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  • ASP.NET Event delegation between user controls

    - by Ishan
    Give the following control hierarchy on a ASP.NET page: Page HeaderControl       (User Control) TitleControl       (Server Control) TabsControl       (User Control) other controls I'm trying to raise an event (or some notification) in the TitleControl that bubbles to the Page level. Then, I'd like to (optionally) register an event handler at the Page codebehind that will take the EventArgs and modify the TabsControl in the example above. The important thing to note is that this design will allow me to drop these controls into any Page and make the entire system work seamlessly if the event handler is wired up. The solution should not involve a call to FindControl() since that becomes a strong association. If no handler is defined in the containing Page, the event is still raised by TitleControl but is not handled. My basic goal is to use event-based programming so that I can decouple the user controls from each other. The event from TitleControl is only raised in some instances, and this seemed to be (in my head) the preferred approach. However, I can't seem to find a way to cleanly achieve this. Here are my (poor) attempts: Using HttpContext.Current.Items Add the EventArgs to the Items collection on TitleControl and pick it up on the TabsControl. This works but it's fundamentally hard to decipher since the connection between the two controls is not obvious. Using Reflection Instead of passing events, look for a function on the container Page directly within TitleControl as in: Page.GetType().GetMethod("TabControlHandler").Invoke(Page, EventArgs); This will work, but the method name will have to be a constant that all Page instances will have to defined verbatim. I'm sure that I'm over-thinking this and there must be a prettier solution using delegation, but I can't seem to think of it. Any thoughts?

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  • ObjectContext disposed puzzle

    - by jaklucky
    Hi, I have the follwing method. public List<MyEntity> GetMyEntities(MyObjectContext objCtx) { using(MyObjectContext ctx = objCtx ?? new MyObjectContext()) { retun ctx.MyEntities.ToList(); } } The idea is, user of this method can pass in the objectcontext if they have. If not then a new objectcontext will be created. If I am passing an object context to it, then it is getting disposed after the method is done. I was expecting only "ctx" variable gets disposed. If I write a small app, to know the using and dispose mechanism. It is acting differently. class TestClass : IDisposable { public int Number { get; set; } public string Str { get; set; } public ChildClass Child { get; set; } #region IDisposable Members public void Dispose() { Console.WriteLine("Disposed is called"); } #endregion } class ChildClass : IDisposable { public string StrChild { get; set; } #region IDisposable Members public void Dispose() { Console.WriteLine("Child Disposed is called"); } #endregion } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { TestClass test = null; test = new TestClass(); test.Child = new ChildClass(); using (TestClass test1 = test ?? new TestClass()) { test1.Number = 1; test1.Str = "hi"; test1.Child.StrChild = "Child one"; test1.Child.Dispose(); } test.Str = "hi"; test.Child.StrChild = "hi child"; Console.ReadLine(); } } In this example, "test1"gets disposed but not "test". Where as in the first case both ctx and objCtx get disposed. Any ideas what is happening here with objectContext? Thank you, Suresh

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  • performSelectorInBackground: using self.object ?

    - by Emil
    Hey. I am trying to load an image for a custom tableViewCell. The code gets run from the CustomCell-class (CustomCell.h) from [cell performSelectorInBackground:@selector(loadImageFromURL:) withObject:[NSURL URLWithString:urlString]]; in the cellForRowAtIndexPath:-function. Cell gets created here: CustomCell *cell = (CustomCell *) [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil){ NSArray *topLevelObjects = [[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:@"CustomCell" owner:self options:nil]; for (id currentObject in topLevelObjects){ if ([currentObject isKindOfClass:[CustomCell class]]){ cell = (CustomCell *) currentObject; break; } } } CustomCell.h: // ... IBOutlet UIImageView *cellImage; } - (void) loadImageFromURL:(NSURL *)url; // … CustomCell.m: - (void) loadImageFromURL:(NSURL *)url { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; NSLog(@"Loading image..."); [loadingImage startAnimating]; [self.cellImage setImageWithURL:url]; [loadingImage stopAnimating]; NSLog(@"Done loading image..."); [pool release]; } setImageWithURL: is a function from the SDWebImage-framework that rs has made. The real error is that the image doesen't show up. EDIT: When I cleared the app's cache, the images didn't show up anymore. EDIT: Seems like URL is nil for some reason. Am I passing the object in the selector correctly? Can you see anything wrong? Thanks.

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  • WCF Service instead of ASMX Web Service?

    - by wchrisjohnson
    I'm writing a SOAP Server that will act as an endpoint for an external client. The external client expects SOAP 1.1. I'll be taking embedded business objects in the SOAP messages and passing them to an internal application, getting responses back and responding with SOAP messages to the eternal client. I did the traditional ASMX based web services several years ago. Now, I've been exploring WCF Services and wondering the best approach to take. 1) Should WCF be considered a superset of ASMX web services? 2) Is there any reason to still write new web services using ASMX instead of WCF? 3) Does WCF provide better facilities for working with SOAP messages, as opposed to SOAP Extensions? 4) Can I restrict communication to SOAP 1.1 using WCF, the way I can with a web.config change in ASMX? 5) Does WCF have an easy way to log or review the requests that hit the service without resorting to something like SOAP extensions? Sorry my questions are not very specific; still trying to get handle on what I need to know... Using VS2008, Windows Server 2008. Chris

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  • CascadingDropDown taking two parameters...

    - by WeeShian
    I have a page with 3 dropdownlist, 2nd and 3rd dropdownlist are added with CascadingDropDown. 3rd dropdownlist will take parameters from 1st and 2nd dropdownlist. So, in current example for CascadingDropDown i have found from google, they are only passing one parameter to the WebService method. How can pass two parameters to the service method, so that my 3rd dropdownlist will based on the SelectedValue of 1st and 2nd dropdownlist? <WebMethod()> _ Public Function GetTeams(ByVal knownCategoryValues As String, ByVal category As String) As CascadingDropDownNameValue() Dim strConnection As String = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings("nerdlinessConnection").ConnectionString Dim sqlConn As SqlConnection = New SqlConnection(strConnection) Dim strTeamQuery As String = "SELECT * FROM TEAM WHERE conf_id = @confid" Dim cmdFetchTeam As SqlCommand = New SqlCommand(strTeamQuery, sqlConn) Dim dtrTeam As SqlDataReader Dim kvTeam As StringDictionary = CascadingDropDown.ParseKnownCategoryValuesString(knownCategoryValues) Dim intConfId As Integer If Not kvTeam.ContainsKey("Conference") Or Not Int32.TryParse(kvTeam("Conference"), intConfId) Then Return Nothing End If cmdFetchTeam.Parameters.AddWithValue("@confid", intConfId) Dim myTeams As New List(Of CascadingDropDownNameValue) sqlConn.Open() dtrTeam = cmdFetchTeam.ExecuteReader While dtrTeam.Read() Dim strTeamName As String = dtrTeam("team_name").ToString Dim strTeamId As String = dtrTeam("team_id").ToString myTeams.Add(New CascadingDropDownNameValue(strTeamName, strTeamId)) End While Return myTeams.ToArray End Function This is the sample code i found! As you can see in the code, '@confid' will be passed from 2nd dropdownlist! So, hw do i modify this code to get the selected value from 1st dropdownlist as well??

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  • Formatting Parameters for Ajax POST request to Rails Controller - for jQuery-UI sortable list

    - by Hung Luu
    I'm using the jQuery-UI Sortable Connected Lists. I'm saving the order of the connected lists to a Rails server. My approach is to grab the list ID, column ID and index position of each list item. I want to then wrap this into an object that can be passed as a parameter back to the Rails Controller to be saved into the database. So ideally i'm looking to format the parameter like this: Parameters: {"Activity"=>[{id:1,column:2,position:1},{id:2,column:2,position:2} ,...]} How do I properly format my parameters to be passed in this Ajax POST request? Right now, with the approach below, I'm passing on Parameters: {"undefined"=>""} This is my current jQuery code (Coffeescript) which doesn't work: jQuery -> $('[id*="day"]').sortable( connectWith: ".day" placeholder: "ui-state-highlight" update: (event, ui) -> neworder = new Array() $('[id*="day"] > li').each -> column = $(this).attr("id") index = ui.item.index() + 1 id = $("#" + column + " li:nth-child(" + index + ") ").attr('id') passObject={} passObject.id = id passObject.column = column passObject.index = index neworder.push(passObject) alert neworder $.ajax url: "sort" type: "POST" data: neworder ).disableSelection() My apologies because this seems like a really amateur question but I'm just getting started with programming jQuery and Javascript.

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  • subtotals in columns usind reshape2 in R

    - by user1043144
    I have spent some time now learning RESHAPE2 and plyr but I still do not get it. This time I have a problem with (a) subtotals and (b) passing different aggregate functions . Here an example using data from the excellent tutorial on the blog of mrdwab http://news.mrdwab.com/ # libraries library(plyr) library(reshape2) # get data and add few more variables book.sales = read.csv("http://news.mrdwab.com/data-booksales") book.sales$Stock = book.sales$Quantity + 10 book.sales$SubjCat[(book.sales$Subject == 'Economics') | (book.sales$Subject == 'Management') ] <- '1_EconSciences' book.sales$SubjCat[book.sales$Subject %in% c('Anthropology', 'Politics', 'Sociology') ] <- '2_SocSciences' book.sales$SubjCat[book.sales$Subject %in% c('Communication', 'Fiction', 'History', 'Research', 'Statistics') ] <- '3_other' # to get to my starting dataframe (close to the project I am working on) book.sales1 <- ddply(book.sales, c('Region', 'Representative', 'SubjCat', 'Subject', 'Publisher'), summarize, Stock = sum(Stock), Sold = sum(Quantity), Ratio = round((100 * sum(Quantity)/ sum(Stock)), digits = 1)) #melt it m.book.sales = melt(data = book.sales1, id.vars = c('Region', 'Representative', 'SubjCat', 'Subject', 'Publisher'), measured.vars = c('Stock', 'Sold', 'Ratio')) # cast it Tab1 <- dcast(data = m.book.sales, formula = Region + Representative ~ Publisher + variable, fun.aggregate = sum, margins = c('Region', 'Representative')) Now my questions : I have been able to add the subtotals in rows. But is it possible also to add margins in the columns. Say for example, Totals of Stock for one Publisher ? Sorry I meant to say example total sold for all publishers There is a problem with the columns with “ratio”. How can I get “mean” instead of “sum” for this variable ? P.S: I have seen some examples using reshape. Will you recommend to use it instead of reshape2 (which seems not to include the functionalities of two functions).

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  • How to get the ui:param value in Javabean

    - by mihaela
    Hello, I am learning facelets and Seam and I'm facing the following problem: I'm have 2 xhtml files, one includes the other and each one has its own Seam component as backing bean. I want to send and object to the included facelet and obtain that object in the backing bean corresponding to the included facelet. I'll take an example to explain better the situation: registration.xhtml with Seam component as backing bean Registration.java. In this class I have an object of type Person address.html with Seam component as backing bean Address.java. In this class i want to obtain the Person object from the Registration component and set the address. registration.xhtml includes the address.xhtml and passes an object using How to obtain this object in Address bean? Will be the same reference of the object from the Registration bean? is the solution of passing this object or there is another solution for that? (maybe f:attribute, but even in this case how do I obtain the object in bean) This example is simple and not necessarily realistic but I have a similar problem and I don't know how to solve it. Thanks in advance.

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  • How to avoid using this in a constructor

    - by Paralife
    I have this situation: interface MessageListener { void onMessageReceipt(Message message); } class MessageReceiver { MessageListener listener; public MessageReceiver(MessageListener listener, other arguments...) { this.listener = listener; } loop() { Message message = nextMessage(); listener.onMessageReceipt(message); } } and I want to avoid the following pattern: (Using the this in the Client constructor) class Client implements MessageListener { MessageReceiver receiver; MessageSender sender; public Client(...) { receiver = new MessageReceiver(this, other arguments...); sender = new Sender(...); } . . . @Override public void onMessageReceipt(Message message) { if(Message.isGood()) sender.send("Congrtulations"); else sender.send("Boooooooo"); } } The reason why i need the above functionality is because i want to call the sender inside the onMessageReceipt() function, for example to send a reply. But I dont want to pass the sender into a listener, so the only way I can think of is containing the sender in a class that implements the listener, hence the above resulting Client implementation. Is there a way to achive this without the use of 'this' in the constructor? It feels bizare and i dont like it, since i am passing myself to an object(MessageReceiver) before I am fully constructed. On the other hand, the MessageReceiver is not passed from outside, it is constructed inside, but does this 'purifies' the bizarre pattern? I am seeking for an alternative or an assurance of some kind that this is safe, or situations on which it might backfire on me.

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  • Appending data to NSFetchedResultsController during find or create loop

    - by Justin Williams
    I have a table view that is managed by an NSFetchedResultsController. I am having an issue with a find-or-create operation, however. When the user hits the bottom of my table view, I am querying my server for another batch of content. If it doesn't exist in the local cache, we create it and store it. If it does exist, however, I want to append that data to the fetched results controller and display it. I can't quite figure that part out. Here's what I'm doing thus far: Passing the returned array of values from my server to an NSOperation to process. In the operation, create a new managed object context to work with. In the operation, I iterate through the array and execute a fetch request to see if the object exists (based on its server id). If the object doesn't exist, we create it and insert it into the operations' managed object context. After the iteration completes, we save the managed object context, which triggers a merge notification on my main thread. At this point, any objects that weren't locally cached in my Core Data store before will appear, but the ones that previously existed do not come along for the ride. I feel like it's something simple I'm missing, and could use a nudge in the right direction.

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  • Why an auto_ptr can "seal" a container

    - by icephere
    auto_ptr on wikipedia said that "an auto_ptr containing an STL container may be used to prevent further modification of the container.". It used the following example: auto_ptr<vector<ContainedType> > open_vec(new vector<ContainedType>); open_vec->push_back(5); open_vec->push_back(3); // Transfers control, but now the vector cannot be changed: auto_ptr<const vector<ContainedType> > closed_vec(open_vec); // closed_vec->push_back(8); // Can no longer modify If I uncomment the last line, g++ will report an error as t05.cpp:24: error: passing ‘const std::vector<int, std::allocator<int> >’ as ‘this’ argument of ‘void std::vector<_Tp, _Alloc>::push_back(const _Tp&) [with _Tp = int, _Alloc = std::allocator<int>]’ discards qualifiers I am curious why after transferring the ownership of this vector, it can no longer be modified? Thanks a lot!

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  • How do I use Perl's WWW::Facebook::API to publish to a user's newsfeed?

    - by Russell C.
    We use Facebook Connect on our site in conjunction with the WWW::Facebook::API CPAN module to publish to our users newsfeed when requested by the user. So far we've been able to successfully update the user's status using the following code: use WWW::Facebook::API; my $facebook = WWW::Facebook::API->new( desktop => 0, api_key => $fb_api_key, secret => $fb_secret, session_key => $query->cookie($fb_api_key.'_session_key'), session_expires => $query->cookie($fb_api_key.'_expires'), session_uid => $query->cookie($fb_api_key.'_user') ); my $response = $facebook->stream->publish( message => qq|Test status message|, ); However, when we try to update the code above so we can publish newsfeed stories that include attachments and action links as specified in the Facebook API documentation for Stream.Publish, we have tried about 100 different ways without any success. According to the CPAN documentation all we should have to do is update our code to something like the following and pass the attachments & action links appropriately which doesn't seem to work: my $response = $facebook->stream->publish( message => qq|Test status message|, attachment => $json, action_links => [@links], ); For example, we are passing the above arguments as follows: $json = qq|{ 'name': 'i\'m bursting with joy', 'href': ' http://bit.ly/187gO1', 'caption': '{*actor*} rated the lolcat 5 stars', 'description': 'a funny looking cat', 'properties': { 'category': { 'text': 'humor', 'href': 'http://bit.ly/KYbaN'}, 'ratings': '5 stars' }, 'media': [{ 'type': 'image', 'src': 'http://icanhascheezburger.files.wordpress.com/2009/03/funny-pictures-your-cat-is-bursting-with-joy1.jpg', 'href': 'http://bit.ly/187gO1'}] }|; @links = ["{'text':'Link 1', 'href':'http://www.link1.com'}","{'text':'Link 2', 'href':'http://www.link2.com'}"]; The above, nor any of the other representations we tried seem to work. I'm hoping some other perl developer out there has this working and can explain how to create the attachment and action_links variables appropriately in Perl for posting to the Facebook news feed through WWW::Facebook::API. Thanks in advance for your help!

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  • Creating foreach loops using Code Igniter controller and view

    - by Tim
    Hello, This is a situation I have found myself in a few times and I just want clear it up once and for all. Best just to show you what I need to do in some example code. My Controller function my_controller() { $id = $this->uri->segment(3); $this->db->from('cue_sheets'); $this->db->where('id', $id); $data['get_cue_sheets'] = $this->db->get(); $this->db->from('clips'); $this->db->where('sheet_id', ' CUE SHEET ID GOES IN HERE ??? '); $data['get_clips'] = $this->db->get(); $this->load->view('show_sheets_and_clips', $data); } My View <?php if($get_cue_sheets->result_array()) { ?> <?php foreach($get_cue_sheets->result_array() as $sheetRow): ?> <h1><?php echo $sheetRow['sheet_name']; ?></h1> <br/> <?php if($get_clips->result_array()) { ?> <ul> <?php foreach($get_clips->result_array() as $clipRow): ?> <li><?php echo $clipRow['clip_name']; ?></li> <?php endforeach; ?> </ul> <?php } else { echo 'No Clips Found'; } ?> <?php endforeach; ?> <?php } ?> The problem I am having is the concept of passing data back to the controller from the view as I am sending the Database Queries off to the view as an array, when I really need to get some more information as to which sheet ID I am looking for to show the relevant clips. I hope this makes sense to someone out there. Thanks, Tim

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  • Getting the first result from a LINQ query - why does ElementAt<T>(0) fails when First<T>() succeeds

    - by Mr Roys
    I have a method AddStudent() which looks for a student with the same name and returns an existing student from the database if there is a student with the same name, otherwise it creates a new student and adds it to the database. I'm curious why se = students.First<StudentEntity>(); succeeds when se = students.ElementAt<StudentEntity>(0); fails when I try to get the first result from the LINQ query. Aren't the two methods the same? The full code for the method is shown below. public Student AddStudent(string name) { using (SchoolEntities db = new SchoolEntities()) { // find student with same name via LINQ var students = from s in db.StudentEntitySet where s.name == name select s; StudentEntity se = default(StudentEntity); // if student with the same name is already present, return // that student if (students.Count<StudentEntity>() > 0) { // if i use ElementAt, if fails with a "LINQ to Entities does not // recognize the method 'StudentEntity ElementAt[StudentEntity] // (System.Linq.IQueryable`1[StudentEntity], Int32)' method, // and this method cannot be translated into a store expression.", // but not when I use First. Why? // se = students.ElementAt<StudentEntity>(0); se = students.First<StudentEntity>(); } else { // passing 0 for first parameter (id) since it's represented by // a BigInt IDENTITY field in the database so any value // doesn't matter. se = StudentEntity.CreateStudentEntity(0, name); db.AddToStudentEntitySet(se); db.SaveChanges(); } // create a Student object from the Entity object return new Student(se); } } Thanks!

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  • Intent.putExtras not consistent

    - by martinjd
    I have a weird situation with AlarmManager. I am scheduling an event with AlarmManager and passing in a string using intent.putExtra. The string is either silent or vibrate and when the receiver fires the phone should either turn of the ringer or set the phone to vibrate. The log statement correctly outputs the expected value each time. Intent intent; if (eventType.equals("start")) { intent = new Intent(context, SReceiver.class); } else { intent = new Intent(context, EReceiver.class); } intent.setAction(eventType+Long.toString(newId)); Log.v("EditQT",ringerModeType.toUpperCase()); intent.putExtra("ringerModeType", ringerModeType.toUpperCase()); PendingIntent appIntent = PendingIntent.getBroadcast(context, 0, intent, 0); AlarmManager alarmManager = (AlarmManager) getSystemService (Context.ALARM_SERVICE); alarmManager.set(AlarmManager.RTC_WAKEUP, calendar.getTimeInMillis(), appIntent); The receiver that fires when the alarm executes also has a log statement and I can see the first time around that the statement outputs the expected string either SILENT or VIBRATE. The alarm executes and then I change the value for putExtra to opposite string and the receiver still displays the previous value event though the call from the code above shows that the new value was passed in. The value for setAction is the same each time. audioManager = (AudioManager) context.getSystemService(Activity.AUDIO_SERVICE); Log.v("Start",intent.getExtras().get("ringerModeType").toString()); if (intent.getExtras().get("ringerModeType").equals("SILENTMODE")) { audioManager.setRingerMode(AudioManager.RINGER_MODE_SILENT); } else { audioManager.setRingerMode(AudioManager.RINGER_MODE_VIBRATE); } Any thoughts?

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  • Simplest way to handle and display errors in a Python Pylons controller without a helper class

    - by ensnare
    I have a class User() that throw exceptions when attributes are incorrectly set. I am currently passing the exceptions from the models through the controller to the templates by essentially catching exceptions two times for each variable. Is this a correct way of doing it? Is there a better (but still simple) way? I prefer not to use any third party error or form handlers due to the extensive database queries we already have in place in our classes. Furthermore, how can I "stop" the chain of processing in the class if one of the values is invalid? Is there like a "break" syntax or something? Thanks. >>> u = User() >>> u.name = 'Jason Mendez' >>> u.password = '1234' Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> File "topic/model/user.py", line 79, in password return self._password ValueError: Your password must be greater than 6 characters In my controller "register," I have: class RegisterController(BaseController): def index(self): if request.POST: c.errors = {} u = User() try: u.name = c.name = request.POST['name'] except ValueError, error: c.errors['name'] = error try: u.email = c.email = request.POST['email'] except ValueError, error: c.errors['email'] = error try: u.password = c.password = request.POST['password'] except ValueError, error: c.errors['password'] = error try: u.commit() except ValueError, error: pass return render('/register.mako')

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  • How to Persist URL parameters when CakePHP form validation fails

    - by am2605
    Hi, I'm new to cakephp and trying to write a simple app with it, however I'm stuck with some form validation issues. I have a model named "Person" which hasMany "PersonSkill" objects. To add a "PersonSkill" to a person, I have set it up to call a url like this: http://localhost/myapp/person_skills/add/person_id:3 I have been passing through the person_id because I want to display the name of the person we are adding the skills for. My issue is if the validation fails, the person_id parameter is not persisted to the next request, so the person's name is not displayed. The add method on the controller looks like this: function add() { if (!empty($this->data)) { if ($this->PersonSkill->save($this->data)) { $this->Session->setFlash('Your person has been saved.'); $this->redirect(array('action' => 'view', 'id' => $this->PersonSkill->id)); } } else { $this->Person->id = $this->params['named']['person_id']; $this->set('person', $this->Person->read()); } } In my person_skill add.ctp I set a hidden field which holds the person_id, eg: echo $form->input('person_id', array('type'=>'hidden','value'=>$person['Person']['id'])); Is there a way to persist the person_id url parameter when form validation fails, or is there a better way to do this that I'm missing completely? Any advice would be greatly appreciated.

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  • How to handle pagination queries properly with mongodb and php?

    - by luckytaxi
    Am I doing this right? I went to look at some old PHP code w/ MySQL and I've managed to get it to work, however I'm wondering if there's a much "cleaner" and "faster" way of accomplishing this. First I would need to get the total number of "documents" $total_documents = $collection->find(array("tags" => $tag, "seeking" => $this->session->userdata('gender'), "gender" => $this->session->userdata('seeking')))->count(); $skip = (int)($docs_per_page * ($page - 1)); $limit = $docs_per_page; $total_pages = ceil($total_documents / $limit); // Query to populate array so I can display with pagination $data['result'] = $collection->find(array("tags" => $tag, "seeking" => $this->session->userdata('gender'), "gender" => $this->session->userdata('seeking')))->limit($limit)->skip($skip)->sort(array("_id" => -1)); My question is, can I run the query in one shot? I'm basically running the same query twice, except the second time I'm passing the value to skip between records.

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  • [Perl] Testing for EAGAIN / EWOULDBLOCK on a recv

    - by Robert S. Barnes
    I'm testing a socket to see if it's still open: my $dummy = ''; my $ret = recv($sock, $dummy, 1, MSG_DONTWAIT | MSG_PEEK); if (!defined $ret || (length($dummy) == 0 && $! != EAGAIN && $! != EWOULDBLOCK )) { logerr("Broken pipe? ".__LINE__." $!"); } else { # socket still connected, reuse logerr(__LINE__.": $!"); return $sock; } I'm passing this code a socket I know for certain is open and it's always going through the first branch and logging "Broken pipe? 149 Resource temporarily unavailable". I don't understand how this is happening since "Resource temporarily unavailable" is supposed to correspond to EAGAIN as far as I know. I'm sure there must be something simple I'm missing. And yes, I know this is not a full proof way to test and I account for that.

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  • C# and SQL - sub select from a table parameter

    - by Dr.HappyPants
    Below is a code snippet for passing a table as a parameter to a query that can be used in Sql Server 2008. I'm confused though about the "SELECT id.custid FROM @custids id". Why does it use id.custid and @custids id...? private static void datatable_example() { string [] custids = {"ALFKI", "BONAP", "CACTU", "FRANK"}; DataTable custid_list = new DataTable(); custid_list.Columns.Add("custid", typeof(String)); foreach (string custid in custids) { DataRow dr = custid_list.NewRow(); dr["custid"] = custid; custid_list.Rows.Add(dr); } using(SqlConnection cn = setup_connection()) { using(SqlCommand cmd = cn.CreateCommand()) { cmd.CommandText = @"SELECT C.CustomerID, C.CompanyName FROM Northwind.dbo.Customers C WHERE C.CustomerID IN (SELECT id.custid FROM @custids id)"; cmd.CommandType = CommandType.Text; cmd.Parameters.Add("@custids", SqlDbType.Structured); cmd.Parameters["@custids"].Direction = ParameterDirection.Input; cmd.Parameters["@custids"].TypeName = "custid_list_tbltype"; cmd.Parameters["@custids"].Value = custid_list; using (SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter(cmd)) using (DataSet ds = new DataSet()) { da.Fill(ds); PrintDataSet(ds); } } }

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  • C# .NET : Is using the .NET Image Conversion enough?

    - by contactmatt
    I've seen a lot of people try to code their own image conversion techniques. It often seems to be very complicated, and ends up using GDI+ funciton calls, and manipulating bits of the image. This has got me wondering if I am missing something in the simplicity of .NET's image conversion call when saving an image. Here's the code I have Bitmap tempBmp = new Bitmap("c:\temp\img.jpg"); Bitmap bmp = new Bitmap(tempBmp, 800, 600); bmp.Save(c:\temp\img.bmp, //extension depends on format ImageFormat.Bmp) //These are all the ImageFormats I allow conversion to within the program. Ignore the syntax for a second ;) ImageFormat.Gif) //or ImageFormat.Jpeg) //or ImageFormat.Png) //or ImageFormat.Tiff) //or ImageFormat.Wmf) //or ImageFormat.Bmp)//or ); This is all I'm doing in my image conversion. Just setting the location of where the image should be saved, and passing it an ImageFormat type. I've tested it the best I can, but I'm wondering if I am missing anything in this simple format conversion, or if this is suffice?

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  • How to add custom header to ASMX web service call using jquery?

    - by Mike
    I have a web service with the following contract: POST /Service/service.asmx HTTP/1.1 Host: xxx.xxx.xxx Content-Type: text/xml; charset=utf-8 Content-Length: length SOAPAction: "xxx.xxx.xxx/Service/Method" <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <soap:Envelope xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:soap="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/"> <soap:Header> <Request xmlns="xxx.xxx.xxx/Service/"> <transactiontype>string</transactiontype> <username>string</username> <password>string</password> </Request> </soap:Header> <soap:Body> <Method xmlns="xxx.xxx.xxx/Service/"> <xml>xml</xml> </Method> </soap:Body> </soap:Envelope> And I am trying to call the service using jquery. This is my code: $.ajax({ url: serverUrl + 'Method', type: "POST", dataType: "xml", data: { xml: "xml" }, beforeSend: function (req) { req.setRequestHeader('Header', '<Request xmlns="xxx.xxx.xxx/Service/">' +'<transactiontype>4</transactiontype>' +'<agencyName>name</agencyName>' +'<username>user</username>' +'<password>pass</password>' +'</Request>'); }, success: function (data) { alert(data.text); }, error: function (request, status, errorThrown) { alert(status); } }); However, the header content is not passed to the web service? How would I go about passing the header credentials to my web service call?

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  • Techniques for sharing a value among classes in a program

    - by Kenneth Cochran
    I'm using Environment.GetFolderPath(Environment.SpecialFolder.CommonApplicationData) + "\MyProgram" As the path to store several files used by my program. I'd like to avoid pasting the same snippet of code all over the my applcation. I need to ensure that: The path cannot be accidentally changed once its been set The classes that need it have access to it. I've considered: Making it a singleton Using constructor dependency injection Using property dependency injection Using AOP to create the path where its needed. Each has pros and cons. The singleton is everyone's favorite whipping boy. I'm not opposed to using one but there are valid reasons to avoid it if possible. I'm already heavily using constructor injection through Castle Windsor. But this is a path string and Windsor doesn't handle system type dependencies very gracefully. I could always wrap it in a class but that seems like overkill for something as simple as a passing around a string value. In any case this route would add yet another constructor argument to each class where it is used. The problem I see with property injection in this case is that there is a large amount of indirection from the where the value is set to where it is needed. I would need a very long line of middlemen to reach all the places where its used. AOP looks promising and I'm planning on using AOP for logging anyway so this at least sounds like a simple solution. Is there any other options I haven't considered? Am I off base with my evaluation of the options I have considered?

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  • How do I animate UserControl objects using Storyboard and DoubleAnimation?

    - by Neo
    In my WPF application, I have a Canvas object that contains some UserControl objects. I wish to animate the UserControl objects within the Canvas using DoubleAnimation so that they go from the right of the Canvas to the left of the Canvas. This is how I have done it so far (by passing the UserControl objects into the function): private void Animate(FrameworkElement e) { DoubleAnimation ani = new DoubleAnimation() { From = _container.ActualWidth, To = 0.0, Duration = new Duration(new TimeSpan(0, 0, 10), TargetElement = e }; TranslateTransform trans = new TranslateTransform(); e.RenderTransform = trans; trans.BeginAnimation(TranslateTransform.XProperty, ani, HandoffBehavior.Compose); } However, this doesn't allow me to pause the animation, so I have considered using a Storyboard instead to do this, but I'm not sure how to implement this. This has been my attempt so far: private void Animate(FrameworkElement e) { DoubleAnimation ani = new DoubleAnimation() { From = _container.ActualWidth, To = 0.0, Duration = new Duration(new TimeSpan(0, 0, 10), TargetElement = e }; Storyboard stb = new Storyboard(); Storyboard.SetTarget(ani, e); Storyboard.SetTargetProperty(ani, "Left"); stb.Children.Add(ani); stb.Begin(); } Of course, this fails as UserControl doesn't have a Left property. How can I achieve what I'm after? Thanks.

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  • is it possible to turn off vdso on glibc side?

    - by heroxbd
    I am aware that passing vdso=0 to kernel can turn this feature off, and that the dynamic linker in glibc can automatic detect and use vdso feature from kernel. Here I met with this problem. There is a RHEL 5.6 box (kernel 2.6.18-238.el5) in my institution where I only have a normal user access, probably suffering from RHEL bug 673616. As I compile a toolchain of linux-headers-3.9/gcc-4.7.2/glibc-2.17/binutils-2.23 on top of it, gcc bootstrap fails in cc1 in stage2 cannnot be run Program received signal SIGSEGV, Segmentation fault. 0x00002aaaaaaca6eb in ?? () (gdb) info sharedlibrary From To Syms Read Shared Object Library 0x00002aaaaaaabba0 0x00002aaaaaac3249 Yes (*) /home/benda/gnto/lib64/ld-linux-x86-64.so.2 0x00002aaaaacd29b0 0x00002aaaaace2480 Yes (*) /home/benda/gnto/usr/lib/libmpc.so.3 0x00002aaaaaef2cd0 0x00002aaaaaf36c08 Yes (*) /home/benda/gnto/usr/lib/libmpfr.so.4 0x00002aaaab14f280 0x00002aaaab19b658 Yes (*) /home/benda/gnto/usr/lib/libgmp.so.10 0x00002aaaab3b3060 0x00002aaaab3b3b50 Yes (*) /home/benda/gnto/lib/libdl.so.2 0x00002aaaab5b87b0 0x00002aaaab5c4bb0 Yes (*) /home/benda/gnto/usr/lib/libz.so.1 0x00002aaaab7d0e70 0x00002aaaab80f62c Yes (*) /home/benda/gnto/lib/libm.so.6 0x00002aaaaba70d40 0x00002aaaabb81aec Yes (*) /home/benda/gnto/lib/libc.so.6 (*): Shared library is missing debugging information. and a simple program #include <sys/time.h> #include <stdio.h> int main () { struct timeval tim; gettimeofday(&tim, NULL); return 0; } get segment fault in the same way if compiled against glibc-2.17 and xgcc from stage1. Both cc1 and the test program can be run on another running RHEL 5.5 (kernel 2.6.18-194.26.1.el5) with gcc-4.7.2/glibc-2.17/binutils-2.23 as normal user. I cannot simply upgrade the box to a newer RHEL version, nor could I turn VDSO off via sysctl or proc. The question is, is there a way to compile glibc so that it turns off VDSO unconditionally?

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