.

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• Trusted Folder/Drive Picker in the Browser

  - by kylepfritz

  I'd like to write a Folder/Drive picker the runs in the browser and allows a user to select files to upload to a webservice. The primary usage would be selecting folders or a whole CD and uploading them to the web with their directory structure in tact. I'm imagining something akin to Jumploader but which automatically enumerates external drives and CDs. I remember a version of Facebook's picture uploader that could do this sort of enumeration and was java-based but it has since been replaced by a much slicker plugin-based architecture. Because the application needs to run at very high trust, I think I'm limited to old-school java applets. Is there another alternative? I'm hesitant to start down the plugin route because of the necessity of writing one for both IE and Mozilla at a minimum. Are there good places to get started there? On the applet front, I built a clunky prototype to demonstrate that I can enumerate devices and list files. It runs fine in the applet viewer but I don't think I have the security settings configured correctly for it to run in the browser at full trust. Currently I don't get any drives back when I run it in the browser. Applet Prototype: public class Loader extends javax.swing.JApplet { ... private void EnumerateDrives(java.awt.event.ActionEvent evt) { File[] roots = File.listRoots(); StringBuilder b = new StringBuilder(); for (File root : roots) { b.append(root.getAbsolutePath() + ", "); } jLabel.setText(b.toString()); } } Embed Html: <p>Loader:</p> <script src="http://www.java.com/js/deployJava.js" type="text/javascript" ></script> <script> var attributes = {code:'org.exampl.Loader.Loader.class', archive:'Loader/dist/Loader.jar', width:600, height:400} ; var parameters = {}; deployJava.runApplet(attributes, parameters, '1.6');

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• What's the use of writing tests matching configuration-like code line by line?

  - by Pascal Van Hecke

  Hi, I have been wondering about the usefulness of writing tests that match code one-by-one. Just an example: in Rails, you can define 7 restful routes in one line in routes.rb using: resources :products BDD/TDD proscribes you test first and then write code. In order to test the full effect of this line, devs come up with macros e.g. for shoulda: http://kconrails.com/2010/01/27/route-testing-with-shoulda-in-ruby-on-rails/ class RoutingTest < ActionController::TestCase # simple should_map_resources :products end I'm not trying to pick on the guy that wrote the macros, this is just an example of a pattern that I see all over Rails. I'm just wondering what the use of it is... in the end you're just duplicating code and the only thing you test is that Rails works. You could as well write a tool that transforms your test macros into actual code... When I ask around, people answer me that: "the tests should document your code, so yes it makes sense to write them, even if it's just one line corresponding to one line" What are your thoughts?

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• Rails 3) Delete, Destory, and Routing

  - by Maximus S

  The problem is the code below <%= button_to t('.delete'), @post, :method => :delete, :class => :destroy %> My Post model has many relations that are dependent on delete. However, the code above will only remove the post, leaving its relations intact. The problem is that methods delete and destroy are different in that method delete doesn't instantiate the object. So I need to use "destroy" instead of "delete" my post. <%= button_to t('.delete'), @post, :method => :destroy %> gives me routing error. No route matches [POST] "/posts/2" <%= button_to t('.delete'), @post, Post.destroy(@post) %> deletes the post without clicking the button. Could anyone help me with this? UPDATE: application.js //= require jquery //= require jquery-ui //= require jquery_ujs //= require bootstrap-modal //= require bootstrap-typeahead //= require_tree . rake routes DELETE (/:locale)/posts/:id(.:format) posts#destroy Post model has_many :tag_links, :dependent => :destroy has_many :tags, :through => :tag_links Tag model has_many :tag_links, :dependent => :destroy has_many :posts, :through => :tag_links Problem: When I delete a post, all the tag_links are destroyed but tags still exist.

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• asp.net MVC ActionMethod causing null exception on parameter

  - by David Liddle

  I am trying to add filter functionality that sends a GET request to the same page to filter records in my table. The problem I am having is that the textbox complains about null object reference when a parameter is not passed. For example, when the person first views the page the url is '/mycontroller/myaction/'. Then when they apply a filter and submit the form it should be something like 'mycontroller/myaction?name=...' Obviously the problem stems from when the name value has not been passed (null) it is still trying to be bound to the 'name' textbox. Any suggestions on what I should do regarding this problem? UPDATE I have tried setting the DefaultValue attribute but I am assuming this is only for route values and not query string values ActionResult MyAction([DefaultValue("")] string name) //Action - /mycontroler/myaction ActionResult MyAction(string name) { ...do stuff } //View <div id="filter"> <% Html.BeginForm("myaction", "mycontroller", FormMethod.Get); %> Name: <%= Html.TextBox("name") %> .... </div> <table>...my list of filtered data

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• connecting to secure database on private network from website host

  - by jim

  Hello all, I've got a requirement to both read and write data via a .net webservice to a sqlserver database that's on a private network. this database is currently accessed via a vpn connection by remote client software (on standard desktop machines) to get latest product prices and to upload product stock sales. I've been tasked with finding a way to centralise this access from a webservice that the clients then access, rather than them using the vpn route to connect directly to the database. My question is related to my .net service's relationship to the sqlserver database. What are the options for connecting to a private network vpn from a domain host in order to achive the functionality of allowing the webservice to both read and write data to the database. For now, I'm not too concerned about the client connectivity and security (tho i appreciate that this will have to be worked out too), I'm really just interested in discovering the options available in order to allow my .net webservice to connect to the private network in as painless and transparent a way as posible. [edit] the webservice will also be available to the retail website in order for it to lookup product info as well as allocate stock transfers to the same sqlserver db. it will therefore be located on the same domain as the retail site The option of switching the database onto public hosting is not feasible, so I have to work with the scenario as described above for now, unless there's a compelling rationale presented to do otherwise. thanks all... jim

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• Can I prevent a Linux user space pthread yielding in critical code?

  - by KermitG

  I am working on an user space app for an embedded Linux project using the 2.6.24.3 kernel. My app passes data between two file nodes by creating 2 pthreads that each sleep until a asynchronous IO operation completes at which point it wakes and runs a completion handler. The completion handlers need to keep track of how many transfers are pending and maintain a handful of linked lists that one thread will add to and the other will remove. // sleep here until events arrive or time out expires for(;;) { no_of_events = io_getevents(ctx, 1, num_events, events, &timeout); // Process each aio event that has completed or thrown an error for (i=0; i<no_of_events; i++) { // Get pointer to completion handler io_complete = (io_callback_t) events[i].data; // Get pointer to data object iocb = (struct iocb *) events[i].obj; // Call completion handler and pass it the data object io_complete(ctx, iocb, events[i].res, events[i].res2); } } My question is this... Is there a simple way I can prevent the currently active thread from yielding whilst it runs the completion handler rather than going down the mutex/spin lock route? Or failing that can Linux be configured to prevent yielding a pthread when a mutex/spin lock is held?

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• Create Session Variable from different datasources?

  - by Szafranamn

  Currently I am developing a dynamic website using Dreamweaver cs5 with ColdFusion 9 and using Access to create my databases along with QuickBooks and QODBC to create database. I have established a login session variable stemming from the login page. This session variable is being drawn from one Datasource "Access" Table "Logininfo" Field "FullName" but I wanted to create another session variable either at this point or further into the member's page to use in a query sequence. This session variable would stem from another Datasoucre "QBs" Table "Invoice" Field "CustomerRefFullName" which is generated through Quickbooks and QODBC. I am not sure if this is possible but if it is how do I do it. I want to do this so I can query the Invoice database to upload the customer's Invoices unique to them onto their page. So it would have to be related to their login credentials. If there is another better route to take I would greatly appreciate the advice. Below is the login code if there is additional information needed let me know. This is my current thinking/plan to do what I wish to intend hence the need to create the session variable: I have another Datasource "QBs" with a Table "Invoice" when I create another webpage for the customer to see their invoice I need to create a recordset that accesses that Table. In order to do so I think the best way would some home convert the session.FullName (which came from Access Datasource, Logininfor Table) into a session.CustomerRefFullName (which would have to come from (Datasource: QBs Table: Invoice Field: CustomerRefFullName) that way I could set the query WHERE CustomerRefFullName and have each logged in user see their specific Invoices. So is there a way to turn the session variable off one datasource/table into a different sessionvariable off a new datasource/table even if it is unique just to that page??? <cfif IsDefined("FORM.username")> SELECT FullName, Username,Password,AccessLevels FROM Logininfo WHERE Username= AND Password=

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• starting a windows executable via batch script, exe not in Program Files

  - by Anthony

  This is probably batch scripting 101, but I can't find any clear explanation/documentation on why this is happening or if my workaround is actually the solution. So basically any terminology or links to good sources is really appreciated. So I have a program I want to execute via batch script (along with several other programs). It's the only one where the exe is not in a Program Files folder. I can get it to start like this: C:\WeirdProgram\WeirdProgramModule\weirdmodule.exe But I get an error along the lines of: Run-time Error '3024': Could not find file C:\Users\MyUserName\Desktop\ModuleSettings.mdb So it seems that the program is looking for its settings files from the same location that the batch script starts up. Given that I finally got everything to work by doing the following: cd C:\WeirdProgram\WeirdProgramModule\ weirdmodule.exe That works fine, and it's not the end of the world to have to go this route (just one extra line), but I've convinced myself that I'm doing something wrong based on lack of basic understanding. Anybody know or can point me to why it works this way? Oh, and doing the following: start "C:\WeirdProgram\WeirdProgramModule\weirdmodule.exe" doesn't do anything at all. Thanks,

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• What is happening in Crockford's object creation technique?

  - by Chris Noe

  There are only 3 lines of code, and yet I'm having trouble fully grasping this: Object.create = function (o) { function F() {} F.prototype = o; return new F(); }; newObject = Object.create(oldObject); (from Prototypal Inheritance) 1) Object.create() starts out by creating an empty function called F. I'm thinking that a function is a kind of object. Where is this F object being stored? Globally I guess. 2) Next our oldObject, passed in as o, becomes the prototype of function F. Function (i.e., object) F now "inherits" from our oldObject, in the sense that name resolution will route through it. Good, but I'm curious what the default prototype is for an object, Object? Is that also true for a function-object? 3) Finally, F is instantiated and returned, becoming our newObject. Is the "new" operation strictly necessary here? Doesn't F already provide what we need, or is there a critical difference between function-objects and non-function-objects? Clearly it won't be possible to have a constructor function using this technique. What happens the next time Object.create() is called? Is global function F overwritten? Surely it is not reused, because that would alter previously configured objects. And what happens if multiple threads call Object.create(), is there any sort of synchronization to prevent race conditions on F?

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• Why are Facebook Likes Insisting on using Wrong Product Image...?

  - by Joan Kent

  Firstly, I'm not a web developer so please be patient. I have read the other posts but I think i have everything covered. My website http://www.joaniesgifts.co.uk includes the like button on the product pages. However, I've found that certain product pages are using the incorrect image when a user likes the page. For example - http://www.joaniesgifts.co.uk/terramundi-money-pots/terramundi-money-pot-holiday-fund I think this may have been down to an original incorrect setup which is now corrected. However, the problem remains... The only thing I have to go on :- if i use the facebook url linter (developers.facebook.com/tools/debug) on the above product page, I receive the following error :- Object at URL 'http://www.joaniesgifts.co.uk/terramundi-money-pot-holiday-fund' of type '213689662010141:product' is invalid because the domain 'www.joaniesgifts.co.uk' is not allowed for the application id '213689662010141' which owns the specified object type. If you are the owner of this application, you can verify your configured 'Site Domain' at developers.facebook.com/apps/213689662010141. (I have verified my site's domain) Everything else appears fine except it is also showing the wrong image!! However, under Raw Open Graph Document Information it has the correct link! If I then click graph api - graph.facebook.com/10150450766583352 it again shows the wrong image was linked! I've no idea what else to do - can you help me? Kind Regards, Joan PS Graph API shows the incorrect image after a scrape only minutes ago { "url": "http://www.joaniesgifts.co.uk/terramundi-money-pot-holiday-fund", "type": "website", "title": "Terramundi Money Pot - Holiday Fund", "image": [ { "url": "http://www.joaniesgifts.co.uk/index.php?route=product\u00252Fproduct\u00252Fcaptcha" } ], "updated_time": "2011-11-11T18:54:38+0000", "id": "10150450766583352" }

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• Thread management advice - Is TPL a good idea?

  - by Ian

  I'm hoping to get some advice on the use of thread managment and hopefully the task parallel library, because I'm not sure I've been going down the correct route. Probably best is that I give an outline of what I'm trying to do. Given a Problem I need to generate a Solution using a heuristic based algorithm. I start of by calculating a base solution, this operation I don't think can be parallelised so we don't need to worry about. Once the inital solution has been generated, I want to trigger n threads, which attempt to find a better solution. These threads need to do a couple of things: They need to be initalized with a different 'optimization metric'. In other words they are attempting to optimize different things, with a precedence level set within code. This means they all run slightly different calculation engines. I'm not sure if I can do this with the TPL.. If one of the threads finds a better solution that the currently best known solution (which needs to be shared across all threads) then it needs to update the best solution, and force a number of other threads to restart (again this depends on precedence levels of the optimization metrics). I may also wish to combine certain calculations across threads (e.g. keep a union of probabilities for a certain approach to the problem). This is probably more optional though. The whole system needs to be thread safe obviously and I want it to be running as fast as possible. I tried quite an implementation that involved managing my own threads and shutting them down etc, but it started getting quite complicated, and I'm now wondering if the TPL might be better. I'm wondering if anyone can offer any general guidance? Thanks...

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• Best Practice: Protecting Personally Identifiable Data in a ASP.NET / SQL Server 2008 Environment

  - by William

  Thanks to a SQL injection vulnerability found last week, some of my recommendations are being investigated at work. We recently re-did an application which stores personally identifiable information whose disclosure could lead to identity theft. While we read some of the data on a regular basis, the restricted data we only need a couple of times a year and then only two employees need it. I've read up on SQL Server 2008's encryption function, but I'm not convinced that's the route I want to go. My problem ultimately boils down to the fact that we're either using symmetric keys or assymetric keys encrypted by a symmetric key. Thus it seems like a SQL injection attack could lead to a data leak. I realize permissions should prevent that, permissions should also prevent the leaking in the first place. It seems to me the better method would be to asymmetrically encrypt the data in the web application. Then store the private key offline and have a fat client that they can run the few times a year they need to access the restricted data so the data could be decrypted on the client. This way, if the server get compromised, we don't leak old data although depending on what they do we may leak future data. I think the big disadvantage is this would require re-writing the web application and creating a new fat application (to pull the restricted data). Due to the recent problem, I can probably get the time allocated, so now would be the proper time to make the recommendation. Do you have a better suggestion? Which method would you recommend? More importantly why?

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• deserializing multiple types from a stream

  - by clanier9

  I have a card game program, and so far, the chat works great back and forth over the TCPClient streams between host and client. I want to make it do this with serializing and deserializing so that I can also pass cards between host and client. I tried to create a separate TCPClient stream for the passing of cards but it didn't work and figured it may be easier to keep one TCPClient stream that gets the text messages as well as cards. So I created a class, called cereal, which has the properties for the cards that will help me rebuild the card from an embedded database of cards on the other end. Is there a way to make my program figure out whether a card has been put in the stream or if it's just text in the stream so I can properly deserialize it to a string or to a cereal? Or should I add a string property to my cereal class and when that property is filled in after deserializing to the cereal, i'll know it's just text (if that field is empty after deserializing i'll know it's a card)? I'm thinking a try catch, where it tries to deserialize to a string, and if it fails it will catch and cast as a cereal. Or am I just way off base with this and should choose another route? I'm using visual studio 2011, am using a binaryformatter, and am new to serializing/deserializing.

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• Python program to search for specific strings in hash values (coding help)

  - by Diego

  Trying to write a code that searches hash values for specific string's (input by user) and returns the hash if searchquery is present in that line. Doing this to kind of just learn python a bit more, but it could be a real world application used by an HR department to search a .csv resume database for specific words in each resume. I'd like this program to look through a .csv file that has three entries per line (id#;applicant name;resume text) I set it up so that it creates a hash, then created a string for the resume text hash entry, and am trying to use the .find() function to return the entire hash for each instance. What i'd like is if the word "gpa" is used as a search query and it is found in s['resumetext'] for three applicants(rows in .csv file), it prints the id, name, and resume for every row that has it.(All three applicants) As it is right now, my program prints the first row in the .csv file(print resume['id'], resume['name'], resume['resumetext']) no matter what the searchquery is, whether it's in the resumetext or not. lastly, are there better ways to doing this, by searching word documents, pdf's and .txt files in a folder for specific words using python (i've just started reading about the re module and am wondering if this may be the route, rather than putting everything in a .csv file.) def find_details(id2find): resumes_f=open("resume_data.csv") for each_line in resumes_f: s={} (s['id'], s['name'], s['resumetext']) = each_line.split(";") resumetext = str(s['resumetext']) if resumetext.find(id2find): return(s) else: print "No data matches your search query. Please try again" searchquery = raw_input("please enter your search term") resume = find_details(searchquery) if resume: print resume['id'], resume['name'], resume['resumetext']

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• How do I send data between two computers over the internet

  - by Johan

  I have been struggling with this for the entire day now, I hope somebody can help me with this. My problem is fairly simple: I wish to transfer data (mostly simple commands) from one PC to another over the internet. I have been able to achieve this using sockets in Java when both computers are connected to my home router. I then connected both computers to the internet using two different mobile phones and attempted to transmit the data again. I used the mobile phones as this provides a direct route to the internet and if I use my router I have to set up port forwarding, at least, that is how I understand it. I think the problem lies in the method that I set up the client socket. I used: Socket kkSocket = new Socket(ipAddress, 3333); where ipAddress is the IP address of the computer running the server. I got the IP address by right-clicking on the connection, status, support. Is that the correct IP address to use or where can I obtain the address of the server? Also, is it possible to get a fixed name for my computer that I can use instead of entering the IP address, as this changes every time I connect to the internet using my mobile phone? Alternatively, are there better methods to solving my problem such as using http, and if so, where can I find more information about this? Thanks!

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• Do I need to write a trigger for such a simple constraint?

  - by Paul Hanbury

  I really had a hard time knowing what words to put into the title of my question, as I am not especially sure if there is a database pattern related to my problem. I will try to simplify matters as much as possible to get directly to the heart of the issue. Suppose I have some tables. The first one is a list of widget types: create table widget_types ( widget_type_id number(7,0) primary key, description varchar2(50) ); The next one contains icons: create table icons ( icon_id number(7,0) primary key, picture blob ); Even though the users get to select their preferred widget, there is a predefined subset of widgets that they can choose from for each widget type. create table icon_associations ( widget_type_id number(7,0) references widget_types, icon_id number(7,0) references icons, primary key (widget_type_id, icon_id) ); create table icon_prefs ( user_id number(7,0) references users, widget_type_id number(7,0), icon_id number(7,0), primary key (user_id, widget_type_id), foreign key (widget_type_id, icon_id) references icon_associations ); Pretty simple so far. Let us now assume that if we are displaying an icon to a user who has not set up his preferences, we choose one of the appropriate images associated with the current widget. I'd like to specify the preferred icon to display in such a case, and here's where I run into my problem: alter table icon_associations add ( is_preferred char(1) check( is_preferred in ('y','n') ) ) ; I do not see how I can enforce that for each widget_type there is one, and only one, row having is_preferred set to 'y'. I know that in MySQL, I am able to write a subquery in my check constraint to quickly resolve this issue. This is not possible with Oracle. Is my mistake that this column has no business being in the icon_associations table? If not where should it go? Is this a case where, in Oracle, the constraint can only be handled with a trigger? I ask only because I'd like to go the constraint route if at all possible. Thanks so much for your help, Paul

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• need help with mvc & routes

  - by geoff

  I'm very new to MVC and I'm trying to get a new site set up using it. For SEO reasons we need to make the url of a page something like "Recruiter/4359/John_Smith" or basically {controller}/{id}/{name}. I have that working when I create the url in the code behind like so... //r is a recruiter object that is part of the results for the view r.Summary = searchResult.Summary + "... &lt;a href=\"/Recruiter/" + r.Id + "/" + r.FirstName + "_" + r.LastName + "\"&gt;Read More&lt;/a&gt;" But when I am using the collection of results from a search in my view and iterating through them I am trying to create another link to the same page doing something like <%=Html.ActionLink<RecruiterController>(x => x.Detail((int)r.Id), r.RecruiterName)%> but that doesn't work. When I use that code in the view it gives me a url in the form of /Recruiter/Detail/4359 I was told by a coworker that I should use the Html.ActionLink to create the link in both the view and the controller so that if the route changes in the future it will automatically work. Unfortunately he wasn't sure how to do that in this case. So, my problems are... How can I make the Html.ActionLink work in the view to create a url like I need (like r.Summary above)? How do I use the Html.ActionLink in a controller instead of hardcoding the link like I have above?

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• DELETE causing a redirect loop?

  - by robocode

  I have an express app with a postgres backend where a user can add/delete recipes, and each time they do so they get an updated list of recipes. Adding a recipe is fine, but when I delete one it seems to get stuck in a redirect loop. In app.js I have router.get('/delete/:d', delRec.deleteRecipe); which calls the following code exports.deleteRecipe = function(req, res){ pg.connect(conString, function(err, client) { client.query('DELETE FROM recipes WHERE recipe_name = ', [req.params.d], function(err, result) { if(err) { return console.error('error running query', err); } else if (result) { pg.end(); console.log('deleting'); } }); }); res.redirect('recipes'); }; If I try delete a recipe, console.log('deleting') produces deleting deleting deleting deleting deleting deleting deleting deleting deleting deleting deleting deleting deleting deleting deleting deleting deleting deleting deleting deleting deleting The recipes route is below (sorry that it's so convoluted) router.get('/recipes', function(req, res) { pg.connect(conString, function(err, client) { if(err) { return console.error('could not connect to postgres', err); } client.query('SELECT * FROM recipes', function(err, result) { if(err) { return console.error('error running query', err); } recipes = result.rows; for(var d in recipes) { if (recipes.hasOwnProperty(d)) { recipeList[d] = recipes[d].recipe_name; } } res.render('recipes', {recipes: recipes, recipeList: recipeList}); }); }); });

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• Request for advice about class design, inheritance/aggregation

  - by Lasse V. Karlsen

  I have started writing my own WebDAV server class in .NET, and the first class I'm starting with is a WebDAVListener class, modelled after how the HttpListener class works. Since I don't want to reimplement the core http protocol handling, I will use HttpListener for all its worth, and thus I have a question. What would the suggested way be to handle this: Implement all the methods and properties found inside HttpListener, just changing the class types where it matters (ie. the GetContext + EndGetContext methods would return a different class for WebDAV contexts), and storing and using a HttpListener object internally Construct WebDAVListener by passing it a HttpListener class to use? Create a wrapper for HttpListener with an interface, and constrct WebDAVListener by passing it an object implementing this interface? If going the route of passing a HttpListener (disguised or otherwise) to the WebDAVListener, would you expose the underlying listener object through a property, or would you expect the program that used the class to keep a reference to the underlying HttpListener? Also, in this case, would you expose some of the methods of HttpListener through the WebDAVListener, like Start and Stop, or would you again expect the program that used it to keep the HttpListener reference around for all those things? My initial reaction tells me that I want a combination. For one thing, I would like my WebDAVListener class to look like a complete implementation, hiding the fact that there is a HttpListener object beneath it. On the other hand, I would like to build unit-tests without actually spinning up a networked server, so some kind of mocking ability would be nice to have as well, which suggests I would like the interface-wrapper way. One way I could solve this would be this: public WebDAVListener() : WebDAVListener(new HttpListenerWrapper()) { } public WebDAVListener(IHttpListenerWrapper listener) { } And then I would implement all the methods of HttpListener (at least all those that makes sense) in my own class, by mostly just chaining the call to the underlying HttpListener object. What do you think? Final question: If I go the way of the interface, assuming the interface maps 1-to-1 onto the HttpListener class, and written just to add support for mocking, is such an interface called a wrapper or an adapter?

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• Rails: Obfuscating Image URLs on Amazon S3? (security concern)

  - by neezer

  To make a long explanation short, suffice it to say that my Rails app allows users to upload images to the app that they will want to keep in the app (meaning, no hotlinking). So I'm trying to come up with a way to obfuscate the image URLs so that the address of the image depends on whether or not that user is logged in to the site, so if anyone tried hotlinking to the image, they would get a 401 access denied error. I was thinking that if I could route the request through a controller, I could re-use a lot of the authorization I've already built into my app, but I'm stuck there. What I'd like is for my images to be accessible through a URL to one of my controllers, like: http://railsapp.com/images/obfuscated?member_id=1234&pic_id=7890 If the user where to right-click on the image displayed on the website and select "Copy Address", then past it in, it would be the SAME url (as in, wouldn't betray where the image is actually hosted). The actual image would be living on a URL like this: http://s3.amazonaws.com/s3username/assets/member_id/pic_id.extension Is this possible to accomplish? Perhaps using Rails' render method? Or something else? I know it's possible for PHP to return the correct headers to make the browser think it's an image, but I don't know how to do this in Rails... UPDATE: I want all users of the app to be able to view the images if and ONLY if they are currently logged on to the site. If the user does not have a currently active session on the site, accessing the images directly should yield a generic image, or an error message.

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• I'm annoyed with asp .net mvc action links? Is there something better in MVC3?

  - by Jonathon Kresner

  After almost 3 years with mvc I'm scratching my head. Is it just me, or does the way we specify links in asp .net mvc suck? @Html.ActionLink("Log Off", "LogOff", "Account") In the previews for mvc 1 we had the funky generic action links which gave us intellisense and compile checking, which I LOVED. I know they removed them because of performance issues and because you could not actually guarantee that the route would resolve all the time... However the default way of doing it just doesn't make me feel safe enough in a big application. I've also used T4Mvc with MVC2, to be honest, I didn't really like it. It's not part of the Mvc framework and frustrating to develop with especially with source control in big teams and continuous integration builds. I guess I could also import Mvc Futures and keep using the generic types (it's probably what I'll do). I'm just about to start a very big project and was wondering what other people are thinking? Is anyone else annoyed with the options or has a new solution? It seems like ActionLinks are the most basic & frequently used feature. Shouldn't there be a good out of the box solution, we're just about to hit revision 3 of this framework.

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