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  • How to avoid multiple, unused has_many associations when using multiple models for the same entity (

    - by mikep
    Hello, I'm looking for a nice, Ruby/Rails-esque solution for something. I'm trying to split up some data using multiple tables, rather than just using one gigantic table. My reasoning is pretty much to try and avoid the performance drop that would come with having a big table. So, rather than have one table called books, I have multiple tables: books1, books2, books3, etc. (I know that I could use a partition, but, for now, I've decided to go the 'multiple tables' route.) Each user has their books placed into a specific table. The actual book table is chosen when the user is created, and all of their books go into the same table. The goal is to try and keep each table pretty much even -- but that's a different issue. One thing I don't particularly want to have is a bunch of unused associations in the User class. Right now, it looks like I'd have to do the following: class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :books1, :books2, :books3, :books4, :books5 end class Books1 < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user end class Books2 < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user end First off, for each specific user, only one of the book tables would be usable/applicable, since all of a user's books are stored in the same table. So, only one of the associations would be in use at any time and any other has_many :bookX association that was loaded would be a waste. I don't really know Ruby/Rails does internally with all of those has_many associations though, so maybe it's not so bad. But right now I'm thinking that it's really wasteful, and that there may just be a better, more efficient way of doing this. Is there's some sort of special Ruby/Rails methodology that could be applied here to avoid having to have all of those has_many associations? Also, does anyone have any advice on how to abstract the fact that there's multiple book tables behind a single books model/class?

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  • Can iPad/iPhone Touch Points be Wrong Due to Calibration?

    - by Kristopher Johnson
    I have an iPad application that uses the whole screen (that is, UIStatusBarHidden is set true in the Info.plist file). The main window's frame is set to (0, 0, 768, 1024), as is the main view in that frame. The main view has multitouch enabled. The view has code to handle touches: - (void)touchesMoved:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { for (UITouch *touch in touches) { CGPoint location = [touch locationInView:nil]; NSLog(@"touchesMoved at location %@", NSStringFromCGPoint(location)); } } When I run the app in the simulator, it works pretty much as expected. As I move the mouse from one edge of the screen to the other, reported X values go from 0 to 767. Reported Y values go from 20 to 1023, but it is a known issue that the simulator doesn't report touches in the top 20 pixels of the screen, even when there is no status bar. Here's what's weird: When I run the app on an actual iPad, the X values go from 0 to 767 as expected, but reported Y values go from -6 to 1017. The fact that it seems to work properly on the simulator leads me to suspect that real devices' touchscreens are not perfectly calibrated, and mine is simply reporting values six pixels too low. Can anyone verify that this is the case? Otherwise, is there anything else that could account for the Y values being six pixels off from what I expect? (In a few days, I should have a second iPad, so I can test this with another device and compare the results.)

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  • How does jquery display an image received from an ajax request?

    - by Gnee
    I have this working great, but I'd like a deeper understanding of what is actually going on behind the scenes. I am using Jquery's Ajax method to pull 5 blog posts (returning only the title and first photo). A PHP script grabs the blog posts' title and first photo and sticks it in an array and sends it back to my browser as JSON. Upon receiving the JSON object, Jquery grabs the first member of the JSON object and displays it's title and photo. In a gallery I made, using buttons – the user can iterate the 1-5 posts. So the actual AJAX call happens right away, and only once. I am basically using this kind of setup: $('my_div').html(json_obj[i]) and each click does a i++. So jquery is plucking these blog posts from my computers memory, my web browsers cache, or some kind of cache in the Javascript engine? One of the things it's returning is a pretty gnarly animated gif. I just wonder if it constantly running in the background (but not visible), stealing processing cycles...etc. Or Javascript just inserting (say a flash movie) into the DOM, but before hand does nothing but take up a little memory (no processing). Anyway, I'm just curious. If someone is a guru on this, I'd love to hear your take. Thanks!!

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  • Ruby on Rails: How to use a local variable in a collection_select

    - by mmacaulay
    I have a partial view which I'm passing a local variable into: <%= render :partial => "products/product_row", :locals => { :product => product } %> These are rows in a table, and I want to have a <select> in each row for product categories: <%= collection_select(:product, :category_id, @current_user.categories, :id, :name, options = {:prompt => "-- Select a category --"}, html_options = { :id => "", :class => "product_category" }) %> (Note: the id = "" is there because collection_select tries to give all these select elements the same id.) The problem is that I want to have product.category be selected by default and this doesn't work unless I have an instance variable @product. I can't do this in the controller because this is a collection of products. One way I was able to get around this was to have this line just before the collection_select: <% @product = product %> But this seems very hacky and would be a problem if I ever wanted to have an actual instance variable @product in the controller. I guess one workaround would be to name this instance variable something more specific like @product_select_tmp in hopes of not interfering with anything that might be declared in the controller. This still seems very hacky though, and I'd prefer a cleaner solution. Surely there must be a way to have collection_select use a local variable instead of an instance variable. Note that I've tried a few different ways of calling collection_select with no success: <%= collection_select(product, ... <%= collection_select('product', ... etc. Any help greatly appreciated!

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  • Get a "sqlceqp35.dll" error when debugging but not when running deployed code.

    - by nj
    In our current windows mobile project a problem while debugging recently arised. When trying to debug the code it throws an exception on the open command on a connection to the local database. The message is "A SQL Server Compact DLL could not be loaded. Reinstall SQL Server Compact Edition. [ DLL Name = sqlceqp35.dll ]". Sometime it's an unknow error instead, with reference to the same file. If you execute the binary, thats deployd during the debug, on the device it runs without any problem. I've tried: Reinstall both .net and sqlce on the device. Changed the "specific version" on the reference properties in the project. The hardware I'm using is a Motorola MC70 with Windows mobile 5.0. The target platform of the project is windows mobile 5.0. Any ideas on what might cause this problem? EDIT: When I tried it on a MC75 I can debug it. The MC70 got OS Version: 05.01.0478 and the MC75 05.01.0478. My best guess now is that it's someway related to the OS version or the actual device.

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  • MySQL FULLTEXT not working

    - by Ross
    I'm attempting to add searching support for my PHP web app using MySQL's FULLTEXT indexes. I created a test table (using the MyISAM type, with a single text field a) and entered some sample data. Now if I'm right the following query should return both those rows: SELECT * FROM test WHERE MATCH(a) AGAINST('databases') However it returns none. I've done a bit of research and I'm doing everything right as far as I can tell - the table is a MyISAM table, the FULLTEXT indexes are set. I've tried running the query from the prompt and from phpMyAdmin, with no luck. Am I missing something crucial? UPDATE: Ok, while Cody's solution worked in my test case it doesn't seem to work on my actual table: CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `uploads` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `name` text NOT NULL, `size` int(11) NOT NULL, `type` text NOT NULL, `alias` text NOT NULL, `md5sum` text NOT NULL, `uploaded` datetime NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 AUTO_INCREMENT=6 ; And the data I'm using: INSERT INTO `uploads` (`id`, `name`, `size`, `type`, `alias`, `md5sum`, `uploaded`) VALUES (1, '04 Sickman.mp3', 5261182, 'audio/mp3', '1', 'df2eb6a360fbfa8e0c9893aadc2289de', '2009-07-14 16:08:02'), (2, '07 Dirt.mp3', 5056435, 'audio/mp3', '2', 'edcb873a75c94b5d0368681e4bd9ca41', '2009-07-14 16:08:08'), (3, 'header_bg2.png', 16765, 'image/png', '3', '5bc5cb5c45c7fa329dc881a8476a2af6', '2009-07-14 16:08:30'), (4, 'page_top_right2.png', 5299, 'image/png', '4', '53ea39f826b7c7aeba11060c0d8f4e81', '2009-07-14 16:08:37'), (5, 'todo.txt', 392, 'text/plain', '5', '7ee46db77d1b98b145c9a95444d8dc67', '2009-07-14 16:08:46'); The query I'm now running is: SELECT * FROM `uploads` WHERE MATCH(name) AGAINST ('header' IN BOOLEAN MODE) Which should return row 3, header_bg2.png. Instead I get another empty result set. My options for boolean searching are below: mysql> show variables like 'ft_%'; +--------------------------+----------------+ | Variable_name | Value | +--------------------------+----------------+ | ft_boolean_syntax | + -><()~*:""&| | | ft_max_word_len | 84 | | ft_min_word_len | 4 | | ft_query_expansion_limit | 20 | | ft_stopword_file | (built-in) | +--------------------------+----------------+ 5 rows in set (0.02 sec) "header" is within the word length restrictions and I doubt it's a stop word (I'm not sure how to get the list). Any ideas?

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  • asp:login form does not submit when you hit enter

    - by Ben Liyanage
    I am having an issues while using the <asp:login> tag. When a user clicks the "login" button, the form will process correctly. However, when the user hits the enter key, the form self submits and does not process the login, whether it was correct information or not. I am using a combination of MasterPages, and Umbraco. My aspx code looks like this: <%@ Master Language="C#" MasterPageFile="/masterpages/AccountCenter.master" CodeFile="~/masterpages/Login.master.cs" Inherits="LoginPage" AutoEventWireup="true" %> <asp:Content ContentPlaceHolderID="RunwayMasterContentPlaceHolder" runat="server"> <div class="loginBox"> <div class="AspNet-Login-TitlePanel">Account Center Login</div> <asp:label id="output" runat="server"></asp:label> <asp:GridView runat="server" id="GridResults" AutoGenerateColumns="true"></asp:GridView> <asp:Login destinationpageurl="~/dashboard.aspx" ID="Login1" OnLoggedIn="onLogin" runat="server" TitleText="" FailureText="The login/password combination you provided is invalid." DisplayRememberMe="false"></asp:Login> </div> </asp:Content> In the actual rendered page, I see this javascript on the form: <form method="post" action="/dashboard.aspx?" onsubmit="javascript:return WebForm_OnSubmit();" id="aspnetForm"> That javascript function is defined as: <script type="text/javascript"> //<![CDATA[ function WebForm_OnSubmit() { if (typeof(ValidatorOnSubmit) == "function" && ValidatorOnSubmit() == false) return false; return true; } //]]> </script> The javascript is always evaluating to True when it runs.

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  • Python script to calculate aded combinations from a dictionary

    - by dayde
    I am trying to write a script that will take a dictionary of items, each containing properties of values from 0 - 10, and add the various elements to select which combination of items achieve the desired totals. I also need the script to do this, using only items that have the same "slot" in common. For example: item_list = { 'item_1': {'slot': 'top', 'prop_a': 2, 'prop_b': 0, 'prop_c': 2, 'prop_d': 1 }, 'item_2': {'slot': 'top', 'prop_a': 5, 'prop_b': 0, 'prop_c': 1, 'prop_d':-1 }, 'item_3': {'slot': 'top', 'prop_a': 2, 'prop_b': 5, 'prop_c': 2, 'prop_d':-2 }, 'item_4': {'slot': 'mid', 'prop_a': 5, 'prop_b': 5, 'prop_c':-5, 'prop_d': 0 }, 'item_5': {'slot': 'mid', 'prop_a':10, 'prop_b': 0, 'prop_c':-5, 'prop_d': 0 }, 'item_6': {'slot': 'mid', 'prop_a':-5, 'prop_b': 2, 'prop_c': 3, 'prop_d': 5 }, 'item_7': {'slot': 'bot', 'prop_a': 1, 'prop_b': 3, 'prop_c':-4, 'prop_d': 4 }, 'item_8': {'slot': 'bot', 'prop_a': 2, 'prop_b': 2, 'prop_c': 0, 'prop_d': 0 }, 'item_9': {'slot': 'bot', 'prop_a': 3, 'prop_b': 1, 'prop_c': 4, 'prop_d':-4 }, } The script would then need to select which combinations from the "item_list" dict that using 1 item per "slot" that would achieve a desired result when added. For example, if the desired result was: 'prop_a': 3, 'prop_b': 3, 'prop_c': 8, 'prop_d': 0, the script would select 'item_2', 'item_6', and 'item_9', along with any other combination that worked. 'item_2': {'slot': 'top', 'prop_a': 5, 'prop_b': 0, 'prop_c': 1, 'prop_d':-1 } 'item_6': {'slot': 'mid', 'prop_a':-5, 'prop_b': 2, 'prop_c': 3, 'prop_d': 5 } 'item_9': {'slot': 'bot', 'prop_a': 3, 'prop_b': 1, 'prop_c': 4, 'prop_d':-4 } 'total': 'prop_a': 3, 'prop_b': 3, 'prop_c': 8, 'prop_d': 0 Any ideas how to accomplish this? It does not need to be in python, or even a thorough script, but just an explanation on how to do this in theory would be enough for me. I have tried working out looping through every combination, but that seems to very quickly get our of hand and unmanageable. The actual script will need to do this for about 1,000 items using 20 different "slots", each with 8 properties. Thanks for the help!

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  • What scenarios are possible where the VS C# compiler would not compile a reference of a reference?

    - by SuperKing
    Hello, I'm probably asking this question wrong (and that may be why Google isn't helping), but here goes: In Visual Studio I am compiling a C# project (let's call it Project A, the startup project) which has a reference to Project B. Project B has a reference to a Project C, so when A gets built, the dlls for B gets placed in the bin directory of A, as does the dll for C (because B requires C, and A requires B). However, I have apparently made some change recently so that the dll for Project C does not go into the bin directory of Project A when rebuilding the solution. I have no idea what I've done to make this happen. I have not modified the setup of the solution itself, and I have only added additional references to the project files. Code wise, I have commented out most of the actual code in Project B that references classes in Project C, but did not remove the reference from the project itself (I don't think this matters). I was told that perhaps the C# compiler was optimizing somehow so that it was not building Project C, but really I'm out of ideas. I would think someone has run into something similar before Any thoughts? Thanks!

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  • C# app running as either Windows Form or as Console Application

    - by Aeolien
    I am looking to have one of my Windows Forms applications be run programmatically—from the command line. In preparation, I have separated the logic in its own class from the Form. Now I am stuck trying to get the application to switch back and forth based on the presence of command line arguments. Here is the code for the main class: static class Program { /// <summary> /// The main entry point for the application. /// </summary> [STAThread] static void Main() { string[] args = Environment.GetCommandLineArgs(); if (args.Length > 1) // gets passed its path, by default { CommandLineWork(args); return; } Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); Application.Run(new Form1()); } private static void CommandLineWork(string[] args) { Console.WriteLine("It works!"); Console.ReadLine(); } where Form1 is my form and the It works! string is just a placeholder for the actual logic. Right now, when running this from within Visual Studio (with command line arguments), the phrase It works! is printed to the Output. However, when running the /bin/Debug/Program.exe file (or /Release for that matter) the application crashes. Am I going about this the right way? Would it make more sense (i.e. take less developer time) to have my logic class be a DLL that gets loaded by two separate applications? Or is there something entirely different that I'm not aware of? Thanks in advance!

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  • When is it better to use a method versus a property for a class definition?

    - by ccomet
    Partially related to an earlier question of mine, I have a system in which I have to store complex data as a string. Instead of parsing these strings as all kinds of separate objects, I just created one class that contains all of those objects, and it has some parser logic that will encode all properties into strings, or decode a string to get those objects. That's all fine and good. This question is not about the parser itself, but about where I should house the logic for the parser. Is it a better choice to put it as a property, or as a method? In the case of a property, say public string DataAsString, the get accessor would house the logic to encode all of the data into a string, while the set accessor would decode the input value and set all of the data in the class instance. It seems convenient because the input/output is indeed a string. In the case of a method, one method would be Encode(), which returns the encoded string. Then, either the constructor itself would house the logic for the decoding a string and require the string argument, or I write a Decode(string str) method which is called separately. In either case, it would be using a method instead of a property. So, is there a functional difference between these paths, in terms of the actual running of the code? Or are they basically equivalent and it then boils down to a choice of personal preference or which one looks better? And in that kind of question... which would look cleaner anyway?

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  • Have I taken a wrong path in programming by being excessively worried about code elegance and style?

    - by Ygam
    I am in a major stump right now. I am a BSIT graduate, but I only started actual programming less than a year ago. I observed that I have the following attitude in programming: I tend to be more of a purist, scorning unelegant approaches to solving problems using code I tend to look at anything in a large scale, planning everything before I start coding, either in simple flowcharts or complex UML charts I have a really strong impulse on refactoring my code, even if I miss deadlines or prolong development times I am obsessed with good directory structures, file naming conventions, class, method, and variable naming conventions I tend to always want to study something new, even, as I said, at the cost of missing deadlines I tend to see software development as something to engineer, to architect; that is, seeing how things relate to each other and how blocks of code can interact (I am a huge fan of loose coupling) i.e the OOP thinking I tend to combine OOP and procedural coding whenever I see fit I want my code to execute fast (thus the elegant approaches and refactoring) This bothers me because I see my colleagues doing much better the other way around (aside from the fact that they started programming since our first year in college). By the other way around I mean, they fire up coding, gets the job done much faster because they don't have to really look at how clean their codes are or how elegant their algorithms are, they don't bother with OOP however big their projects are, they mostly use web APIs, piece them together and voila! Working code! CLients are happy, they get paid fast, at the expense of a really unmaintainable or hard-to-read code that lacks structure and conventions, or slow executions of certain actions (which the common reasoning against would be that internet connections are much faster these days, hardware is more powerful). The excuse I often receive is clients don't care about how you write the code, but they do care about how long you deliver it. If it works then all is good. Now, did my "purist" approach to programming may have been the wrong way to start programming? Should I just dump these purist concepts and just code the hell up because I have seen it: clients don't really care how beautifully coded it is?

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  • Problem with multiple forms on one page

    - by Jon
    I have two forms on a web page. The first is not an actual form since this is a .NET based site. So instead I have the standard input fields, along with asp:Button PostBackURL="http:/www...". One of the fields is "email". That works fine. Then I have an XSLT file with another form, and am using Javascript (via this.form.action, .method, etc) to post that form. Besides that it has the same fields as the form above. The problem is that when someone submits the second form, the script at the PostBackURL returns an error because the "email" field appears empty. So it seems as though the form is submitting the "email" field form the top form instead of the current one. I thought maybe the wrong form is being submitted, but if I remove the "email" field from the top form, and then submit the bottom one, it works fine. Any ideas on how to fix this? Thanks.

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  • How to create instances of related models in Django

    - by sevennineteen
    I'm working on a CMSy app for which I've implemented a set of models which allow for creation of custom Template instances, made up of a number of Fields and tied to a specific Customer. The end-goal is that one or more templates with a set of custom fields can be defined through the Admin interface and associated to a customer, so that customer can then create content objects in the format prescribed by the template. I seem to have gotten this hooked up such that I can create any number of Template objects, but I'm struggling with how to create instances - actual content objects - in those templates. For example, I can define a template "Basic Page" for customer "Acme" which has the fields "Title" and "Body", but I haven't figured out how to create Basic Page instances where these fields can be filled in. Here are my (somewhat elided) models... class Customer(models.Model): ... class Field(models.Model): ... class Template(models.Model): label = models.CharField(max_length=255) clients = models.ManyToManyField(Customer, blank=True) fields = models.ManyToManyField(Field, blank=True) class ContentObject(models.Model): label = models.CharField(max_length=255) template = models.ForeignKey(Template) author = models.ForeignKey(User) customer = models.ForeignKey(Customer) mod_date = models.DateTimeField('Modified Date', editable=False) def __unicode__(self): return '%s (%s)' % (self.label, self.template) def save(self): self.mod_date = datetime.datetime.now() super(ContentObject, self).save() Thanks in advance for any advice!

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  • How to correctly load dependent JavaScript files

    - by Vaibhav Garg
    I am trying to extent a website page that displays google maps with the LabeledMarker. Google Maps API defines a class called GMarker which is extended by the LabeledMarker. The problem is, I cant seem to load the LabeledMarker script properly, i.e. after the Google API loads and I get the 'GMarker not defined' error. What is the correct way to specify the scripts in such cases? I am using ASP.NET's ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptInclude() first for the google API url and then immediately after with the LabeledMarker script file. The initial google API loader writes further script links that load the actual GMarker class. Shouldnt all those scripts be executed before the next script block(LabeledMarker script) is processed. I have checked the generated HTML and the script blocks are emitted in the right order. <script src="google api url" type="text/javascript"></script> ... (the above scripts uses document.write() etc to append further script blocks/sources) ... <script src="Scripts/LabeledMarker.js" type="text/javascript"></script> Once again, the LabeledMarker.js seems to get executed before the google API finishes loading.

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  • MSBuild script fails but produces no errors

    - by Kate
    I have a MSBuild script that I am executing through TeamCity. One of the tasks that is runs is from Xheo DeploxLX CodeVeil which obfuscates some DLLs. The task I am using is called VeilProject. I have run the CodeVeil Project through the interface manually and it works correctly, so I think I can safely assume that the actual obfuscate process is ok. This task used to take around 40 minutes and the rest of the MSBuild file executed perfectly and finished without errors. For some reason this task is now taking 1hr 20 minutes or so to execute. Once the VeilProject task is finished the output from the task says it completely successfully, however the MSBuild script fails at this point. I have a task directly after the VeilProject task and it does not get outputted. Using diagnostic output from MSBUild I can see the following: My questions are: Would it be possible that the MSBuild script has timed out? Once the task has completed it is after a certain timeout period so it just fails? Why would the build fail with no errors and no warnings? [05:39:06]: [Target "Obfuscate"] Finished. [05:39:06]: [Target "Obfuscate"] Saving exception map [05:49:21]: [Target "Obfuscate"] Ended at 11/05/2010 05:49:21, ~1 hour, 48 minutes, 6 seconds [05:49:22]: [Target "Obfuscate"] Done. [05:49:51]: MSBuild output: Ended at 11/05/2010 05:49:21, ~1 hour, 48 minutes, 6 seconds (TaskId:8) Done. (TaskId:8) Done executing task "VeilProject" -- FAILED. (TaskId:8) Done building target "Obfuscate" in project "AMK_Release.proj.teamcity.patch.tcprojx" -- FAILED.: (TargetId:12) Done Building Project "C:\Builds\Scripts\AMK_Release.proj.teamcity.patch.tcprojx" (All target(s)) -- FAILED. Project Performance Summary: 6535484 ms C:\Builds\Scripts\AMK_Release.proj.teamcity.patch.tcprojx 1 calls 6535484 ms All 1 calls Target Performance Summary: 156 ms PreClean 1 calls 266 ms SetBuildVersionNumber 1 calls 2406 ms CopyFiles 1 calls 6532391 ms Obfuscate 1 calls Task Performance Summary: 16 ms MakeDir 2 calls 31 ms TeamCitySetBuildNumber 1 calls 31 ms Message 1 calls 62 ms RemoveDir 2 calls 234 ms GetAssemblyIdentity 1 calls 2406 ms Copy 1 calls 6528047 ms VeilProject 1 calls Build FAILED. 0 Warning(s) 0 Error(s) Time Elapsed 01:48:57.46 [05:49:52]: Process exit code: 1 [05:49:55]: Build finished

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  • How can "today's date" be varied for unit testing purposes?

    - by ck
    I use VS2008 targetting .NET 2.0 Framework, and, just in case, no I can't change this :) I have a DateCalculator class. Its method GetNextExpirationDate attempts to determine the next expiration, internally using DateTime.Today as a baseline date. As I was writing unit tests, I realized that I wanted to test GetNextExpirationDate for different 'today' dates. What's the best way to do this? Here are some alternatives I've considered: Expose a property/overloaded method with argument baselineDate and only use it from the unit test. In actual client code, disregard the property/overloaded method in favour of the method that defaults baselineDate to DateTime.Today. I'm reluctant to do this as it makes the public interface of the DateCalculator class awkward. Create a protected field called baselineDate that is internally set to DateTime.Today. When testing, derive a DateCalculatorForTesting from DateCalculator and set baslineDate via the constructor. It keeps the public interface clean, but still isn't great - baselineDate was made protected and a derived class is required, both solely for testing. Use extension methods. I tried this after adding the ExtensionAttribute, then realized it wouldn't work because extension methods can't access private/protected variables. I initially thought this was really quite an elegant solution. :( I'd be interested in hearing what others think.

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  • Detecting Connection Speed / Bandwidth in .net/WCF

    - by Mystagogue
    I'm writing both client and server code using WCF, where I need to know the "perceived" bandwidth of traffic between the client and server. I could use ping statistics to gather this information separately, but I wonder if there is a way to configure the channel stack in WCF so that the same statistics can be gathered simultaneously while performing my web service invocations. This would be particularly useful in cases where ICMP is disabled (e.g. ping won't work). In short, while making my regular business-related web service calls (REST calls to be precise), is there a way to collect connection speed data implicitly? Certainly I could time the web service round trip, compared to the size of data used in the round-trip, to give me an idea of throughput - but I won't know how much of that perceived bandwidth was network related, or simply due to server-processing latency. I could perhaps solve that by having the server send back a time delta, representing server latency, so that the client can compute the actual network traffic time. If a more sophisticated approach is not available, that might be my answer...

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  • generating and unmarshalling java classes while unmarshalling input contains a DTD

    - by Hans Westerbeek
    Hi, For a Spring-based project, I have the following situation to solve: I have XML files coming in whose contents I will have to parse at runtime. Those XML files come with a DTD reference. I need to generate the classes that the unmarshaller churns out using the right at build time, using the Maven2 plugin for the unmarshalling library of choice. This is also not very hard to do, once I have generated an XSD from the DTD. I want to use spring-oxm's UnMarshaller interface to do the unmarshalling at runtime. This I understand how to do. The xml files come in with a DTD reference, and all unmarshalling libraries out there want to do unmarshalling based on an XSD. Now, as described in the castor documentation, I can convert the DTD to an XSD and keep it on the classpath. However, when an actual XML file comes into the system it will still have that DTD reference at the top, and there's nothing I can really do about that (except for string replacing which feels hacky in this case). Will this cause the unmarshaller, like Castor to fail? Am I right in suspecting that this DTD reference will cause the unmarshalling to fail? Could I do pure DTD-based unmarshalling? Or can this somehow be prevented by providing detailed configuration to the unmarshaller? Until now, I have tried castor, xmlbeans and xstream. Which would fit my purposes best? Has anyone else been in this situation? Did you also end up just doing manual DOM or SAX parsing?

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  • Printing a field with additional dots in haskell

    - by Frank Kluyt
    I'm writing a function called printField. This function takes an int and a string as arguments and then then prints a field like this "Derp..." with this: printField 7 "Derp". When the field consists of digits the output should be "...3456". The function I wrote looks like this: printField :: Int -> String -> String printField x y = if isDigit y then concat(replicate n ".") ++ y else y ++ concat(replicate n ".") where n = x - length y This obviously isn't working. The error I get from GHC is: Couldn't match type `[Char]' with `Char' Expected type: Char Actual type: String In the first argument of `isDigit', namely `y' In the expression: isDigit y In the expression: if isDigit y then concat (replicate n ".") ++ y else y ++ concat (replicate n ".") I can't get it to work :(. Can anyone help me out? Please keep in mind that I'm new to Haskell and functional programming in general.

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  • Do fluent interfaces significantly impact runtime performance of a .NET application?

    - by stakx
    I'm currently occupying myself with implementing a fluent interface for an existing technology, which would allow code similar to the following snippet: using (var directory = Open.Directory(@"path\to\some\directory")) { using (var file = Open.File("foobar.html").In(directory)) { // ... } } In order to implement such constructs, classes are needed that accumulate arguments and pass them on to other objects. For example, to implement the Open.File(...).In(...) construct, you would need two classes: // handles 'Open.XXX': public static class OpenPhrase { // handles 'Open.File(XXX)': public static OpenFilePhrase File(string filename) { return new OpenFilePhrase(filename); } // handles 'Open.Directory(XXX)': public static DirectoryObject Directory(string path) { // ... } } // handles 'Open.File(XXX).XXX': public class OpenFilePhrase { internal OpenFilePhrase(string filename) { _filename = filename } // handles 'Open.File(XXX).In(XXX): public FileObject In(DirectoryObject directory) { // ... } private readonly string _filename; } That is, the more constituent parts statements such as the initial examples have, the more objects need to be created for passing on arguments to subsequent objects in the chain until the actual statement can finally execute. Question: I am interested in some opinions: Does a fluent interface which is implemented using the above technique significantly impact the runtime performance of an application that uses it? With runtime performance, I refer to both speed and memory usage aspects. Bear in mind that a potentially large number of temporary, argument-saving objects would have to be created for only very brief timespans, which I assume may put a certain pressure on the garbage collector. If you think there is significant performance impact, do you know of a better way to implement fluent interfaces?

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  • Why doesn't gcc remove this check of a non-volatile variable?

    - by Thomas
    This question is mostly academic. I ask out of curiosity, not because this poses an actual problem for me. Consider the following incorrect C program. #include <signal.h> #include <stdio.h> static int running = 1; void handler(int u) { running = 0; } int main() { signal(SIGTERM, handler); while (running) ; printf("Bye!\n"); return 0; } This program is incorrect because the handler interrupts the program flow, so running can be modified at any time and should therefore be declared volatile. But let's say the programmer forgot that. gcc 4.3.3, with the -O3 flag, compiles the loop body (after one initial check of the running flag) down to the infinite loop .L7: jmp .L7 which was to be expected. Now we put something trivial inside the while loop, like: while (running) putchar('.'); And suddenly, gcc does not optimize the loop condition anymore! The loop body's assembly now looks like this (again at -O3): .L7: movq stdout(%rip), %rsi movl $46, %edi call _IO_putc movl running(%rip), %eax testl %eax, %eax jne .L7 We see that running is re-loaded from memory each time through the loop; it is not even cached in a register. Apparently gcc now thinks that the value of running could have changed. So why does gcc suddenly decide that it needs to re-check the value of running in this case?

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  • Problem pulling data from website in .NET and C#

    - by Cptcecil
    I have written a web scraping program to go to a list of pages and write all the html to a file. The problem is that when I pull a block of text some of the characters get written as '?'. How do I pull those characters into my text file? Here is my code: string baseUri = String.Format("http://www.rogersmushrooms.com/gallery/loadimage.asp?did={0}&blockName={1}", id.ToString(), name.Trim()); // our third request is for the actual webpage after the login. HttpWebRequest request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(baseUri); request.Method = "GET"; request.UserAgent = "Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 6.1)"; //get the response object, so that we may get the session cookie. HttpWebResponse response = (HttpWebResponse)request.GetResponse(); StreamReader reader = new StreamReader(response.GetResponseStream()); // and read the response string page = reader.ReadToEnd(); StreamWriter SW; string filename = string.Format("{0}.txt", id.ToString()); SW = File.AppendText("C:\\Share\\" + filename); SW.Write(page); reader.Close(); response.Close();

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  • Assembly unavailable after Web.config change

    - by tags2k
    I'm using a custom framework that uses reflection to do a GetTypeByName(string fullName) on the fully-qualified type name that it gets from the database, to create an instance of said type and add it to the page, resulting in a standard modular kind of thing. GetTypeByName is a utility function of mine that simply iterates through Thread.GetDomain().GetAssemblies(), then performs an assembly.GetType(fullName) to find the relevant type. Obviously this result gets cached for future reference and speed. However, I'm experiencing some issues whereby if the web.config gets updated (and, in some scarier instances if the application pool gets recycled) then it will lose all knowledge of certain assemblies, resulting in the inability to render an instance of the module type. Debugging shows that the missing assembly literally does not exist in the current thread assemblies list. To get around this I added a second check which is a bit dirty but recurses through the /bin/ directory's DLLs and checks that each one exists in the assemblies list. If it doesn't, it loads it using Assembly.Load and fixing the context issue thanks to 'Solving the Assembly Load Context Problem'. This would work, only it seems that (and I'm aware this shouldn't be possible) some projects still have access to the missing assembly, for example my actual web project rather than the framework itself - and it then complains that duplicate references have been added! Has anyone ever heard of anything like this, or have any ideas why an assembly would simply drop out of existence on a config change? Short of a solution, what is the most elegant workaround to get all the assemblies in the bin to reload? It needs to be all in one "hit" so that the site visitors don't see any difference other than a small delay, so an app_offline.htm file is out of the question. Programatically renaming a DLL in the bin and then naming it back does work, but requires "modify" permissions for the IIS user account, which is insane. Thanks for any pointers the community can gather!

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  • Rhinomocks DynamicMock question

    - by epitka
    My dynamic mock behaves as Parial mock, meaning it executes the actual code when called. Here are the ways I tried it var mockProposal = _mockRepository.DynamicMock<BidProposal>(); SetupResult.For(mockProposal.CreateMarketingPlan(null, null, null)).IgnoreArguments().Repeat.Once().Return( copyPlan); //Expect.Call(mockProposal.CreateMarketingPlan(null, null, null)).IgnoreArguments().Repeat.Once().Return( // copyPlan); // mockProposal.Expect(x => x.CreateMarketingPlan(null, null, null)).IgnoreArguments().Return(copyPlan).Repeat.Once(); Instead of just returning what I expect it runs the code in the method CreateMarketingPlan Here is the error: System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at Policy.Entities.MarketingPlan.SetMarketingPlanName(MarketingPlanDescription description) in MarketingPlan.cs: line 76 at Policy.Entities.MarketingPlan.set_MarketingPlanDescription(MarketingPlanDescription value) in MarketingPlan.cs: line 91 at Policy.Entities.MarketingPlan.Create(PPOBenefits ppoBenefits, MarketingPlanDescription marketingPlanDescription, MarketingPlanType marketingPlanType) in MarketingPlan.cs: line 23 at Policy.Entities.BidProposal.CreateMarketingPlan(PPOBenefits ppoBenefits, MarketingPlanDescription marketingPlanDescription, MarketingPlanType marketingPlanType) in BidProposal.cs: line 449 at Tests.Policy.Services.MarketingPlanCopyServiceTests.can_copy_MarketingPlan_with_all_options() in MarketingPlanCopyServiceTests.cs: line 32 Update: I figured out what it was. Method was not "virtual" so it could not be mocked because non-virtual methods cannot be proxied.

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