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  • ASP.NET or PHP: Is Memcached useful for storing user-state information?

    - by hamlin11
    This question may expose my ignorance as a web developer, but that wouldn't exactly be a bad thing for me now would it? I have the need to store user-state information. Examples of information that I need to store per user. (define user: unauthenticated visitor) User arrived to the site from google/bing/yahoo User utilized the search feature (true/false) List of previous visited product pages on current visit It is my understanding that I could store this in the view state, but that causes a problem with page load from the end-users' perspective because a significant amount of non-viewable information is being transferred to and from the end-users even though the server is the only side that needs the info. On a similar note, it is my understanding that the session state can be used to store such information, but does not this also result in the same information being transferred to the user and stored in their cookie? (Not quite as bad as viewstate, but it does not feel ideal). This leaves me with either a server-only-session storage system or a mem-caching solution. Is memcached the only good option here?

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  • Embed javascript in markdown

    - by Paul Tarjan
    I'm using the Maruku markdown processor. I'd like this *blah* blah "blah" in [markdown](blah) <script src="code.jquery.com/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> <script> ...do stuff... </script> but it complains when I render it with a multitude of errors. The first one being ___________________________________________________________________________ | Maruku tells you: +--------------------------------------------------------------------------- | Could you please format this better? | I see that "<script type='text/javascript'>" is left after the raw HTML. | At line 31 | raw_html |<script src='http://code.jquery.com/jquery-1.4.2.min.js' /><script type='text/javascript'>| | text --> |//<![CDATA[| and then the rest seems like the parser is going nuts. Then it renders the javascript into a div on the page. I've tried making it a CDATA block and extra spacing between the jquery and my script. Help?

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  • Shared Git repo syncing to svn causing git svn rebase to pollute repo with a log of no-op merge prob

    - by John K
    This wasn't so bad at the beginning, but now I have hundreds of no-op merge problems (solved by git rebase --skip). I have setup a shared git repo for my group because it is easier to deal with. But the company uses SVN so I have to keep SVN in sync with GIT. Worked like a dream at first, but after weeks of doing this GIT is giving me a lot of the following errors. Applying: * making all config actions work Using index info to reconstruct a base tree... Falling back to patching base and 3-way merge... Auto-merging app/controllers/vulnerabilities_controller.rb CONFLICT (content): Merge conflict in app/controllers/vulnerabilities_controller.rb Auto-merging public/javascripts/network_analysis_vulnerability_config.js CONFLICT (content): Merge conflict in public/javascripts/network_analysis_vulnerability_config.js Failed to merge in the changes. Patch failed at 0046 * making all config actions work My workflow: git co master git pull origin git svn rebase ... deal with no-op merge problems ... git svn dcommit git pull origin git push origin The problem is that what is in SVN is the correct so I use git rebase --skip, but I have to do that hundreds of times before I can dcommit. How do I clear these merge problems permanently?

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  • How to enforce that HTTP client uses conditional requests for updates?

    - by Day
    In a (proper RMM level 3) RESTful HTTP API, I want to enforce the fact that clients should make conditional requests when updating resources, in order to avoid the lost update problem. What would be an appropriate response to return to clients that incorrectly attempt unconditional PUT requests? I note that the (abandoned?) mod_atom returns a 405 Method Not Allowed with an Allow header set to GET, HEAD (view source) when an unconditional update is attempted. This seems slightly misleading - to me this implies that PUT is never a valid method to attempt on the resource. Perhaps the response just needs to have an entity body explaining that If-Match or If-Unmodified-Since must be used to make the PUT request conditional in which case it would be allowed? Or perhaps a 400 Bad Request with a suitable explanation in the entity body would be a better solution? But again, this doesn't feel quite right because it's using a 400 response for a violation of application specific semantics when RFC 2616 says (my emphasis): The request could not be understood by the server due to malformed syntax. But than again, I think that using 400 Bad Request for application specific semantics is becoming a widely accepted pragmatic solution (citation needed!), and I'm just being overly pedantic.

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  • Problem with using Jquery.ajax over .load on Zend

    - by Matthew
    Right now, what i'm trying to do is to replace a label on the front page with a block of html. Right now, the page basically has: <label id="replace"></label> the js currently has: $(document).ready(function(){ $("#replace").load('/test'); }); the Zend class function has: public function indexAction(){ $this->_helper->layout()->disableLayout(); $this->_view->message = "This is from TestController index"; } and finally the index.phtml template simply has: <?php echo $this->message;?> Right now, I want to change the code around so that instead of just replacing that label with the same message, it would do a POST where the function will pull out a parameter, do something (like for instance, go to the database and pull something out with the POST parameter) and then return the message. I've tried editing the js so that it would look like: $.post('/test', {param : "test_param"}, function(data) {$("#replace").html(data);}); or $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: '/test', data: "{param:test_param}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function(data) {$("#replace").html(data);} }); and neither worked. I took a step back and tried to replicate the .load functionality and do: $.ajax({ url: '/test', success: function(data) { $('#replace').html(data); alert('Load was performed.'); } }); and it doesn't work either. Anyone have any tips on how to go about doing this?

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  • Python client / server question

    - by AustinM
    I'm working on a bit of a project in python. I have a client and a server. The server listens for connections and once a connection is received it waits for input from the client. The idea is that the client can connect to the server and execute system commands such as ls and cat. This is my server code: import sys, os, socket host = '' port = 50105 s = socket.socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_STREAM) s.bind((host, port)) print("Server started on port: ", port) s.listen(5) print("Server listening\n") conn, addr = s.accept() print 'New connection from ', addr while (1): rc = conn.recv(5) pipe = os.popen(rc) rl = pipe.readlines() file = conn.makefile('w', 0) file.writelines(rl[:-1]) file.close() conn.close() And this is my client code: import sys, socket s = socket.socket(socket.AF_INET, socket.SOCK_STREAM) host = 'localhost' port = input('Port: ') s.connect((host, port)) cmd = raw_input('$ ') s.send(cmd) file = s.makefile('r', 0) sys.stdout.writelines(file.readlines()) When I start the server I get the right output, saying the server is listening. But when I connect with my client and type a command the server exits with this error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "server.py", line 21, in <module> rc = conn.recv(2) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/socket.py", line 165, in _dummy raise error(EBADF, 'Bad file descriptor') socket.error: [Errno 9] Bad file descriptor On the client side, I get the output of ls but the server gets screwed up.

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  • Does the Java Memory Model (JSR-133) imply that entering a monitor flushes the CPU data cache(s)?

    - by Durandal
    There is something that bugs me with the Java memory model (if i even understand everything correctly). If there are two threads A and B, there are no guarantees that B will ever see a value written by A, unless both A and B synchronize on the same monitor. For any system architecture that guarantees cache coherency between threads, there is no problem. But if the architecture does not support cache coherency in hardware, this essentially means that whenever a thread enters a monitor, all memory changes made before must be commited to main memory, and the cache must be invalidated. And it needs to be the entire data cache, not just a few lines, since the monitor has no information which variables in memory it guards. But that would surely impact performance of any application that needs to synchronize frequently (especially things like job queues with short running jobs). So can Java work reasonably well on architectures without hardware cache-coherency? If not, why doesn't the memory model make stronger guarantees about visibility? Wouldn't it be more efficient if the language would require information what is guarded by a monitor? As i see it the memory model gives us the worst of both worlds, the absolute need to synchronize, even if cache coherency is guaranteed in hardware, and on the other hand bad performance on incoherent architectures (full cache flushes). So shouldn't it be more strict (require information what is guarded by a monitor) or more lose and restrict potential platforms to cache-coherent architectures? As it is now, it doesn't make too much sense to me. Can somebody clear up why this specific memory model was choosen? EDIT: My use of strict and lose was a bad choice in retrospect. I used "strict" for the case where less guarantees are made and "lose" for the opposite. To avoid confusion, its probably better to speak in terms of stronger or weaker guarantees.

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  • jQuery not working as expected on HTTPS Internet explorer

    - by jat
    When I try to run my code on any other webbrowsers apart from the Internet explorer it works fine. But when I try to run the code on Internet explorer I do get an alert box saying HERE along with an Ok button. but the problem is when I click on that OK button I do not get anything. Ideally I should be getting another alert box. <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <script src="js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#submit").click(function(event) { alert("here"); $.post('process.php', {name:'test1',email:'test.com'}, function(data) { $('#results').html(data); alert(data); }); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <form name="myform" id="myform" action="" method="POST"> <label for="name" id="name_label">Name</label> <input type="text" name="name" id="name" size="30" value=""/> <br> <label for="email" id="email_label">Email</label> <input type="text" name="email" id="email" size="30" value=""/> <br> <input type="button" name="submit" id="submit" value="Submit"> </form> <div id="results"><div> </body> </html> Any help on this is very much appreciated. Edit: I found out that Internet Explorer which has HTTP works perfectly fine but not on Internet Explorer which uses HTTPS.

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  • select list modified on-the-fly doesn't fire onChange() for new first element.

    - by staremperor
    In the code below, I'm using jquery 1.4.1 to modify the options in a select list when the user clicks on the list (replacing the single Old item with three New items). Selecting either New 2 or New 3 correctly fires the change() method (and show the alert), but selecting "New 1" does not. What am I missing? Thanks. <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery-1.4.1.min.js"></script> <script> $(document).ready(function() { $("#dropdown").mousedown(function() { $(this).empty(); $(this).append($("<option></option>").attr("value",100).text("New 1")); $(this).append($("<option></option>").attr("value",200).text("New 2")); $(this).append($("<option></option>").attr("value",300).text("New 3")); }); $("#dropdown").change(function() { alert($(this).val()); }); }); </script> <body> <select id="dropdown"><option value="1">Old 1</option></select>

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  • How to limit Access-Control-Allow-Origin to a specific path?

    - by coderama
    I have a website that servies ads via javascript. So, I basically allow the user to include my script.... : <script src="http://www.example.com/ads.js" ></script> <script> MYADDS.insertAdvert(); </script> The problem is, I kept getting: "No Access-Control-Allow-Origin" Errors. That was until I added this to my htaccess file: <IfModule mod_headers.c> Header set Access-Control-Allow-Origin "*" </IfModule> Problem is, this opens up my entire site and is probably a security risk. So, seeing as the ads.js file actually only does an ajax request to: http://www.example.com/place/where/my/adds/are/fed/from How can I make the above htaccess rule only apply to that path? Keep in mind, it's not an actualy directory, so I can't put the htaccess file in that folder. It's actually a "virtual path". The site is built using Laravel and therefore does the typical laravel path rewriting. Here's teh full htaccess file: <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> <IfModule mod_negotiation.c> Options -MultiViews </IfModule> RewriteEngine On # Redirect Trailing Slashes... RewriteRule ^(.*)/$ /$1 [L,R=301] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.php/$1 [L] </IfModule> Any ideas how to do this?

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  • How to remove invalid UTF-8 characters from a JavaScript string?

    - by msielski
    I'd like to remove all invalid UTF-8 characters from a string in JavaScript. I've tried using the approach described here (link removed) and came up with the JavaScript: strTest = strTest.replace(/([\x00-\x7F]|[\xC0-\xDF][\x80-\xBF]|[\xE0-\xEF][\x80-\xBF]{2}|[\xF0-\xF7][\x80-\xBF]{3})|./, "$1"); It seems that the UTF-8 validation regex described here (link removed) is more complete and I adapted it in the same way like: strTest = strTest.replace(/([\x09\x0A\x0D\x20-\x7E]|[\xC2-\xDF][\x80-\xBF]|\xE0[\xA0-\xBF][\x80-\xBF]|[\xE1-\xEC\xEE\xEF][\x80-\xBF]{2}|\xED[\x80-\x9F][\x80-\xBF]|\xF0[\x90-\xBF][\x80-\xBF]{2}|[\xF1-\xF3][\x80-\xBF]{3}|\xF4[\x80-\x8F][\x80-\xBF]{2})|./, "$1"); Both of these pieces of code seem to be allowing valid UTF-8 through, but aren't filtering out hardly any of the bad UTF-8 characters from my test data: UTF-8 decoder capability and stress test. Either the bad characters come through unchanged or seem to have some of their bytes removed creating a new, invalid character. I'm not very familiar with the UTF-8 standard or with multibyte in JavaScript so I'm not sure if I'm failing to represent proper UTF-8 in the regex or if I'm applying that regex improperly in JavaScript. Any help appreciated. Thanks!

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  • modified closure warning in ReSharper

    - by Sarah Vessels
    I was hoping someone could explain to me what bad thing could happen in this code, which causes ReSharper to give an 'Access to modified closure' warning: bool result = true; foreach (string key in keys.TakeWhile(key => result)) { result = result && ContainsKey(key); } return result; Even if the code above seems safe, what bad things could happen in other 'modified closure' instances? I often see this warning as a result of using LINQ queries, and I tend to ignore it because I don't know what could go wrong. ReSharper tries to fix the problem by making a second variable that seems pointless to me, e.g. it changes the foreach line above to: bool result1 = result; foreach (string key in keys.TakeWhile(key => result1)) Update: on a side note, apparently that whole chunk of code can be converted to the following statement, which causes no modified closure warnings: return keys.Aggregate( true, (current, key) => current && ContainsKey(key) );

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  • How to reapper the sphere shape of SVG tag code by Raphael description exactly?

    - by TelTel
    I'm trying to figure a Raphael.js shape(sphere) which is based on following SVG tag code. I have succeed in basic similar sphere style by the description : Paper.circle(100, 100, 30).attr({ fill: "r(0.35, 0.25)#FFFFFF-#252525:96-#000000", stroke: "none"}); // radius is 30 But I can't reappear exactly. --- [picture] ** The tag code of sphere ... main part is extracted ** <g id="layer1"> <radialGradient id="path5725_3_" cx="156.0352" cy="657.6802" r="200.0004" gradientTransform="matrix(1.0404 0.7962 0.8145 -1.0643 -531.7884 745.2471)" gradientUnits="userSpaceOnUse"> <stop offset="0" style="stop-color:#FFFFFF"/> <stop offset="1" style="stop-color:#000000"/> </radialGradient> <path id="path5725" fill="url(#path5725_3_)" d="M445.037,229.105c0,113.218-89.543,205-200,205c-110.457, 0-200-91.782-200-205s89.543-205,200-205C355.494, 24.105,445.037,115.887,445.037,229.105z"/> </g> ** ---------------------------------------- ** Here the completed picture of tag code is linked. How to describe(modify) the Raphael.js code to reappear the picture ? Thank you.

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  • Setting a cookie based on the name of the link that is clicked.

    - by Ozaki
    TLDR When clicking on a link I want to assign a cookie with a name of instrument and a value of the text on the link clicked. Using Jquery.1.4.2.min.js, Jquery.cookie.1.0.js I am trying to create a cookie when a link is clicked (will always link to "page.html"). name of instrument value of the TEXT So far I am trying to use: Link1: <a href="page.html">link1</a> Link2: <a href="page.html">link2</a> Script: $('a[href=page.html]').click(function() { var name = 'instrument'; var value = $(this).text(); $.cookie(name, value, { expires: 365 }); }); When I click the link it just loads the link and no cookie is set. Debugging with firebug, firecookie, firequery. No cookie for instrument or anything along the lines is found. Onload I'll hit the "<a href="page.html">projects</a>" but not the "$.cookie(name, value, { expires: 365 });" at all.

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  • How do I access a <form> that is not the master page <form>?

    - by VBCSharp
    Winforms developer converting to web developer. I know the part about the Master Page having the tag, what is not clear is if I can or can not have another in one of my content pages. I have been seeing both answers doing searches. I see yes you can if only one has runat=server. The thing is I have a that contains several radio buttons on a web page that has a master page. I have a .js file that has a function if I send the name into it, it will loop thru the controls in the form to see which one is selected and return the desired date horizon(MTD, QTD, YTD, etc.). When I run this on a non master page web page it works fine. However, when I run on a web page that has a master page I can't seem to get to the element. I tried getElementByID, I tried looping through the page elements, etc. Maybe I am going about this incorrectly and I hope someone can straighten me out. Here is the code from my .js file that may help explain what I am trying to do a little better. var frmDateRanges = document.getElementById(formFieldName); var chosen; var len = frmDateRanges.DateRanges.length; for(i=0;i<len;i++) { if(frmDateRanges.DateRanges[i].checked) { chosen = frmDateRanges.DateRanges[i].value; } } where formFieldName is an arguement that is passed into the function and DateRanges is the name value given to the radio buttons. In the button I call this function I have: onclick ="FunctionCall('frmDateRanges')" FunctionCall is just for description purposes, 'frmDateRanges' is the name and id given to the form action="" Thanks for the help as I am stumped at this point. If there is a better way to do this please let me know that as well.

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  • Javascript ( jQuery ) Error: SyntaxError: missing ) after argument list

    - by Obmerk Kronen
    I have the simplest function : jQuery(document).ajaxSuccess(function(e, xhr, settings) { var widget_id_base = '099_cf_samurai_widget'; if(settings.data.search('action=save-widget') != -1 && settings.data.search('id_base=' + widget_id_base) != -1) { // alert(\'yay!'\); my_function_chosen_099(); } }); function my_function_chosen_099(){ jQuery(".chzn-select").chosen(); } which works just fine , but When I add the width Parameter like so : function my_function_chosen_k99(){ jQuery(".chzn-select").chosen(width:'95%'); } it gives me an error of: Error: SyntaxError: missing ) after argument list Source File: http://localhost/my-path/js/o99.chosen.init.js?ver=k99 Line: 20, Column: 41 Source Code: jQuery(".chzn-select").chosen(width:"95%"); .............................................| I have tried escaping: jQuery(".chzn-select").chosen(width:\"95%"\); and even double jQuery(".chzn-select").chosen(width:\\"95%"\\); and in my desperation, even jQuery(".chzn-select").chosen( width:"95%" ); I checked and rechecked the closing of brackets , and also tried with single quotes ' - but nothing . There appear to be a lot of similar questions here , but all I saw was escaping problems, ANd I have tried all that I know .. What is wrong here ?? I assume it is not a simple syntax error - or is it ? ( one which I can not find .. )

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  • Developers: How does BitLocker affect performance?

    - by Chris
    I'm an ASP.NET / C# developer. I use VS2010 all the time. I am thinking of enabling BitLocker on my laptop to protect the contents, but I am concerned about performance degradation. Developers who use IDEs like Visual Studio are working on lots and lots of files at once. More than the usual office worker, I would think. So I was curious if there are other developers out there who develop with BitLocker enabled. How has the performance been? Is it noticeable? If so, is it bad? My laptop is a 2.53GHz Core 2 Duo with 4GB RAM and an Intel X25-M G2 SSD. It's pretty snappy but I want it to stay that way. If I hear some bad stories about BitLocker, I'll keep doing what I am doing now, which is keeping stuff RAR'ed with a password when I am not actively working on it, and then SDeleting it when I am done (but it's such a pain).

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  • jquery simplemodal close wont work in firefox

    - by junkqwe
    I am using jquery.simplemodal 1.3.5 (i tried older versions) the close button doesnt close the modal in firefox (i tried IE and it work fine) this is the test page i am using: <html> <head> <title>Untitled Page</title> <style> #simplemodal-overlay { background-color:#000; cursor:wait; } #simplemodal-container a.modalCloseImg { background: url(../images/modal_close.png) no-repeat; width:25px; height:29px; display:inline; z-index:3200; position:absolute; top:15px; right:18px; cursor:pointer; } .modala { width: 372px; height: 206px; background: url(../images/modal.png) no-repeat; } </style> </head> <body> test page <script language="javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.3.2/jquery.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script language="javascript" src="/include/jquery.simplemodal-1.3.5.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $("body").click(function() { $.modal("<div class=\"modala\"><h1>SimpleModal</h1></div>", {overlayClose: true} ); }); </script> </body> </html> what can be the problem? is it a known problem with simplemodal and FF?

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  • javascript unable to locate a form using the ID tag

    - by ihake
    Here's my problem: I'm trying to set up a simple mobile contact form with a captcha built in. The page I'm working on can be found here: http://m.lancasterpainting.com/contact.php I'm using the following php contact form: http://www.html-form-guide.com/contact-form/php-email-contact-form.html I want to first say that I'm not the only one to run into this problem. After googling the issue, I've found multiple people struggling with this, but no-one seems to have an answer. Now for the problem... As you can see if you visit the page, each time the page is accessed, an error appears that says "Error: couldnot get Form object contact_form". I cannot--for the life of me--figure out why the javascript can't find the form I pass it. I call the function that generates this error at the top of the page: var frmvalidator = new Validator("contact_form"); The form I'm referencing is as follows in the HTML code: <div data-role="page" data-theme="e" id="contact_form" name="contact_form" data-position="inline"> ... And the function that is called that generates the error can be found in an external .js file here: http://m.lancasterpainting.com/scripts/gen_validatorv31.js Is there something that I am simply not seeing? Why can't the javascript locate the form? Thanks so much to anyone that helps with this.

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  • "pseudo-atomic" operations in C++

    - by dan
    So I'm aware that nothing is atomic in C++. But I'm trying to figure out if there are any "pseudo-atomic" assumptions I can make. The reason is that I want to avoid using mutexes in some simple situations where I only need very weak guarantees. 1) Suppose I have globally defined volatile bool b, which initially I set true. Then I launch a thread which executes a loop while(b) doSomething(); Meanwhile, in another thread, I execute b=true. Can I assume that the first thread will continue to execute? In other words, if b starts out as true, and the first thread checks the value of b at the same time as the second thread assigns b=true, can I assume that the first thread will read the value of b as true? Or is it possible that at some intermediate point of the assignment b=true, the value of b might be read as false? 2) Now suppose that b is initially false. Then the first thread executes bool b1=b; bool b2=b; if(b1 && !b2) bad(); while the second thread executes b=true. Can I assume that bad() never gets called? 3) What about an int or other builtin types: suppose I have volatile int i, which is initially (say) 7, and then I assign i=7. Can I assume that, at any time during this operation, from any thread, the value of i will be equal to 7? 4) I have volatile int i=7, and then I execute i++ from some thread, and all other threads only read the value of i. Can I assume that i never has any value, in any thread, except for either 7 or 8? 5) I have volatile int i, from one thread I execute i=7, and from another I execute i=8. Afterwards, is i guaranteed to be either 7 or 8 (or whatever two values I have chosen to assign)?

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  • cURL/PHP Request Executes 50% of the Time

    - by makavelli
    After searching all over, I can't understand why cURL requests issued to a remote SSL-enabled host are successful only 50% or so of the time in my case. Here's the situation: I have a sequence of cURL requests, all of them issued to a HTTPS remote host, within a single PHP script that I run using the PHP CLI. Occasionally when I run the script the requests execute successfully, but for some reason most of the times I run it I get the following error from cURL: * About to connect() to www.virginia.edu port 443 (#0) * Trying 128.143.22.36... * connected * Connected to www.virginia.edu (128.143.22.36) port 443 (#0) * successfully set certificate verify locations: * CAfile: none CApath: /etc/ssl/certs * error:140943FC:SSL routines:SSL3_READ_BYTES:sslv3 alert bad record mac * Closing connection #0 If I try again a few times I get the same result, but then after a few tries the requests will go through successfully. Running the script after that again results in an error, and the pattern continues. Researching the error 'alert bad record mac' didn't give me anything helpful, and I hesitate to blame it on an SSL issue since the script still runs occasionally. I'm on Ubuntu Server 10.04, with php5 and php5-curl installed, as well as the latest version of openssl. In terms of cURL specific options, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER is set to false, and both CURLOPT_TIMEOUT and CURLOPT_CONNECTTIMEOUT are set to 4 seconds. Further illustrating this problem is the fact that the same exact situation occurs on my Mac OS X dev machine - the requests only go through ~50% of the time.

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  • Can it be important to call remove() on an EJB 3 stateless session bean? Perhaps on weblogic?

    - by Michael Borgwardt
    I'm in the process of migrating an EJB 2 application to EJB 3 (and what a satisfying task it is to delete all those deployment descriptors!). It used to run on Weblogic and now runs on Glassfish. The task is going very smoothly, but one thing makes me wary: The current code takes great care to ensure that EJBObject.remove() is called on the bean when it's done its job, and other developers have (unfortunately very vague) memories of "bad things" happening when that was not done. However, with EJB3, the implementation class does not implement EJBObject, so there is no remove() method to be called. And my understanding is that there isn't really any point at all in calling it on stateless session beans, since they are, well, stateless. Could these "bad things" have been weblogic-specific? If not, what else? Should I avoid the full EJB3 lightweightness and keep a remote interface that extends EJBObject? Or just write it off as cargo-cult programming and delete all those try/finally clauses? I'm leaning towards the latter, but now feeling very comfortable with it.

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  • JavaScript Fails to load content correctly on start

    - by Gaz_Edge
    I have inherited an image gallery constructed using javascript. I believe it uses a variation of JQuery, but it seems to have been heavily edited. The gallery loads the first image on page load. Each image has comments below them. There are forward and backward arrows that move between images. The problem I seem to have is that if there is a comment on image one, it is not loaded on page start, the only way to get it to display is to click forward to the next image, then click back to image one. The comment is then shown. All the comments are loaded into a script in the header under var sent_comments = [{COMMENTS}] The comment HTML code on loading is as follows; <div id="comments_container"> <div id="comments"> </div> </div> Once I have clicked to image two and then back to image one, the code is; <div id="comments_container"> <div id="comments"> SOME COMMENT </div> </div> Previous image button is: <a class="prev save_state" href="#"> <img src="/next.png?" alt="Next"> </a> Im new to javascript so not really sure what I will need to do to ensure the comment is loaded for the first image when the page loads. Code here: http://static.albumexposure.net/assets/presentation-9f47b054d96f9ec2459e89619a5fe9b4.js http://static.albumexposure.net/assets/presentations/book-699d82a2beb39df264e54c5d2578e0e4.js

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  • Jquery - removing an image before the client browser attempts to download it

    - by ajbrun
    Hi there, I wonder if anyone could help me with a problem I've been having. I have a number of large images available, but due to space limitations, I can't create multiple copies of these at various sizes. I have used PHP GD functions to resize the images to the sizes I need and output them to the browser. This works, but obviously takes some processing time, which therefore impacts pages load times. I'm fine with this, but I only want to show the image once it's fully loaded, and have a loading gif in its place until that time. I'm using jquery to do this. The problem I'm having is making the page functional whether the client has javascript enabled or not. If JS is not enabled, I want standard img tags to be outputted, otherwise the images are removed and replaced with a loading gif until they have been fully loaded. The link below shows a simple non-javascript unfriendly example of a what I want to do (try turning JS off): http://jqueryfordesigners.com/demo/image-load-demo.php I've been testing the basics using the code below. The attr() function will be replaced with something like remove(). This is just a test to make something happen to the image before the browser tries to load it. $(document).ready(function() { $( "#Thumbnails .thumbnail img" ).attr('src', '#'); }); In IE, this works correctly - the image source is replaced with "#" BEFORE the client browser gets a chance to start downloading the image. In firefox however, it downloads the image, and THEN changes the source. It seems to me that firefox is loading the jquery onready event later than it should. As far as I know, this should be executed before the standard onload event and before anything has started loading. If it helps, I'm testing it with a good number of images on screen (81). Am I doing something wrong?

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  • Jquery Works in FF but not IE at all

    - by Shawn
    I set up the SimpleModal plugin to work from our Ad server(Real 24/7). Essentially, attempting to make an interstitial ad. I serve a popupAd.js file from the Ad Server to our homepage(index.php), Here is the code for popupAd.js: $(document).ready(function() { $.modal('<iframe src="/welcomeAd.htm" height="525" width="562" style="border:0;" scrolling="no"/>', { closeHTML: "<a href='#' title='Close' align='right' style='color:#666>(X) Continue to website</a>", containerCss: { backgroundColor: '#fff', borderColor: "#0063dc", height: 525, padding: 0, width: 562, }, overlayCss:{ backgroundColor:"#fff", }, opacity:100, overlayClose: true }); }); This opens a modal window on the homepage which then loads welcomeAd.htm which contain nothing other than the ad call to the creative. Here is the code: <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/1999/REC-html401-19991224/loose.dtd"> <html> <head> <title>Company Name</title> <!------ AD SERVER SETUP begin ------> <!------ OAS SERVER SETUP end ------> </head> <body style="margin: 0; padding: 0; width: 100%; height: 100%"> <script type="text/javascript" language="JavaScript"> <!-- AD SERVER CALL; //--> </script> </body> </html> This all works in FF but does nothing in IE, of which I am running IE7. Also, the closeHTML doesn't show up in Safari, though, the ad does.

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