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  • Rolling Back a Transaction with MySQL Connector in VB.net

    - by Jonathan
    Hey all- I have one multi-row INSERT statement (300 or so sets of values) that I would like to commit to the MySQL database in an all-or-nothing fashion. insert into table VALUES (1, 2, 3), (4, 5, 6), (7, 8, 9); In some cases, a set of values in the command will not meet the criteria of the table (duplicate key, for example). When that happens I do not want any of the previous sets added to the database. I've implemented this with the following code, however, my rollback command doesn't appear to be making a difference. I've used this documentation: http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.0/es/connector-net-examples-mysqltransaction.html Dim transaction As MySqlTransaction = sqlConnection.BeginTransaction() sqlCommand = New MySqlCommand(insertStr, sqlConnection, transaction) Try sqlCommand.ExecuteNonQuery() Catch ex As Exception writeToLog("EXCEPTION: " & ex.Message & vbNewLine) writeToLog("Could not execute " & sqlCmd & vbNewLine) Try transaction.Rollback() writeToLog("All statements were rolled back." & vbNewLine) Return False Catch rollbackEx As Exception writeToLog("EXCEPTION: " & rollbackEx.Message & vbNewLine) writeToLog("All statements were not rolled back." & vbNewLine) Return False End Try End Try transaction.commit() I get the DUPLICATE KEY exception thrown, no Rollback Exception thrown, and every set of values up to duplicate key committed to the database. What am I doing wrong? Thanks- Jonathan

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  • Create dynamic factory method in PHP (< 5.3)

    - by fireeyedboy
    How would one typically create a dynamic factory method in PHP? By dynamic factory method, I mean a factory method that will autodiscover what objects there are to create, based on some aspect of the given argument. Preferably without registering them first with the factory either. I'm OK with having the possible objects be placed in one common place (a directory) though. I want to avoid your typical switch statement in the factory method, such as this: public static function factory( $someObject ) { $className = get_class( $someObject ); switch( $className ) { case 'Foo': return new FooRelatedObject(); break; case 'Bar': return new BarRelatedObject(); break; // etc... } } My specific case deals with the factory creating a voting repository based on the item to vote for. The items all implement a Voteable interface. Something like this: Default_User implements Voteable ... Default_Comment implements Voteable ... Default_Event implements Voteable ... Default_VoteRepositoryFactory { public static function factory( Voteable $item ) { // autodiscover what type of repository this item needs // for instance, Default_User needs a Default_VoteRepository_User // etc... return new Default_VoteRepository_OfSomeType(); } } I want to be able to drop in new Voteable items and Vote repositories for these items, without touching the implementation of the factory.

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  • Expression Tree with Property Inheritance causes an argument exception

    - by Adam Driscoll
    Following this post: link text I'm trying to create an expression tree that references the property of a property. My code looks like this: public interface IFoo { void X {get;set;} } public interface IBar : IFoo { void Y {get;set;} } public interface IFooBarContainer { IBar Bar {get;set;} } public class Filterer { //Where T = "IFooBarContainer" public IQueryable<T> Filter<T>(IEnumerable<T> collection) { var argument = Expression.Parameter(typeof (T), "item"); //... //where propertyName = "IBar.X"; PropertyOfProperty(argument, propertyName); } private static MemberExpression PropertyOfProperty(Expression expr, string propertyName) { return propertyName.Split('.').Aggregate<string, MemberExpression>(null, (current, property) => Expression.Property(current ?? expr, property)); } } I receive the exception: System.ArgumentException: Instance property 'X' is not defined for type 'IBar' ReSharper turned the code in the link above into the condensed statement in my example. Both forms of the method returned the same error. If I reference IBar.Y the method does not fail.

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  • nested include in php

    - by aeonsleo
    The directory structure: C:/wamp/www/application/model/data_access/data_object.php C:/wamp/www/application/model/users/user.class.php C:/wamp/www/application/controller/projects.php C:/wamp/www/application/controller/links/links.php I have 2 php files data_object.php and user.class.php Now user.class.php has an include statement for data_object.php wchih is relative to user.class.php.These two files are under different directory hierarchy. Now I have to include this user.class.php in various files (like projects.php, links.php-which themselves are under different hierarchy) whenever i want to create a User() object. The problem is the relative path for file inclusion of data_object.php does work for say projects.php but if i open links.php the error message says it could not open file data_object.php in user.class.php. What i think is for relative inclusion of data_object.php it is considering the path of the file in which user.class.php is included. I am facing such problems in more than one scenarios I have to keep my directory structure the way it is but have to find a way to work with nested includes. I used Document root of session it give root path as C:/wamp/www/ i appended the path for data_object.php include but this is not working. (note: the forward slash is present after www) I am currently running on wamp server's localhost but after completion i have to host the solution on a domain. Pls help

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  • DQL delete from multiple tables (doctrine)

    - by singer
    Need to perform DQL delete from multple related tables. In SQL it is something like this: DELETE r1,r2 FROM ComRealty_objects r1, com_realty_objects_phones r2 WHERE r1.id IN (10,20) AND r2.id_object IN (10,20) I need to perform this statement using DQL, but I'm stuck on this :( <?php $dql = Doctrine_Query::create() ->delete('phones, comrealtyobjects') ->from('ComRealtyObjects comrealtyobjects') ->from('ComRealtyObjectsPhones phones') ->whereIn("comrealtyobjects.id", $ids) ->whereIn("phones.id_object", $ids); echo($dql->getSqlQuery()); ?> But DQL parser gives me this result: DELETE FROM `com_realty_objects_phones`, `ComRealty_objects` WHERE (`id` IN (?) AND `id_object` IN (?)) Searching google and stack overflow I found this(useful) topic: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2247905/what-is-the-syntax-for-a-multi-table-delete-on-a-mysql-database-using-doctrine But this is not exactly my case - there was delete from single table. If there is a way to override dql parser behaviour? Or maybe some other way to delete records from multiple tables using doctrine. Note: If you are using doctrine behaviours(Doctrine_Record_Generator) you need first to initialize those tables using Doctrine_Core::initializeModels() to perform DQL operations on them.

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  • Can't set Visible attribute in ASP.NET Panels

    - by RichW
    I am having trouble with visible attribute of an ASP.NET Panel control. I have a page that calls a database table and returns the results in a datagrid. Requirements If some of the returned values are null I need to hide the image that's next to it. I am using a Panel to determine whether to hide or show the image but am having trouble with the statement: visible='<%# Eval("addr1") <> DBNull.Value %>' I have tried these as well: visible='<%# Eval("addr1") <> DBNull.Value %>' visible='<%# IIf(Eval("addr1") Is DbNull.Value, "False","True") %>' Code is below: <asp:TemplateField > <ItemTemplate> <%# Eval("Name")%> <p> <asp:Panel runat="server" ID="Panel1" visible='<%# Eval("addr1") <> DBNull.Value %>'> <asp:Image Id="imgHouse" runat="server" AlternateText="Address" SkinId="imgHouse"/> </asp:Panel> <%# Eval("addr1") %><p> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> What am I doing wrong? Edit If I use visible='<%# IIf(Eval("addr1") Is DbNull.Value, "False","True") %>' I get the following error: Compiler Error Message: CS1026: ) expected

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  • sybase - fails to use index unless string is hard-coded

    - by Garrett
    I'm using Sybase 12.5.3 (ASE); I'm new to Sybase though I've worked with MSSQL pretty extensively. I'm running into a scenario where a stored procedure is really very slow. I've traced the issue to a single SELECT stmt for a relatively large table. Modifying that statement dramatically improves the performance of the procedure (and reverting it drastically slows it down; i.e., the SELECT stmt is definitely the culprit). -- Sybase optimizes and uses multi-column index... fast!<br> SELECT ID,status,dateTime FROM myTable WHERE status in ('NEW','SENT') ORDER BY ID -- Sybase does not use index and does very slow table scan<br> SELECT ID,status,dateTime FROM myTable WHERE status in (select status from allowableStatusValues) ORDER BY ID The code above is an adapted/simplified version of the actual code. Note that I've already tried recompiling the procedure, updating statistics, etc. I have no idea why Sybase ASE would choose an index only when strings are hard-coded and choose a table scan when choosing from another table. Someone please give me a clue, and thank you in advance.

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  • SQL Server Index cost

    - by yellowstar
    I have read that one of the tradeoffs for adding table indexes in SQL Server is the increased cost of insert/update/delete queries to benefit the performance of select queries. I can conceptually understand what happens in the case of an insert because SQL Server has to write entries into each index matching the new rows, but update and delete are a little more murky to me because I can't quite wrap my head around what the database engine has to do. Let's take DELETE as an example and assume I have the following schema (pardon the pseudo-SQL) TABLE Foo col1 int ,col2 int ,col3 int ,col4 int PRIMARY KEY (col1,col2) INDEX IX_1 col3 INCLUDE col4 Now, if I issue the statement DELETE FROM Foo WHERE col1=12 AND col2 > 34 I understand what the engine must do to update the table (or clustered index if you prefer). The index is set up to make it easy to find the range of rows to be removed and do so. However, at this point it also needs to update IX_1 and the query that I gave it gives no obvious efficient way for the database engine to find the rows to update. Is it forced to do a full index scan at this point? Does the engine read the rows from the clustered index first and generate a smarter internal delete against the index? It might help me to wrap my head around this if I understood better what is going on under the hood, but I guess my real question is this. I have a database that is spending a significant amount of time in delete and I'm trying to figure out what I can do about it. When I display the execution plan for the deletion, it just shows an entry for "Clustered Index Delete" on table Foo which lists in the details section the other indices that need to be updated but I don't get any indication of the relative cost of these other indices. Are they all equal in this case? Is there some way that I can estimate the impact of removing one or more of these indices without having to actually try it?

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  • PostgreSQL insert on primary key failing with contention, even at serializable level

    - by Steven Schlansker
    I'm trying to insert or update data in a PostgreSQL db. The simplest case is a key-value pairing (the actual data is more complicated, but this is the smallest clear example) When you set a value, I'd like it to insert if the key is not there, otherwise update. Sadly Postgres does not have an insert or update statement, so I have to emulate it myself. I've been working with the idea of basically SELECTing whether the key exists, and then running the appropriate INSERT or UPDATE. Now clearly this needs to be be in a transaction or all manner of bad things could happen. However, this is not working exactly how I'd like it to - I understand that there are limitations to serializable transactions, but I'm not sure how to work around this one. Here's the situation - ab: => set transaction isolation level serializable; a: => select count(1) from table where id=1; --> 0 b: => select count(1) from table where id=1; --> 0 a: => insert into table values(1); --> 1 b: => insert into table values(1); --> ERROR: duplicate key value violates unique constraint "serial_test_pkey" Now I would expect it to throw the usual "couldn't commit due to concurrent update" but I'm guessing since the inserts are different "rows" this does not happen. Is there an easy way to work around this?

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  • UPDATE query that fixes orphaned records

    - by Jed
    I have an Access database that has two tables that are related by PK/FK. Unfortunately, the database tables have allowed for duplicate/redundant records and has made the database a bit screwy. I am trying to figure out a SQL statement that will fix the problem. To better explain the problem and goal, I have created example tables to use as reference: You'll notice there are two tables, a Student table and a TestScore table where StudentID is the PK/FK. The Student table contains duplicate records for students John, Sally, Tommy, and Suzy. In other words the John's with StudentID's 1 and 5 are the same person, Sally 2 and 6 are the same person, and so on. The TestScore table relates test scores with a student. Ignoring how/why the Student table allowed duplicates, etc - The goal I'm trying to accomplish is to update the TestScore table so that it replaces the StudentID's that have been disabled with the corresponding enabled StudentID. So, all StudentID's = 1 (John) will be updated to 5; all StudentID's = 2 (Sally) will be updated to 6, and so on. Here's the resultant TestScore table that I'm shooting for (Notice there is no longer any reference to the disabled StudentID's 1-4): Can you think of a query (compatible with MS Access's JET Engine) that can accomplish this goal? Or, maybe, you can offer some tips/perspectives that will point me in the right direction. Thanks.

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  • Conditional macro expansion

    - by Dave DeLong
    Heads up: This is a weird question. I've got some really useful macros that I like to use to simplify some logging. For example I can do Log(@"My message with arguments: %@, %@, %@", @"arg1", @"arg2", @"arg3"), and that will get expanded into a more complex method invocation that includes things like self, _cmd, __FILE__, __LINE__, etc, so that I can easily track where things are getting logged. This works great. Now I'd like to expand my macros to not only work with Objective-C methods, but general C functions. The problem is the self and _cmd portions that are in the macro expansion. These two parameters don't exist in C functions. Ideally, I'd like to be able to use this same set of macros within C functions, but I'm running into problems. When I use (for example) my Log() macro, I get compiler warnings about self and _cmd being undeclared (which makes total sense). My first thought was to do something like the following (in my macro): if (thisFunctionIsACFunction) { DoLogging(nil, nil, format, ##__VA_ARGS__); } else { DoLogging(self, _cmd, format, ##__VA_ARGS__); } This still produces compiler warnings, since the entire if() statement is substituted in place of the macro, resulting in errors with the self and _cmd keywords (even though they will never be executed during function execution). My next thought was to do something like this (in my macro): if (thisFunctionIsACFunction) { #define SELF nil #define CMD nil } else { #define SELF self #define CMD _cmd } DoLogging(SELF, CMD, format, ##__VA_ARGS__); That doesn't work, unfortunately. I get "error: '#' is not followed by a macro parameter" on my first #define. My other thought was to create a second set of macros, specifically for use in C functions. This reeks of a bad code smell, and I really don't want to do this. Is there some way I can use the same set of macros from within both Objective-C methods and C functions, and only reference self and _cmd if the macro is in an Objective-C method?

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  • My java.util.Scanner won't work

    - by Kevin Steen Hansen
    Hello Stackoverflow my code is getting this error: Skriv din alder herunder og tryk enter: Exception in thread "main" java.util.NoSuchElementException at java.util.Scanner.throwFor(Scanner.java:907) at java.util.Scanner.next(Scanner.java:1530) at java.util.Scanner.nextInt(Scanner.java:2160) at java.util.Scanner.nextInt(Scanner.java:2119) at Tasteturindtastning.main(Tasteturindtastning.java:20) [Finished in 1.7s with exit code 1] Adn my code is: // Starter java som man plejer, læs i HejVerden.java public class Tasteturindtastning { public static void main(String[] arg) { /* Jeg skal nu angive en variable, men jeg kan ikke bestemme denne variable * Da jeg ønsker at indtastningen fra dette tastetur skal være variablen. * I stedet for int og double bruger jeg så java.util.Scanner, som aflæser * brugerens indtastninger. */ java.util.Scanner tastetur = new java.util.Scanner(System.in); // Printer en opgave/spørgsmål til brugeren System.out.println("Skriv din alder herunder og tryk enter:"); int alder; // Angiver et variablenavn alder = tastetur.nextInt(); // Angiver variablen med værdien fra indtastningen /* Herunder gør jeg brug af et if statement der tjekker værdien for * variablen alder, og ser om den er lig med eller højere end 18, og hvis * dette er tilfældet, så udprinter den en sætning */ if (alder >= 18) System.out.println("Du er myndig, da du er " + alder + " år gammel"); // Printes hvis han er 18 eller ældre } } Can snyone tell me what is wrong?

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  • notify listener inside or outside inner synchronization

    - by Jary Zeels
    Hello all, I am struggling with a decision. I am writing a thread-safe library/API. Listeners can be registered, so the client is notified when something interesting happens. Which of the two implementations is most common? class MyModule { protected Listener listener; protected void somethingHappens() { synchronized(this) { ... do useful stuff ... listener.notify(); } } } or class MyModule { protected Listener listener; protected void somethingHappens() { Listener l = null; synchronized(this) { ... do useful stuff ... l = listener; } l.notify(); } } In the first implementation, the listener is notified inside the synchronization. In the second implementation, this is done outside the synchronization. I feel that the second one is advised, as it makes less room for potential deadlocks. But I am having trouble to convince myself. A downside of the second imlementation is that the client might receive 'incorrect' notifications, which happens if it accessed the module prior to the l.notify() statement. thanks a lot

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  • Thinking Sphinx with a date range

    - by Leddo
    Hi, I am implementing a full text search API for my rails apps, and so far have been having great success with Thinking Sphinx. I now want to implement a date range search, and keep getting the "bad value for range" error. Here is a snippet of the controller code, and i'm a bit stuck on what to do next. @search_options = { :page => params[:page], :per_page => params[:per_page]||50 } unless params[:since].blank? # make sure date is in specified format - YYYY-MM-DD d = nil begin d = DateTime.strptime(params[:since], '%Y-%m-%d') rescue raise ArgumentError, "Value for since parameter is not a valid date - please use format YYYY-MM-DD" end @search_options.merge!(:with => {:post_date => d..Time.now.utc}) end logger.info @search_options @posts = Post.search(params[:q], @search_options) When I have a look at the log, I am seeing this bit which seems to imply the date hasn't been converted into the same time format as the Time.now.utc. withpost_date2010-05-25T00:00:00+00:00..Tue Jun 01 17:45:13 UTC 2010 Any ideas? Basically I am trying to have the API request pass in a "since" date to see all posts after a certain date. I am specifying that the date should be in the YYYY-MM-DD format. Thanks for your help. Chris EDIT: I just changed the date parameters merge statement to this @search_options.merge!(:with = {:post_date = d.to_date..DateTime.now}) and now I get this error undefined method `to_i' for Tue, 25 May 2010:Date So obviously there is something still not setup right...

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  • MySqlDataReader giving error at build

    - by TuxMeister
    Hey there. I have a function in VB.net that authenticates a user towards a MySQL DB before launching the main application. Here's the code of the function: Public Function authConnect() As Boolean Dim dbserver As String Dim dbuser As String Dim dbpass As String dbserver = My.Settings.dbserver.ToString dbuser = My.Settings.dbuser.ToString dbpass = My.Settings.dbpass.ToString conn = New MySqlConnection myConnString = "server=" & dbserver & ";" & "user id=" & dbuser & ";" & "password=" & dbpass & ";" & "database=rtadmin" Dim myCommand As New MySqlCommand Dim myAdapter As New MySqlDataAdapter Dim myData As New DataTable Dim myDataReader As New MySqlDataReader Dim query As String myCommand.Parameters.Add(New MySqlParameter("?Username", login_usr_txt.Text)) myCommand.Parameters.Add(New MySqlParameter("?Password", login_pass_txt.Text)) query = "select * from users where user = ?Username and passwd = ?Password" conn.ConnectionString = myConnString Try conn.Open() Try myCommand.Connection = conn myCommand.CommandText = query myAdapter.SelectCommand = myCommand myDataReader = myCommand.ExecuteReader If myDataReader.HasRows() Then MessageBox.Show("You've been logged in.", "RT Live! Information", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Information) End If Catch ex As Exception End Try Catch ex As Exception End Try End Function The function is not yet complete, there are a few other things that need to be done before launching the application, since I'm using a MessageBox to display the result of the login attempt. The error that I'm getting is the following: Error 1 'MySql.Data.MySqlClient.MySqlDataReader.Friend Sub New(cmd As MySql.Data.MySqlClient.MySqlCommand, statement As MySql.Data.MySqlClient.PreparableStatement, behavior As System.Data.CommandBehavior)' is not accessible in this context because it is 'Friend'. C:\Users\Mario\documents\visual studio 2010\Projects\Remote Techs Live!\Remote Techs Live!\Login.vb 43 13 Remote Techs Live! Any ideas? Thanks.

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  • Generic object to object mapping with parametrized constructor

    - by Rody van Sambeek
    I have a data access layer which returns an IDataRecord. I have a WCF service that serves DataContracts (dto's). These DataContracts are initiated by a parametrized constructor containing the IDataRecord as follows: [DataContract] public class DataContractItem { [DataMember] public int ID; [DataMember] public string Title; public DataContractItem(IDataRecord record) { this.ID = Convert.ToInt32(record["ID"]); this.Title = record["title"].ToString(); } } Unfortanately I can't change the DAL, so I'm obliged to work with the IDataRecord as input. But in generat this works very well. The mappings are pretty simple most of the time, sometimes they are a bit more complex, but no rocket science. However, now I'd like to be able to use generics to instantiate the different DataContracts to simplify the WCF service methods. I want to be able to do something like: public T DoSomething<T>(IDataRecord record) { ... return new T(record); } So I'd tried to following solutions: Use a generic typed interface with a constructor. doesn't work: ofcourse we can't define a constructor in an interface Use a static method to instantiate the DataContract and create a typed interface containing this static method. doesn't work: ofcourse we can't define a static method in an interface Use a generic typed interface containing the new() constraint doesn't work: new() constraint cannot contain a parameter (the IDataRecord) Using a factory object to perform the mapping based on the DataContract Type. does work, but: not very clean, because I now have a switch statement with all mappings in one file. I can't find a real clean solution for this. Can somebody shed a light on this for me? The project is too small for any complex mapping techniques and too large for a "switch-based" factory implementation.

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  • Diffie-Hellman -- Primitive root mod n -- cryptography question.

    - by somewhat confused
    In the below snippet, please explain starting with the first "for" loop what is happening and why. Why is 0 added, why is 1 added in the second loop. What is going on in the "if" statement under bigi. Finally explain the modPow method. Thank you in advance for meaningful replies. public static boolean isPrimitive(BigInteger m, BigInteger n) { BigInteger bigi, vectorint; Vector<BigInteger> v = new Vector<BigInteger>(m.intValue()); int i; for (i=0;i<m.intValue();i++) v.add(new BigInteger("0")); for (i=1;i<m.intValue();i++) { bigi = new BigInteger("" + i); if (m.gcd(bigi).intValue() == 1) v.setElementAt(new BigInteger("1"), n.modPow(bigi,m).intValue()); } for (i=0;i<m.intValue();i++) { bigi = new BigInteger("" + i); if (m.gcd(bigi).intValue() == 1) { vectorint = v.elementAt(bigi.intValue()); if ( vectorint.intValue() == 0) i = m.intValue() + 1; } } if (i == m.intValue() + 2) return false; else return true; }

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  • Inserting null fields with dbi:Pg

    - by User1
    I have a Perl script inserting data into Postgres according to a pipe delimited text file. Sometimes, a field is null (as expected). However, Perl makes this field into an empty string and the Postgres insert statement fails. Here's a snippet of code: use DBI; #Connect to the database. $dbh=DBI-connect('dbi:Pg:dbname=mydb','mydb','mydb',{AutoCommit=1,RaiseError=1,PrintError=1}); #Prepare an insert. $sth=$dbh-prepare("INSERT INTO mytable (field0,field1) SELECT ?,?"); while (<){ #Remove the whitespace chomp; #Parse the fields. @field=split(/\|/,$_); print "$_\n"; #Do the insert. $sth-execute($field[0],$field[1]); } And if the input is: a|1 b| c|3 EDIT: Use this input instead. a|1|x b||x c|3|x It will fail at b|. DBD::Pg::st execute failed: ERROR: invalid input syntax for integer: "" I just want it to insert a null on field1 instead. Any ideas? EDIT: I simplified the input at the last minute. The old input actually made it work for some reason. So now I changed the input to something that will make the program fail. Also note that field1 is a nullable integer datatype.

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  • Calling an Oracle PL/SQL procedure with Custom Object return types from 0jdbc6 JDBCthin drivers

    - by Andrew Harmel-Law
    I'm writing some JDBC code which calls a Oracle 11g PL/SQL procdedure which has a Custom Object return type. Whenever I try an register my return types, I get either ORA-03115 or PLS-00306 as an error when the statement is executed depending on the type I set. An example is below: PLSQL Code: Procedure GetDataSummary (p_my_key IN KEYS.MY_KEY%TYPE, p_recordset OUT data_summary_tab, p_status OUT VARCHAR2); Java Code: String query = "beginmanageroleviewdata.getdatasummary(?, ?, ?); end;"); CallableStatement stmt = conn.prepareCall(query); stmt.setInt(1, 83); stmt.registerOutParameter(2, OracleTypes.CURSOR); // Causes error: PLS-00306 stmt.registerOutParameter(3, OracleTypes.VARCHAR); stmt.execute(stmt); // Error mentioned above thrown here. Can anyone provide me with an example showing how I can do this? I guess it's possible. However I can't see a rowset OracleType. CURSOR, REF, DATALINK, and more fail. Apologies if this is a dumb question. I'm not a PL/SQL expert and may have used the wrong terminology in some areas of my question. (If so, please edit me). Thanks in advance. Regs, Andrew

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  • TSQL to insert an ascending value

    - by David Neale
    I am running some SQL that identifies records which need to be marked for deletion and to insert a value into those records. This value must be changed to render the record useless and each record must be changed to a unique value because of a database constraint. UPDATE Users SET Username = 'Deleted' + (ISNULL( Cast(SELECT RIGHT(MAX(Username),1) FROM Users WHERE Username LIKE 'Deleted%') AS INT) ,0) + 1 FROM Users a LEFT OUTER JOIN #ADUSERS b ON a.Username = 'AVSOMPOL\' + b.sAMAccountName WHERE (b.sAMAccountName is NULL AND a.Username LIKE 'AVSOMPOL%') OR b.userAccountControl = 514 This is the important bit: SET Username = 'Deleted' + (ISNULL( Cast(SELECT RIGHT(MAX(Username),1) FROM Users WHERE Username LIKE 'Deleted%') AS INT) ,0) + 1 What I've tried to do is have deleted records have their Username field set to 'Deletedxxx'. The ISNULL is needed because there may be no records matching the SELECT RIGHT(MAX(Username),1) FROM Users WHERE Username LIKE 'Deleted%' statement and this will return NULL. I get a syntax error when trying to parse this (Msg 156, Level 15, State 1, Line 2 Incorrect syntax near the keyword 'SELECT'. Msg 102, Level 15, State 1, Line 2 Incorrect syntax near ')'. I'm sure there must be a better way to go about this, any ideas?

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  • How to call Postgres function returning SETOF record?

    - by Peter
    I have written the following function: -- Gets stats for all markets CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION GetMarketStats ( ) RETURNS SETOF record AS $$ BEGIN SELECT 'R approved offer' AS Metric, SUM(CASE WHEN M.MarketName = 'A+' AND M.Term = 24 THEN LO.Amount ELSE 0 end) AS MarketAPlus24, SUM(CASE WHEN M.MarketName = 'A+' AND M.Term = 36 THEN LO.Amount ELSE 0 end) AS MarketAPlus36, SUM(CASE WHEN M.MarketName = 'A' AND M.Term = 24 THEN LO.Amount ELSE 0 end) AS MarketA24, SUM(CASE WHEN M.MarketName = 'A' AND M.Term = 36 THEN LO.Amount ELSE 0 end) AS MarketA36, SUM(CASE WHEN M.MarketName = 'B' AND M.Term = 24 THEN LO.Amount ELSE 0 end) AS MarketB24, SUM(CASE WHEN M.MarketName = 'B' AND M.Term = 36 THEN LO.Amount ELSE 0 end) AS MarketB36 FROM "Market" M INNER JOIN "Listing" L ON L.MarketID = M.MarketID INNER JOIN "ListingOffer" LO ON L.ListingID = LO.ListingID; END $$ LANGUAGE plpgsql; And when trying to call it like this... select * from GetMarketStats() AS (Metric VARCHAR(50),MarketAPlus24 INT,MarketAPlus36 INT,MarketA24 INT,MarketA36 INT,MarketB24 INT,MarketB36 INT); I get an error: ERROR: query has no destination for result data HINT: If you want to discard the results of a SELECT, use PERFORM instead. CONTEXT: PL/pgSQL function "getmarketstats" line 2 at SQL statement I don't understand this output. I've tried using perform too, but I thought one only had to use that if the function doesn't return anything.

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  • Defining an implementation independent version of the global object in JavaScript

    - by Aadit M Shah
    I'm trying to define the global object in JavaScript in a single line as follows: var global = this.global || this; The above statement is in the global scope. Hence in browsers the this pointer is an alias for the window object. Assuming that it's the first line of JavaScript to be executed in the context of the current web page, the value of global will always be the same as that of the this pointer or the window object. In CommonJS implementations, such as RingoJS and node.js the this pointer points to the current ModuleScope. However, we can access the global object through the property global defined on the ModuleScope. Hence we can access it via the this.global property. Hence this code snippet works in all browsers and in at least RingoJS and node.js, but I have not tested other CommomJS implementations. Thus I would like to know if this code will not yield correct results when run on any other CommonJS implementation, and if so how I may fix it. Eventually, I intend to use it in a lambda expression for my implementation independent JavaScript framework as follows (idea from jQuery): (function (global) { // javascript framework })(this.global || this);

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  • how to incorporate a function within a function

    - by bklynM
    I updated my code with string dates created with new Date and added back in the if statement. This isn't disabling the string or range though. I've added the datepicker code too. function unavailableDays(date) { function createDateRange(first, last) { var dates = []; for(var j = first; j < last; j.setDate(j.getDate() + 7)) { dates.push(new Date(j.getTime())); } var alwaysDisabled = [new Date("1963-3-10T00:00:00"), new Date("1963-3-17T00:00:00"), new Date("1963-3-24T00:00:00"), new Date("1963-3-31T00:00:00"), new Date("1965-9-18T00:00:00")]; return dates.concat(alwaysDisabled); } var disabledDays = createDateRange(new Date("1978-8-10T00:00:00"), new Date("1978-11-5T00:00:00")); var yy = date.getFullYear(), mm = date.getMonth(), dd = date.getDate(); for (i = 0; i < disabledDays.length; i++) { if($.inArray(yy + '-' + (mm+1) + '-' + dd,disabledDays) != -1 || new Date() < date) { return [false]; } } return [true]; } $(document).ready(function (){ $('.selector').datepicker({ inline: true, dateFormat: 'yy-mm-dd', constrainInput: true, changeYear: true, changeMonth: true, minDate: new Date(1940, 1-1, 1), maxDate: new Date(2011, 10-1, 24), beforeShowDay: unavailableDays, onSelect: function(dateText, inst) { $("#img").attr("src", "http://www.example.com" + dateText + ".jpg"); var chosenDates = $.datepicker.parseDate('yy-mm-dd', dateText); var backToString = $.datepicker.formatDate('MM dd' + ',' + ' yy', chosenDates); $('.info').html('You are viewing:' + '<br />' + backToString).addClass('background'); } }); });

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  • java - codesprint2 programming contest answer

    - by arya
    I recently took part in Codesprint2. I was unable to submit the solution to the following question. http://www.spoj.pl/problems/COINTOSS/ ( I have posted the link to the problem statement at spoj because the codesprint link requires login ) I checked out one of the successful solutions, ( url : http://pastebin.com/uQhNh9Rc ) and the logic used is exactly the same as mine, yet I am still getting "Wrong Answer" I would be very thankful if someone could please tell me what error I have made, as I am unable to find it. Thank you. My code : import java.io.BufferedReader; import java.io.IOException; import java.io.InputStreamReader; import java.text.DecimalFormat; import java.util.StringTokenizer; public class Solution { static double solve( int n, int m ) { if( m==n ) return 0; if( m==0 ) return ( Math.pow( 2, n+1 ) - 2 ); else { double res = 1 + ( Double )( solve( n, m+1 ) + solve( n, 0 ))/2; return res; } } public static void main( String[] args ) throws IOException { BufferedReader br = new BufferedReader( new InputStreamReader( System.in )); int n, m; int t = Integer.parseInt( br.readLine() ); StringTokenizer tok; String s; for( int T=0; T<t; T++ ) { s = br.readLine(); tok = new StringTokenizer( s ); n = Integer.parseInt( tok.nextToken() ); m = Integer.parseInt( tok.nextToken() ); DecimalFormat df = new DecimalFormat(); df.setMaximumFractionDigits(2); df.setMinimumFractionDigits(2); System.out.println( df.format ( solve( n, m ) )); } } }

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  • How can I programmatically add more than just one view object to my view controller?

    - by BeachRunnerJoe
    I'm diving into iPhone OS development and I'm trying to understand how I can add multiple view objects to the "Left/Root" view of my SplitView iPad app. I've figured out how to programmatically add a TableView to that view based on the example code I found in Apple's online documentation... RootViewController.h @interface RootViewController : UITableViewController <NSFetchedResultsControllerDelegate, UITableViewDelegate, UITableViewDataSource> { DetailViewController *detailViewController; UITableView *tableView; NSFetchedResultsController *fetchedResultsController; NSManagedObjectContext *managedObjectContext; } RootViewController.m - (void)loadView { UITableView *newTableView = [[UITableView alloc] initWithFrame:[[UIScreen mainScreen] applicationFrame] style:UITableViewStylePlain]; newTableView.autoresizingMask = UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleHeight|UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleWidth; newTableView.delegate = self; newTableView.dataSource = self; [newTableView reloadData]; self.view = newTableView; [newTableView release]; } but there are a few things I don't understand about it and I was hoping you veterans could help clear up some confusion. In the statement self.view = newTableView, I assume I'm setting the entire view to a single UITableView. If that's the case, then how can I add additional view objects to that view alongside the table view? For example, if I wanted to have a DatePicker view object and the TableView object instead of just the TableView object, then how would I programmatically add that? Referencing the code above, how can I resize the table view to make room for the DatePicker view object that I'd like to add? Thanks so much in advance for your help! I'm going to continue researching these questions right now.

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