Search Results

Search found 6255 results on 251 pages for 'wcf behaviour'.

Page 229/251 | < Previous Page | 225 226 227 228 229 230 231 232 233 234 235 236  | Next Page >

  • "date_part('epoch', now() at time zone 'UTC')" not the same time as "now() at time zone 'UTC'" in po

    - by sirlark
    I'm writing a web based front end to a database (PHP/Postgresql) in which I need to store various dates/times. The times are meant to be always be entered on the client side in the local time, and displayed in the local time too. For storage purposes, I store all dates/times as integers (UNIX timestamps) and normalised to UTC. One particular field has a restriction that the timestamp filled in is not allowed to be in the future, so I tried this with a database constraint... CONSTRAINT not_future CHECK (timestamp-300 <= date_part('epoch', now() at time zone 'UTC')) The -300 is to give 5 minutes leeway in case of slightly desynchronised times between browser and server. The problem is, this constraint always fails when submitting the current time. I've done testing, and found the following. In PostgreSQL client: SELECT now() -- returns correct local time SELECT date_part('epoch', now()) -- returns a unix timestamp at UTC (tested by feeding the value into the date function in PHP correcting for its compensation to my time zone) SELECT date_part('epoch', now() at time zone 'UTC') -- returns a unix timestamp at two time zone offsets west, e.g. I am at GMT+2, I get a GMT-2 timestamp. I've figured out obviously that dropping the "at time zone 'UTC'" will solve my problem, but my question is if 'epoch' is meant to return a unix timestamp which AFAIK is always meant to be in UTC, why would the 'epoch' of a time already in UTC be corrected? Is this a bug, or I am I missing something about the defined/normal behaviour here.

    Read the article

  • Is there a way to prevent SQL Server silently truncating data in local variables and stored procedure parameters?

    - by Luke Woodward
    I recently encountered an issue while porting an app to SQL Server. It turned out that this issue was caused by a stored procedure parameter being declared too short for the data being passed to it: the parameter was declared as VARCHAR(100) but in one case was being passed more than 100 characters of data. What surprised me was that SQL Server didn't report any errors or warnings -- it just silently truncated the data to 100 characters. The following SQLCMD session demonstrates this: 1 create procedure WhereHasMyDataGone (@data varchar(5)) as 2 begin 3 print 'Your data is ''' + @data + '''.'; 4 end; 5 go 1 exec WhereHasMyDataGone '123456789'; 2 go Your data is '12345'. Local variables also exhibit the same behaviour: 1 declare @s varchar(5) = '123456789'; 2 print @s; 3 go 12345 Is there an option I can enable to have SQL Server report errors (or at least warnings) in such situations? Or should I just declare all local variables and stored procedure parameters as VARCHAR(MAX) or NVARCHAR(MAX)?

    Read the article

  • Preventing a child process (HandbrakeCLI) from causing the parent script to exit

    - by Chris
    I have a batch conversion script to turn .mkvs of various dimensions into ipod/iphone sized .mp4s, cropping/scaling to suit. Determining the original dimensions, required crop, output file is all working fine. However, on successful completion of the first conversion, HandbrakeCLI causes the parent script to exit. Why would this be? And how can I stop it? The code, as it currently stands: #!/bin/bash find . -name "*.mkv" | while read FILE do # What would the output file be? DST=../Touch/$(dirname "$FILE") MKV=$(basename "$FILE") MP4=${MKV%%.mkv}.mp4 # If it already exists, don't overwrite it if [ -e "$DST/$MP4" ] then echo "NOT overwriting $DST/$MP4" else # Stuff to determine dimensions/cropping removed for brevity HandbrakeCLI --preset "iPhone & iPod Touch" --vb 900 --crop $crop -i "$FILE" -o "$DST/$MP4" > /dev/null 2>&1 if [ $? != 0 ] then echo "$FILE had problems" >> errors.log fi fi done I have additionally tried it with a trap, but that didn't change the behaviour (although the last trap did fire) trap "echo Handbrake SIGINT-d" SIGINT trap "echo Handbrake SIGTERM-d" SIGTERM trap "echo Handbrake EXIT-d" EXIT trap "echo Handbrake 0-d" 0

    Read the article

  • Why do I get this exception? {An item with the same key has already been added."})

    - by Alan
    Aknittel NewSellerID is the result of a lookup on tblSellers. These tables (tblSellerListings and tblSellers) are not "officially" joined with a foreign key relationship, either in the model or in the database, but I want some referential integrity maintained for the future. So my issue remains. Why do I get the exception ({"An item with the same key has already been added."}) with this code, if I don't begin each iteration of the foreach loop with a new ObjectContext and end it with SaveChanges, which I think will affect performance. Also, could you tell me why ORCSolutionsDataService.tblSellerListings (An ADO.NET DataServices/WCF object is not IDisposable, like LINQ to Entities?? ============================================== // Add listings to previous seller int NewSellerID = 0; // Look up existing Seller key using SellerUniqueEBAYID var qryCurrentSeller = from s in service.tblSellers where s.SellerEBAYUserID == SellerUserID select s; foreach (var s in qryCurrentSeller) NewSellerID = s.SellerID; // Save the selected listings for this seller foreach (DataGridViewRow dgr in dgvRows) { ORCSolutionsDataService.tblSellerListings NewSellerListing = new ORCSolutionsDataService.tblSellerListings(); NewSellerListing.ItemID = dgr.Cells["txtSellerItemID"].Value.ToString(); NewSellerListing.Title = dgr.Cells["txtSellerItemTitle"].Value.ToString(); NewSellerListing.CurrentPrice = Convert.ToDecimal(dgr.Cells["txtSellerItemPrice"].Value); NewSellerListing.QuantitySold = Convert.ToInt32(dgr.Cells["txtSellerItemSold"].Value); NewSellerListing.EndTime = Convert.ToDateTime(dgr.Cells["txtSellerItemEnds"].Value); NewSellerListing.CategoryName = dgr.Cells["txtSellerItemCategory"].Value.ToString(); NewSellerListing.ExtendedPrice = Convert.ToDecimal(dgr.Cells["txtExtendedReceipts"].Value); NewSellerListing.RetrievedDtime = Convert.ToDateTime(dtSellerDataRetrieved.ToString()); NewSellerListing.SellerID = NewSellerID; service.AddTotblSellerListings(NewSellerListing); } service.SaveChanges(); } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show("Unable to add a new case. Exception: " + ex.Message); }

    Read the article

  • .net remoting - Better solution to wait for a service to initialize ?

    - by CitizenInsane
    Context I have a client application (which i cannot modify, i.e. i only have the binary) that needs to run from time to time external commands that depends on a resource which is very long to initialize (about 20s). I thus decided to initialize this resource once for all in a "CommandServer.exe" application (single instance in the system tray) and let my client application call an intermediate "ExecuteCommand.exe" program that uses .net remoting to perform the operation on the server. The "ExecuteCommand.exe" is in charge for starting the server on first call and then leave it alive to speed up further commands. The service: public interface IMyService { void ExecuteCommand(string[] args); } The "CommandServer.exe" (using WindowsFormsApplicationBase for single instance management + user friendly splash screen during resource initializations): private void onStartupFirstInstance(object sender, StartupEventArgs e) { // Register communication channel channel = new TcpServerChannel("CommandServerChannel", 8234); ChannelServices.RegisterChannel(channel, false); // Register service var resource = veryLongToInitialize(); service = new MyServiceImpl(resource); RemotingServices.Marshal(service, "CommandServer"); // Create icon in system tray notifyIcon = new NotifyIcon(); ... } The intermediate "ExecuteCommand.exe": static void Main(string[] args) { startCommandServerIfRequired(); var channel = new TcpClientChannel(); ChannelServices.RegisterChannel(channel, false); var service = (IMyService)Activator.GetObject(typeof(IMyService), "tcp://localhost:8234/CommandServer"); service.RunCommand(args); } Problem As the server is very long to start (about 20s to initialize the required resources), the "ExecuteCommand.exe" fails on service.RunCommand(args) line because the server is yet not available. Question Is there a elegant way I can tune the delay before to receive "service not available" when calling service.RunCommand ? NB1: Currently I'm working around the issue by adding a mutex in server to indicate for complete initiliazation and have "ExecuteCommand.exe" to wait for this mutex before to call service.RunCommand. NB2: I have no background with .net remoting, nor WCF which is recommended replacer. (I chose .net remoting because this looked easier to set-up for this single shot issue in running external commands).

    Read the article

  • No class def found error for JUnit Test on android

    - by J Bellamy
    I am having some very bizarre behaviour. I have a large number of test cases for my Android application, and they all work except for one. When I run this one I get a java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: org.JUnit.test Yes, I have the JUnit 4 library imported into the project, and my other JUnit tests are running without any problems. What is particularly bizarre is that before I hit this problem I had an error in my code- basically, I tried writing a file to a read only folder. When that occurred, the JUnitTest would execute up to the point where it would hit an IO exception for accessing a part of memory it cannot access. I fix this problem, and suddenly the Android emulator doesn't seem to know what org.JUnit.test is. I have examined the run configuration for this test class, and it is the same as my others. It is in the same folder as the other tests as well. It also uses the same import statements. Any idea on what is going on? I am using the Android 10 emulator, and eclipse version 3.7.2. Edit: To clarify, the error I get appears on Logcat and not in my Eclipse project.

    Read the article

  • Unit testing a 'legacy' WPF Application

    - by sc_ray
    The product I have been working on has been in development for the past six years. It started as a generic data entry portal into an insanely complex part WPF/part legacy application. The system has been developed for all these years without a single Unit test in its fold. Now, the point has been raised for a comprehensive unit testing framework. I have been recruited recently to work on this product and have been tasked to get the 'Testing' in order. Since the team that worked on the product for the last six years adopted 'Agile', the project lacks any documentation of the business rules or any design documents. I have been trying to write unit tests for some of the modules. But I am not sure what to Mock, how to setup my Test fixture and eventually what to Test for, since a casual glance of the methods does not reveal its intentions. Also, it has come to my attention that the code was not developed with a particular methodology in mind. Given the situation, I was wondering if the good people of Stackoverflow could provide me with some advise on how to salvage this situation. I have heard about the book 'Working with Legacy Code' that has something to say about this general situation but I was thinking about getting some pointers from individuals who have encountered similar situations within the technology stack(C#,VB,C++,.NET 3.5,WCF,SQL Server 2005).

    Read the article

  • Create Extension Method to Produce Open & Closing Tags like Html.BeginForm()

    - by DaveDev
    Hi Guys I wonder if it's possible to create an extension method which has functionality & behaviour similar to Html.BeginForm(), in that it would generate a complete Html tag, and I could specificy its contents inside <% { & } %> tags. For example, I could have a view like: <% using(Html.BeginDiv("divId")) %> <% { %> <!-- Form content goes here --> <% } %> This capability would be very useful in the context of the functionality I'm trying to produce with the example in this question This would give me the ability to create containers for the types that I'll be <% var myType = new MyType(123, 234); %> <% var tag = new TagBuilder("div"); %> <% using(Html.BeginDiv<MyType>(myType, tag) %> <% { %> <!-- controls used for the configuration of MyType --> <!-- represented in the context of a HTML element, e.g.: --> <div class="MyType" prop1="123" prop2="234"> <!-- add a select here --> <!-- add a radio control here --> <!-- whatever, it represents elements in the context of their type --> </div> <% } %> I realise this will produce invalid XHTML, but I think there could be other benefits that outweigh this, especially since this project doesn't require that the XHTML validate to the W3C standards. Thanks Dave

    Read the article

  • HTML5: Rendering absolute images using canvas

    - by Mark
    I am experimenting with canvas as part of my HTML5 introduction. This constitutes as assignment work, but I am not asking for any help on the actual coursework at all. I am trying to write a rendering engine, but having no luck because once the image is drawn on canvas it looks very distorted, and not at the right dimensions of the image itself. I have made a animation engine that loads images into an array, and then iterates through them at a certain speed. This is not the problem, and I assume is not causing the issue as this was happening when I drawn an image to the canvas. I think this is natural behaviour for images to be scaled/skewed when the window is resized, so I conquered that by simply redrawing the whole thing once the window is resized. The images I am using are isometric, and drawn at a pixel level. Would this cause the distortion? It seems setting the dimensions on the drawImage() function are not working are all. I am using JavaScript for the manipulation and rendering of the canvas. I would normally try and work it out myself, but I do not have any time to ponder why because I have no idea why it is even scaling/skewing the image once it is drawn on the canvas. I cannot share the code for obvious reasons. I should also mention, the canvas's dimension is the total width of the viewport, as I am developing a game. My question is: Has anyone encountered this and how would I correct it? Thanks for your help.

    Read the article

  • Calling a method at a specific interval rate in C++

    - by Aetius
    This is really annoying me as I have done it before, about a year ago and I cannot for the life of me remember what library it was. Basically, the problem is that I want to be able to call a method a certain number of times or for a certain period of time at a specified interval. One example would be I would like to call a method "x" starting from now, 10 times, once every 0.5 seconds. Alternatively, call method "x" starting from now, 10 times, until 5 seconds have passed. Now I thought I used a boost library for this functionality but I can't seem to find it now and feeling a bit annoyed. Unfortunately I can't look at the code again as I'm not in possession of it any more. Alternatively, I could have dreamt this all up and it could have been proprietary code. Assuming there is nothing out there that does what I would like, what is currently the best way of producing this behaviour? It would need to be high-resolution, up to a millisecond. It doesn't matter if it blocks the thread that it is executed from or not. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Grep without storing search to the "/ register in Vim

    - by Phro
    In my .vimrc I have a mapping that makes a line of text 'title capitalized': noremap <Leader>at :s/\v<(.)(\w{2,})/\u\1\L\2/g<CR> However, whenever I run this function, it highlights every word that is at least three characters long in my entire document. Of course I could get this behaviour to stop simply by appending :nohlsearch<CR> to the end of the mapping, but this is more of an awkward hack that still avoids a bigger problem: The last search has been replaced by \v<(.)(\w{2,}). Is there any way to use the search commands in Vim without storing the last search in the "/ register; a 'silent' search of sorts? That way, after running this title-making command, I can still use my previous search to navigate the document using n, N, etc. Edit Using @brettanomyces' answer, I found that simply setting the mapping: noremap <Leader>at :call setline(line('.'),substitute(getline('.'), '\v<(.)(\w{2,})', '\u\1\L\2', 'g'))<CR> will successfully perform the substitution without storing the searched text into the / register.

    Read the article

  • CakePHP dropping session between pages

    - by DavidYell
    Hi, I have an application with multiple regions and various incoming links. The premise, well it worked before, is that in the app_controller, I break out these incoming links and set them in the session. So I have a huge beforeFilter() in my *app_controller* which catches these and sets two variables in the session. Viewing.region and Search.engine, no problem. The problem arises that the session does not seem to be persistant across page requests. So for example, going to /reviews/write (userReviews/add) should have a session available which was set when the user arrived at the site. Although it seems to have vanished! It would appear that unless $this-params is caught explicitly in the *app_controller* and a session variable written, it does not exist on other pages. So far I have tried, swapping between storing session in 'cake' and 'php' both seem to exhibit the same behaviour. I use 'php' as a default. My Session.timeout is '120', Session.checkAgent is False and Security.level is 'low'. All of which should give enough leniency to the framework to allow sessions the most room to live! I'm a bit stumped as to why the session seems to be either recreated or blanked when a new page is being requested. I have commented out the requestAction() calls to make sure that isn't confusing the session request object also, which doesn't seem to make a difference. Any help would be great, as I don't have to have to recode the site to pass all the various variables via parameters in the url, as that would suck, and it's worked before, thus switching on $this-Session-read('Viewing.region') in all my code!

    Read the article

  • Mapping many-to-many association table with extra column(s)

    - by user635524
    My database contains 3 tables: User and Service entities have many-to-many relationship and are joined with the SERVICE_USER table as follows: USERS - SERVICE_USER - SERVICES SERVICE_USER table contains additional BLOCKED column. What is the best way to perform such a mapping? These are my Entity classes @Entity @Table(name = "USERS") public class User implements java.io.Serializable { private String userid; private String email; @Id @Column(name = "USERID", unique = true, nullable = false,) public String getUserid() { return this.userid; } .... some get/set methods } @Entity @Table(name = "SERVICES") public class CmsService implements java.io.Serializable { private String serviceCode; @Id @Column(name = "SERVICE_CODE", unique = true, nullable = false, length = 100) public String getServiceCode() { return this.serviceCode; } .... some additional fields and get/set methods } I followed this example http://giannigar.wordpress.com/2009/09/04/m ... using-jpa/ Here is some test code: User user = new User(); user.setEmail("e2"); user.setUserid("ui2"); user.setPassword("p2"); CmsService service= new CmsService("cd2","name2"); List<UserService> userServiceList = new ArrayList<UserService>(); UserService userService = new UserService(); userService.setService(service); userService.setUser(user); userService.setBlocked(true); service.getUserServices().add(userService); userDAO.save(user); The problem is that hibernate persists User object and UserService one. No success with the CmsService object I tried to use EAGER fetch - no progress Is it possible to achieve the behaviour I'm expecting with the mapping provided above? Maybe there is some more elegant way of mapping many to many join table with additional column?

    Read the article

  • Question about how AppFabric's cache feature can be used.

    - by Kevin Buchan
    Question about how AppFabric's cache feature can be used. I apologize for asking a question that I should be able to answer from the documentation, but I have read and read and searched and cannot answer this question, which leads me to believe that I have a fundamentally flawed understanding of what AppFabric's caching capabilities are intended for. I work for a geographically disperse company. We have a particular application that was originally written as a client/server application. It’s so massive and business critical that we want to baby step converting it to a better architected solution. One of the ideas we had was to convert the app to read its data using WCF calls to a co-located web server that would cache communication with the database in the United States. The nature of the application is such that everyone will tend to be viewing the same 2000 records or so with only occasional updates and those updates will be made by a limited set of users. I was hoping that AppFabric’s cache mechanism would allow me to set up one global cache and when a user in Asia, for example, requested data that was not in the cache or was stale that the web server would read from the database in the USA, provide the data to the user, then update the cache which would propagate that data to the other web servers so that they would know not to go back to the database themselves. Can AppFabric work this way or should I just have the servers retrieve their own data from the database?

    Read the article

  • How do I make a lock that allows only ONE thread to read from the resource ?

    - by mare
    I have a file that holds an integer ID value. Currently reading the file is protected with ReaderWriterLockSlim as such: public int GetId() { _fileLock.EnterUpgradeableReadLock(); int id = 0; try { if(!File.Exists(_filePath)) CreateIdentityFile(); FileStream readStream = new FileStream(_filePath, FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read); StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(readStream); string line = sr.ReadLine(); sr.Close(); readStream.Close(); id = int.Parse(line); return int.Parse(line); } finally { SaveNextId(id); // increment the id _fileLock.ExitUpgradeableReadLock(); } } The problem is that subsequent actions after GetId() might fail. As you can see the GetId() method increments the ID every single time, disregarding what happens after it has issued an ID. The issued ID might be left hanging (as said, exceptions might occur). As the ID is incremented, some IDs might be left unused. So I was thinking of moving the SaveNextId(id) out, remove it (the SaveNextId() actually uses the lock too, except that it's EnterWriteLock). And call it manually from outside after all the required methods have executed. That brings out another problem - multiple threads might enter the GetId() method before the SaveNextId() gets executed and they might all receive the same ID. I don't want any solutions where I have to alter the IDs after the operation, correcting them in any way because that's not nice and might lead to more problems. I need a solution where I can somehow callback into the FileIdentityManager (that's the class that handles these IDs) and let the manager know that it can perform the saving of the next ID and then release the read lock on the file containing the ID. Essentialy I want to replicate the relational databases autoincrement behaviour - if anything goes wrong during row insertion, the ID is not used, it is still available for use but it also never happens that the same ID is issued. Hopefully the question is understandable enough for you to provide some solutions..

    Read the article

  • Textbox extends outside of the grid cell in .Net 4.0 (but not in 3.5)

    - by Bryant
    There seems to be a change in behaviour between .Net 3.5 and .Net 4.0. If I define a window as: <Window x:Class="WpfApplication1.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="MainWindow" Height="350" Width="500" > <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition MinWidth="300" /> <ColumnDefinition /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <TextBox Grid.Column="1" ScrollViewer.CanContentScroll="True" ScrollViewer.HorizontalScrollBarVisibility="Auto" Text="abc abc abc abc abc abc abc abc abcabc abc abcabc abc abc abc abc abc" /> </Grid> </Window> In .Net 3.5 the textbox correctly contains itself within the grid cell but in .Net 4.0 it extends beyond the cell and so gets clipped. This only happens if the MinWidth of the first column is greater than 50% of the overall width. Does anyone know how to get 4.0 to exhibit the same behavior as 3.5?

    Read the article

  • How to prevent onclick statements from being executed?

    - by ryanli
    I want to use an event listener for preventing the onclick statement of a submit button, however, using event.preventDefault() doesn't work as intended. The code is like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <script type="application/x-javascript"> function addListener() { document.getElementById("submit").addEventListener("click", function(ev) { alert("listener"); ev.preventDefault(); }, false); } </script> <title></title> </head> <body onload="addListener();"> <form id="form" method="post" target=""> <input type="submit" id="submit" onclick="alert('onclick')" value="test" /> </form> </body> </html> The expected behaviour is only "listener" will be alerted, but in practice (Firefox 3.7a5pre), "onclick" and "listener" are both alerted, in the given order. It seems that onclick is being executed before the listener, so event.preventDefault() doesn't work. Is there a way to prevent onclick from being executed?

    Read the article

  • "Permission denied" with Internet Explorer and jQuery

    - by rallex
    I try to do an AJAX call with jQuery and $.post in Internet Explorer, but all I get is an error saying "Permission denied". The problem is kinda weird since it occurs only when I access a page after I was on any other page. For instance I type the URL in the adress line and let IE load the page. Then I click on a button so the script should start loading JSON data. (The script providing the data lies on the same server and I access it with a relative URL, so using a different domain is not the problem here. Even tried to use a absolute URL with the same host part.) But when I refresh the page then and try it again it works! Same thing when I come to that page from another page. At first nothing works, but when I click "refresh" everything is fine. IE gives me the error message "Permission denied" while in every other browser I don't notice this behaviour. Since I have tried many things and still cannot imagine where the problem lies I'd like to ask you what you think the problem might be?

    Read the article

  • Can anyone provide a good "idiot's guide" to creating an installer in VS2008 (C#) Pro?

    - by paxdiablo
    I have Visual C# 2008 Professional and have developed the first half of a C# application (console mode) with the second half in progress now (GUI). I'm looking for an easy path to creating an installer for it. What are the steps that need to be taken to produce a professional installer? There's a similar question here regarding the Express edition but I have Pro, and I would like as much as possible to stick with just the standard VS stuff (if you think you can convince me that a third party installer creator is much better than a VS-only solution, give it a shot, by all means). Keep in mind that I have no interest in upgrading to VS2010 yet, even if it's a hundred times easier to create an installer. That can come later, when the revenue starts rolling in :-) Also be aware that the GUI component of this application is a totally separate executable from the console part. The console part is a simple "open file 1, do some work on it, write file 2" type and the GUI is a fairly standard "open file, do some stuff" beast so there's no tricky or wildly undocumented behaviour happening. Basically, I'm looking for (at least) the following: professional looking installer. ability to specify where the application files go. changes to the registry to allow double-clicks on my file extension to open the GUI app with the file as an argument. needs to install everything required (my stuff, .Net if required, and so on).

    Read the article

  • nServiceBus registering subscribers but subscribers not receiving messages

    - by Rob Ellis
    My subscriber queue isn't picking up messages. The only unusual aspect to this is that the publisher is receiving messages which are generated from a website (and then a class library) which are then WCF'd to the publisher who publishes on behalf of the website/class library. If I remove the publisher's <add Messages=""> then I get an error saying the publisher doesn't know where to route the messages. Help! I've almost cut'n'pasted the WcfIntegration and PubSub samples, so I don't know why it isn't working! PUBLISHER: <MsmqTransportConfig InputQueue="RSApp_InputQueue" ErrorQueue="error" NumberOfWorkerThreads="1" MaxRetries="5" /> <UnicastBusConfig DistributorControlAddress="" DistributorDataAddress="" ForwardReceivedMessagesTo=""> <MessageEndpointMappings> <add Messages="Messages" Endpoint="RSApp_InputQueue" /> </MessageEndpointMappings> </UnicastBusConfig> SUBSCRIBER: <!-- SUBSCRIBER --> <MsmqTransportConfig InputQueue="RSApp_SubscriberQueue" ErrorQueue="error" NumberOfWorkerThreads="1" MaxRetries="5" /> <UnicastBusConfig DistributorControlAddress="" DistributorDataAddress="" ForwardReceivedMessagesTo=""> <MessageEndpointMappings> <add Messages="Messages" Endpoint="RSApp_InputQueue" /> </MessageEndpointMappings> </UnicastBusConfig>

    Read the article

  • PHP download page: file_exists() returns true, but browser returns 'page not found'

    - by Chris
    I'm using PHP for a file download page. Here's a snippet of the problem code: if (file_exists($attachment_location)) { header($_SERVER["SERVER_PROTOCOL"] . " 200 OK"); header("Cache-Control: public"); // needed for i.e. header("Content-Type: application/zip"); header("Content-Transfer-Encoding: Binary"); header("Content-Length:".filesize($attachment_location)); header("Content-Disposition: attachment; filename=file.zip"); readfile($attachment_location); die("Hooray"); } else { die("Error: File not found."); } This code works absolutely fine when testing locally, but after deploying to the live server the browser returns a 'Page not found' error. I thought it might be an .htaccess issue, but all .htaccess files on the live server are identical to their local counterparts. My next guess would be the live server's PHP configuration, but I have no idea what PHP setting might cause this behaviour. The file_exists() function always returns true - I've checked this on the live server and it's always correctly picking up the file, its size etc., so it does have a handle on the file. It just won't perform the download! The main site is a Wordpress site, but this code isn't part of a Wordpress page - it's in a standalone directory within the site root. UPDATE: is_file() and is_readable() are both returning true for the file, so that's not the problem. The specific line that is causing the problem is: readfile($attachment_location) Everything up until that point is super happy.

    Read the article

  • Disabled input text color

    - by Incidently
    Hi The simple HTML below displays differently in Firefox and WebKit-based browsers (I checked in Safari, Chrome and iPhone). In Firefox both border and text have the same color (#880000), but in Safari the text gets a bit lighter (as if it had some transparency applied to it). Can I somehow fix this (remove this transparency in Safari)? UPDATE: Thank you for your answers. I don't need this for my work anymore (instead of disabling, I'm replacing input elements with styled div elements), but I'm still curious why this happens and if there is any way to control this behaviour ... <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <title></title> <style type="text/css"> input:disabled{ border:solid 1px #880000; background-color:#ffffff; color:#880000; } </style> </head> <body> <form action=""> <input type="text" value="disabled input box" disabled="disabled"/> </form> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • Web service failing when installed in seperate project from the website...

    - by Adam
    I am totally new to web services and cannot get mine to work. My setup is on VS 2008 using IIS. I have one solution file with 3 projects in it: website, code, and services. If I put my webservice into my website and call it locally then it will work fine (it's just a hello world web service). I want to put the service into a different location for use from multiple sites. I don't know what I'm doing wrong - i've read so much conflicting info regarding disco files, access files, silverlight, flash, java, etc. I just looking for quick simple steps to create a web service that I can access from javascript and deploy to a seperate website. End goal is to have functionality in webservices so that website will call via JS and run much smoother in the loading time and async calls. Do I need to create a disco file? Do I need to configure security? -- I know this is prob best, i'm just looking to get it working at all. Do I need to allow cross browser access on IIS or on my hosted server? Are there any quick reference websites that you can recommend? Should I be using WCF as new technology? - I saw this on MSDN but seems to be more for windows apps then web apps. I'm not getting any specific error codes. I have installed the firefox debugging tools (firebug) and I can see what the headers are but I don't know how to interpret them and there is no response being passed back. Any help is appreciated!!!

    Read the article

  • HTML form with single text field + preventing postback in Internet Explorer

    - by SudheerKovalam
    I have noticed a rather strange behaviour in IE. I have a HTML form with a single input text field and a submit button On Submit click I need to execute a client side JavaScript function that does the necessary. Now when I want to prevent the postback in the text field (on enter key press) I have added a key press JavaScript function that looks like this: <input type=text onkeypress="return OnEnterKeyPress(event)" /> function OnEnterKeyPress(event) { var keyNum = 0; if (window.event) // IE { keyNum = event.keyCode; } else if (event.which) // Netscape/Firefox/Opera { keyNum = event.which; } else return true; if (keyNum == 13) // Enter Key pressed, then start search, else do nothing. { OnButtonClick(); return false; } else return true; } Strangly this doesn't work. But if I pass the text field to the function : <input type=text onkeypress="return OnEnterKeyPress(this,event);" /> function OnEnterKeyPress(thisForm,event) { var keyNum = 0; if (window.event) // IE { keyNum = event.keyCode; } else if (event.which) // Netscape/Firefox/Opera { keyNum = event.which; } else return true; if (keyNum == 13) // Enter Key pressed, then start search, else do nothing. { OnButtonClick(); return false; } else return true; } I am able to prevent the postback. Can anyone confirm what is exactly happening here?? the HTML form has just one text box and a submit button The resultant o/p of the JavaScript function executed on submit is displayed in a HTML text area in a separate div.

    Read the article

  • How do I stop events from bubbling/multiple events with animated mouseovers?

    - by Kurucu
    I noticed a lot of JQuery answers on this, but I'm using MooTools... I have a Table of Contents which uses CSS Fixed positioning to keep it off to the left side, except for 20 pixels. The user hovers their cursor over the 20 pixels, which fires the DIV's mouseover event and the ToC slides fully into the page. When the cursor leaves, the ToC slides back to where it was. $('frameworkBreakdown').addEvents({ 'mouseover': function(event){ event = new Event(event); $('frameworkBreakdown').tween('left', 20); event.stop; }, 'mouseout': function(event){ event = new Event(event); $('frameworkBreakdown').tween('left', (10 - $('frameworkBreakdown').getStyle('width').toInt()) ); event.stop; } }); This works well (aside from unrelated issues) except that when I move the mouse on the DIV it starts to jitter, presumably because the contents of the DIV are also firing the event, or the event refires as the mouse tracks over the DIV. How can I stop this behaviour from occuring? Is there a standard method, or do I use some sort of nast global variable that determines whether effects are in action, and thus ignore the event?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 225 226 227 228 229 230 231 232 233 234 235 236  | Next Page >