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• CDI SessionScoped Bean instance remains unchanged when login with different user

  - by Jason Yang

  I've been looking for the workaround of this problem for rather plenty of time and no result, so I ask question here. Simply speaking, I'm using a CDI SessionScoped Bean User in my project to manage user information and display them on jsf pages. Also container-managed j_security_check is used to resolve authentication issue. Everything is fine if first logout with session.invalidate() and then login in the same browser tab with a different user. But when I tried to directly login (through login.jsf) with a new user without logout beforehand, I found the user information remaining unchanged. I debugged and found the User bean, as well as the HttpSession instance, always remaining the same if login with different users in the same browser, as long as session.invalidate() not invoked. But oddly, the session id did modified, and I've both checked in Java code and Firebug. org.apache.catalina.session.StandardSessionFacade@5d7b4092 StandardSession[c69a71d19f369d08b5dddbea2ef0] attrName = org.jboss.weld.context.conversation.ConversationIdGenerator : attrValue=org.jboss.weld.context.conversation.ConversationIdGenerator@583c9dd8 attrName = org.jboss.weld.context.ConversationContext.conversations : attrValue = {} attrName = org.jboss.weld.context.http.HttpSessionContext#org.jboss.weld.bean-Discipline-ManagedBean-class com.netease.qa.discipline.profile.User : attrValue = Bean: Managed Bean [class com.netease.qa.discipline.profile.User] with qualifiers [@Any @Default @Named]; Instance: com.netease.qa.discipline.profile.User@c497c7c; CreationalContext: org.jboss.weld.context.CreationalContextImpl@739efd29 attrName = javax.faces.request.charset : attrValue = UTF-8 org.apache.catalina.session.StandardSessionFacade@5d7b4092 StandardSession[c6ab4b0c51ee0a649ef696faef75] attrName = org.jboss.weld.context.conversation.ConversationIdGenerator : attrValue = org.jboss.weld.context.conversation.ConversationIdGenerator@583c9dd8 attrName = com.sun.faces.renderkit.ServerSideStateHelper.LogicalViewMap : attrValue = {-4968076393130137442={-7694826198761889564=[Ljava.lang.Object;@43ff5d6c}} attrName = org.jboss.weld.context.ConversationContext.conversations : attrValue = {} attrName = org.jboss.weld.context.http.HttpSessionContext#org.jboss.weld.bean-Discipline-ManagedBean-class com.netease.qa.discipline.profile.User : attrValue = Bean: Managed Bean [class com.netease.qa.discipline.profile.User] with qualifiers [@Any @Default @Named]; Instance: com.netease.qa.discipline.profile.User@c497c7c; CreationalContext: org.jboss.weld.context.CreationalContextImpl@739efd29 attrName = javax.faces.request.charset : attrValue = UTF-8 Above block contains two successive logins and their Session info. We can see that the instance(1st row) the same while session id(2nd row) different. Seems that session object is reused to contain different session id and CDI framework manages session bean life cycle in accordance with the session object only(?). I'm wondering whether there could be only one server-side session object within the same browser unless invalidated? Since I'm adopting j_security_check I fancy intercepting it and invalidating old session is not so easy. So is it possible to accomplish the goal without altering the CDI+JSF+j_security_check design that one can relogin with different account in the same or different tab within the same browser? Really look forward for your response. More info: Glassfish v3.1 is my appserver.

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• SQL Server 2008 Filestream Impersonation Access Denied error

  - by Adi

  I've been trying to upload a file to the database using SQL SERVER 2008 Filestream and Impersonation technique to save the file in the file system, but i keep getting Access Denied error; even though i've set the permissions for the impersonating user to the Filestream folder(C:\SQLFILESTREAM\Dev_DB). when i debugged the code, i found the server return a unc path(\Server_Name\MSSQLSERVER\v1\Dev_LMDB\dbo\FileData\File_Data\13C39AB1-8B91-4F5A-81A1-940B58504C17), which was not accessible through windows explorer. I've my web application hosted on local maching(Windows 7). SQL Server is located on a remote server(Windows Server 2008 R2). Sql authentication was used to call the stored procedure. Following is the code i've used to do the above operations. SqlCommand sqlCmd = new SqlCommand("AddFile"); sqlCmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; sqlCmd.Parameters.Add("@File_Name", SqlDbType.VarChar, 512).Value = filename; sqlCmd.Parameters.Add("@File_Type", SqlDbType.VarChar, 5).Value = Path.GetExtension(filename); sqlCmd.Parameters.Add("@Username", SqlDbType.VarChar, 20).Value = username; sqlCmd.Parameters.Add("@Output_File_Path", SqlDbType.VarChar, -1).Direction = ParameterDirection.Output; DAManager PDAM = new DAManager(DAManager.getConnectionString()); using (SqlConnection connection = (SqlConnection)PDAM.CreateConnection()) { connection.Open(); SqlTransaction transaction = connection.BeginTransaction(); WindowsImpersonationContext wImpersonationCtx; NetworkSecurity ns = null; try { PDAM.ExecuteNonQuery(sqlCmd, transaction); string filepath = sqlCmd.Parameters["@Output_File_Path"].Value.ToString(); sqlCmd = new SqlCommand("SELECT GET_FILESTREAM_TRANSACTION_CONTEXT()"); sqlCmd.CommandType = CommandType.Text; byte[] Context = (byte[])PDAM.ExecuteScalar(sqlCmd, transaction); byte[] buffer = new byte[4096]; int bytedRead; ns = new NetworkSecurity(); wImpersonationCtx = ns.ImpersonateUser(IMP_Domain, IMP_Username, IMP_Password, LogonType.LOGON32_LOGON_INTERACTIVE, LogonProvider.LOGON32_PROVIDER_DEFAULT); SqlFileStream sfs = new SqlFileStream(filepath, Context, System.IO.FileAccess.Write); while ((bytedRead = inFS.Read(buffer, 0, buffer.Length)) != 0) { sfs.Write(buffer, 0, bytedRead); } sfs.Close(); transaction.Commit(); } catch (Exception ex) { transaction.Rollback(); } finally { sqlCmd.Dispose(); connection.Close(); connection.Dispose(); ns.undoImpersonation(); wImpersonationCtx = null; ns = null; } } Can someone help me with this issue. Reference Exception: Type : System.ComponentModel.Win32Exception, System, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089 Message : Access is denied Source : System.Data Help link : NativeErrorCode : 5 ErrorCode : -2147467259 Data : System.Collections.ListDictionaryInternal TargetSite : Void OpenSqlFileStream(System.String, Byte[], System.IO.FileAccess, System.IO.FileOptions, Int64) Stack Trace : at System.Data.SqlTypes.SqlFileStream.OpenSqlFileStream(String path, Byte[] transactionContext, FileAccess access, FileOptions options, Int64 allocationSize) at System.Data.SqlTypes.SqlFileStream..ctor(String path, Byte[] transactionContext, FileAccess access, FileOptions options, Int64 allocationSize) at System.Data.SqlTypes.SqlFileStream..ctor(String path, Byte[] transactionContext, FileAccess access) Thanks

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• .NET Impersonate and file upload issues

  - by Jagd

  I have a webpage that allows a user to upload a file to a network share. When I run the webpage locally (within VS 2008) and try to upload the file, it works! However, when I deploy the website to the webserver and try to upload the file through the webpage, it doesn't work! The error being returned to me on the webserver says "Access to the path '\05prd1\emp\test.txt' is denied. So, obviously, this is a permissions issue. The network share is configured to allow full access both to me (NT authentication) and to the NETWORK SERVICE (which is .NET's default account and what we have set in our IIS application pool as the default user for this website). I have tried this with and without impersonation upon the webserver and neither way works, yet both ways work on my local machine (in other words, with and without impersonation works on my local machine). The code that does the file upload is below. Please note that the code below includes impersonation, but like I said above, I've tried it with and without impersonation and it's made no difference. if (fuCourses.PostedFile != null && fuCourses.PostedFile.ContentLength > 0) { System.Security.Principal.WindowsImpersonationContext impCtx; impCtx = ((System.Security.Principal.WindowsIdentity)User.Identity).Impersonate(); try { lblMsg.Visible = true; // The courses file to be uploaded HttpPostedFile file = fuCourses.PostedFile; string fName = file.FileName; string uploadPath = "\\\\05prd1\\emp\\"; // Get the file name if (fName.Contains("\\")) { fName = fName.Substring( fName.LastIndexOf("\\") + 1); } // Delete the courses file if it is already on \\05prd1\emp FileInfo fi = new FileInfo(uploadPath + fName); if (fi != null && fi.Exists) { fi.Delete(); } // Open new file stream on \\05prd1\emp and read bytes into it from file upload FileStream fs = File.Create(uploadPath + fName, file.ContentLength); using (Stream stream = file.InputStream) { byte[] b = new byte[4096]; int read; while ((read = stream.Read(b, 0, b.Length)) > 0) { fs.Write(b, 0, read); } } fs.Close(); lblMsg.Text = "File Successfully Uploaded"; lblMsg.ForeColor = System.Drawing.Color.Green; } catch (Exception ex) { lblMsg.Text = ex.Message; lblMsg.ForeColor = System.Drawing.Color.Red; } finally { impCtx.Undo(); } } Any help on this would be very appreciated!

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• Connected host failed to respond (internal NAT address)

  - by MostRandom

  I'm writing my first C# web application that connects to an XML based service. It requires that I present a certificate and feed the XML stream. It seems to authenticate properly but then it gives the following error: A connection attempt failed because the connected party did not properly respond after a period of time, or established connection failed because connected host has failed to respond 10.1.10.4:3128 The funny thing is that I'm not on a proxy or anything like that. I'm connecting directly to the internet. At one point I we did use a proxy that with internal NAT address. So my question is: Does Visual Studio have some sort of default proxy setting that I need to change? This IP is no longer used for anything, so I know that I don't need to use any proxy authentication code. using System; using System.Data; using System.Configuration; using System.Collections; using System.Web; using System.Net; using System.Security.Cryptography.X509Certificates; using System.Web.Security; using System.Web.UI; using System.Web.UI.WebControls; using System.Web.UI.WebControls.WebParts; using System.Web.UI.HtmlControls; namespace WebApplication1 { public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Uri requestURI = new Uri("*site omitted*"); //Create the Request Object HttpWebRequest pageRequest = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(requestURI); //After installing the cert on the server export a client cert to the working directory as Deluxe.cer string certFile = "*certificate omitted*"; X509Certificate cert = X509Certificate.CreateFromCertFile(certFile); //Pull in your Data, if it is from an external xml as below or create an xml string with variables if a dynamic post is required. string xmlPath = "*XML omitted*"; System.Xml.XmlDocument passXML = new System.Xml.XmlDocument(); passXML.Load(xmlPath); //XML String with the data needed to pass string postData = passXML.OuterXml; //Set the Request Object parameters pageRequest.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"; pageRequest.Method = "POST"; pageRequest.AllowWriteStreamBuffering = false; pageRequest.AllowAutoRedirect = false; pageRequest.ClientCertificates.Add(cert); postData = "xml_data=" + Server.UrlEncode(postData); pageRequest.ContentLength = postData.Length; //Create the Post Stream Object System.IO.StreamWriter postStream = new System.IO.StreamWriter(pageRequest.GetRequestStream()); //Write the data to the post stream postStream.Write(postData); postStream.Flush(); postStream.Close(); //Set the Response Object HttpWebResponse postResponse = (HttpWebResponse)pageRequest.GetResponse();

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• Using VCL for the web (intraweb) as a trick for adding web interface to a legacy non-tiered (2 tiers

  - by user193655

  My team is maintaining a huge Client Server win32 Delphi application. It is a client/server application (Thick client) that uses DevArt (SDAC) components to connect to SQL Server. The business logic is often "trapped" in Component's event handlers, anyway with some degree of refactoring it is doable to move the business logic in common units (a big part of this work has already been done during refactoring... Maintaing legacy applications someone else wrote is very frustrating, but this is a very common job). Now there is the request of a web interface, I have several options of course, in this question i want to focus on the VCL for the web (intraweb) option. The idea is to use the common code (the same pas files) for both the client/server application and the web application. I heard of many people that moved legacy apps from delphi to intraweb, but here I am trying to keep the Thick client too. The idea is to use common code, may be with some compiler directives to write specific code: {$IFDEF CLIENTSERVER} {here goes the thick client specific code} {$ELSE} {here goes the Intraweb specific code} {$ENDIF} Then another problem is the "migration plan", let's say I have 300 features and on the first release I will have only 50 of them available in the web application. How to keep track of it? I was thinking of (ab)using Delphi interfaces to handle this. For example for the User Authentication I could move all the related code in a procedure and declare an interface like: type IUserAuthentication= interface['{0D57624C-CDDE-458B-A36C-436AE465B477}'] procedure UserAuthentication; end; In this way as I implement the IUserAuthentication interface in both the applications (Thick Client and Intraweb) I know that That feature has been "ported" to the web. Anyway I don't know if this approach makes sense. I made a prototype to simulate the whole process. It works for a "Hello world" application, but I wonder if it makes sense on a large application or this Interface idea is only counter-productive and can backfire. My question is: does this approach make sense? (the Interface idea is just an extra idea, it is not so important as the common code part described above) Is it a viable option? I understand it depends a lot of the kind of application, anyway to be generic my one is in the CRM/Accounting domain, and the number of concurrent users on a single installation is typically less than 20 with peaks of 50. EXTRA COMMENT (UPDATE): I ask this question because since I don't have a n-tier application I see Intraweb as the unique option for having a web application that has common code with the thick client. Developing webservices from the Delphi code makes no sense in my specific case, so the alternative I have is to write the web interface using ASP.NET (duplicating the business logic), but in this case I cannot take advantage of the common code in an easy way. Yes I could use dlls maybe, but my code is not suitable for that.

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• WCF doesn't find client configuration

  - by ultraman69

  Hi ! I have a WCF service on server B. Then on the machine A is the client, which is a Windows service. In a separate dll stands all the business logic for this service. So my proxy for the WCF is on that side. I have 2 app.config (client side only) : 1 for the service and another one in the dll. So I tried (for test purpose) puting the servicemodel config section in both. Both still, it doesn't work, it says that it can't find the endpoint with that name and for that contract... What I'm trying to do here is modify the configuration programatically. Here' the code in the business layer dll : Dim ep As New EndpointAddress(New Uri(ConfigurationManager.AppSettings(nomServeurCible)), _ EndpointIdentity.CreateDnsIdentity(ConfigurationManager.AppSettings("Identity_" & nomServeurCible))) serviceCible = New ServiceProxy.ExecOperClient("wsHttp", ep) And here is a sample of the config file : <add key="TEST1" value="http://TEST1:8000/MySpacePerso/ExecOperService"/> <add key="TEST1_CertificateSerialNumber" value="10 hj 6y 7b 00 01 32 12 01 21"/> <add key="Identity_TEST1" value="TEST1"/> <system.serviceModel> <client> <endpoint address="http://SERV_NAME:8000/CSSTQDA/ExecOperService" binding="wsHttpBinding" behaviorConfiguration="myClientBehavior" bindingConfiguration="MybindingCon" contract="ExecOper.Service.IExecOper" name="wsHttp"> <identity> <dns value="SERV_CERT_NAME"/> </identity> </endpoint> </client> <bindings> <wsHttpBinding> <binding name="MybindingCon"> <security mode="Message"> <message clientCredentialType="UserName" /> </security> </binding> </wsHttpBinding> </bindings> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="ServiceTraitementBehavior"> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="True"/> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="True" /> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> <endpointBehaviors> <behavior name="myClientBehavior"> <clientCredentials> <serviceCertificate> <authentication certificateValidationMode="ChainTrust" revocationMode="NoCheck"/> </serviceCertificate> </clientCredentials> </behavior> </endpointBehaviors> </behaviors>

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• CSS rules not getting applied in JSPs ?

  - by lakshmanan

  Im building a web application using struts2. I have an authentication interceptor at the top of all the interceptors (I have set it up as such) which checks whether a user is logged in. If not, it will give a login page as result. In login page, I have some set of standard CSS rules which I use for all the JSPs in the app. But that login page coming via that interceptor is not getting applied with CSS rules. Don't know why. Here is my JSP login page. <%@ page language="java" contentType="text/html; charset=ISO-8859-1" pageEncoding="ISO-8859-1"%> <%@ taglib prefix="s" uri="/struts-tags" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <head> <link rel="stylesheet" href="styles/styles.css" type="text/css" /> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=ISO-8859-1"> <title>Projit Login </title> </head> <body> <div id="header"> <h1>Projit</h1> </div> <div id="col1"> <s:form action="/login.action"> <s:textfield name="some field" label="Enter somefield" /> <s:textfield name="username" label="Username" /> <s:password name="password" label="Password" /> <s:submit value="Sign In" /> </s:form> </div> <div id="col2"> <h3>Login</h3> </div> <div id="footer"> some footer </div> </body> </html> the css file is present in WebContent/styles/styles.css I am using eclipse for development. this problem of CSS rules not getting applied occurs at times for other jsps as well inspite of the CSS file being present in the correct location. I guess there must be some URL thing behind this problem. I have tried hard but it is not working till now. Please help.

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• Reporting Services as PDF through WebRequest in C# 3.5 "Not Supported File Type"

  - by Heath Allison

  I've inherited a legacy application that is supposed to grab an on the fly pdf from a reporting services server. Everything works fine up until the point where you try to open the pdf being returned and adobe acrobat tells you: Adobe Reader could not open 'thisStoopidReport'.pdf' because it is either not a supported file type or because the file has been damaged(for example, it was sent as an email attachment and wasn't correctly decoded). I've done some initial troubleshooting on this. If I replace the url in the WebRequest.Create() call with a valid pdf file on my local machine ie: @"C:temp/validpdf.pdf") then I get a valid PDF. The report itself seems to work fine. If I manually type the URL to the reporting services report that should generate the pdf file I am prompted for user authentication. But after supplying it I get a valid pdf file. I've replace the actual url,username,userpass and domain strings in the code below with bogus values for obvious reasons. WebRequest request = WebRequest.Create(@"http://x.x.x.x/reportServer?/reports/reportNam&rs:format=pdf&rs:command=render&rc:parameters=blahblahblah"); int totalSize = 0; request.Credentials = new NetworkCredential("validUser", "validPass", "validDomain"); request.Timeout = 360000; // 6 minutes in milliseconds. request.Method = WebRequestMethods.Http.Post; request.ContentLength = 0; WebResponse response = request.GetResponse(); Response.Clear(); BinaryReader reader = new BinaryReader(response.GetResponseStream()); Byte[] buffer = new byte[2048]; int count = reader.Read(buffer, 0, 2048); while (count > 0) { totalSize += count; Response.OutputStream.Write(buffer, 0, count); count = reader.Read(buffer, 0, 2048); } Response.ContentType = "application/pdf"; Response.Cache.SetCacheability(HttpCacheability.Private); Response.CacheControl = "private"; Response.Expires = 30; Response.AddHeader("Content-Disposition", "attachment; filename=thisStoopidReport.pdf"); Response.AddHeader("Content-Length", totalSize.ToString()); reader.Close(); Response.Flush(); Response.End();

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• Set maven to use archiva repositories WITHOUT using activeByDefault?

  - by Sam Levin

  I am very close to finally having a working setup with archiva and maven. The last thing that's really boggling me, is how to set up my internal and snapshot repositories - without using a profile which contains activeByDefault set to true. I am using a SUPER super pom - a company-wide pom which contains distributionManagement information for releases. I was thinking that I could specify the repositories in this pom, and configure the authentication settings in settings.xml? Can I use repositories tag without a profile? There should be no "profile" for my internal and snapshot repositories, as they will never change... What I'm trying to steer clear from, is using a "default" profile, which is active all the time. I hear activeByDefault is NOT a best practice and I don't intend to use it. With that said, how should I go about doing this? My internal repo is a mirror of the maven central repo, so I would like to lock down my developers to ONLY use our internal artifact server. Remember - I do NOT want a profile with activeByDefault set to true. I cannot stress this enough! Should I use Maven mirrors? Should I "add" additional repositories? If I take the repositories tag instead of the mirrors tag, will maven force builds to use ONLY my archiva settings, instead of the default maven central? Or is what I seek to accomplish able to be done using only the mirrors tag in maven? I know how to configure repo credentials when using repositories tag, but not with mirrors. How is this done? Is providing credentials for anything in mirrors tags the same as for anything in repositories tags? Am I missing something obvious? I've had it up to here with getting things up and running using maven. I know it will be worthwhile in the end, but it is surely causing me a ton of aggravation and resources seem to be sparse. Either that, or people are content using it however they please without regard to best-practices. Thank you

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• What to Return? Error String, Bool with Error String Out, or Void with Exception

  - by Ranger Pretzel

  I spend most of my time in C# and am trying to figure out which is the best practice for handling an exception and cleanly return an error message from a called method back to the calling method. For example, here is some ActiveDirectory authentication code. Please imagine this Method as part of a Class (and not just a standalone function.) bool IsUserAuthenticated(string domain, string user, string pass, out errStr) { bool authentic = false; try { // Instantiate Directory Entry object DirectoryEntry entry = new DirectoryEntry("LDAP://" + domain, user, pass); // Force connection over network to authenticate object nativeObject = entry.NativeObject; // No exception thrown? We must be good, then. authentic = true; } catch (Exception e) { errStr = e.Message().ToString(); } return authentic; } The advantages of doing it this way are a clear YES or NO that you can embed right in your If-Then-Else statement. The downside is that it also requires the person using the method to supply a string to get the Error back (if any.) I guess I could overload this method with the same parameters minus the "out errStr", but ignoring the error seems like a bad idea since there can be many reasons for such a failure... Alternatively, I could write a method that returns an Error String (instead of using "out errStr") in which a returned empty string means that the user authenticated fine. string AuthenticateUser(string domain, string user, string pass) { string errStr = ""; try { // Instantiate Directory Entry object DirectoryEntry entry = new DirectoryEntry("LDAP://" + domain, user, pass); // Force connection over network to authenticate object nativeObject = entry.NativeObject; } catch (Exception e) { errStr = e.Message().ToString(); } return errStr; } But this seems like a "weak" way of doing things. Or should I just make my method "void" and just not handle the exception so that it gets passed back to the calling function? void AuthenticateUser(string domain, string user, string pass) { // Instantiate Directory Entry object DirectoryEntry entry = new DirectoryEntry("LDAP://" + domain, user, pass); // Force connection over network to authenticate object nativeObject = entry.NativeObject; } This seems the most sane to me (for some reason). Yet at the same time, the only real advantage of wrapping those 2 lines over just typing those 2 lines everywhere I need to authenticate is that I don't need to include the "LDAP://" string. The downside with this way of doing it is that the user has to put this method in a try-catch block. Thoughts? Is there another way of doing this that I'm not thinking of?

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• .NET 2.0 Process Elevation for App Installation

  - by Brian Gillespie

  We have an application written in both C++ and .NET that installs for all users in the Program Files folder. This application downloads new versions of itself (as MSI installers) and spawns the new installer process to replace itself. The install process as it exists today: Copy an install manager app (C#, .NET 2.0) to the temp directory. Call this 'Manager' Manager is executed with elevated privs per this article. The original application exits. Manager spawns the MSI installer (with elevated privs, since the copy is elevated) Manager spawns the new version of the app. The bug: The newly installed app is running in an elevated state. This causes problems I won't enumerate here. Ideally, the launch of the newly installed app would be run with the permissions of the original user. I can't figure out how to demote the app back to being the standard user after elevation. An inelegant hack: (yeah, yeah, this whole process is inelegant anyway) Copy the install manager to the temp directory Run the install manager with standard user privs. Lets call this instance 'LowlyManager'. Original application exits. LowlyManager spawns the app again, this time with elevated privs. Let's name this instance 'UpperManagement' UpperManagement spawns the installer UpperManagement exits gracefully, returning the exit code of the installer. LowlyManager interprets the error code from UpperManagement, and spawns the newly installed application. This time as the original invoker. Is there a better way to do this? (I've left out a bunch of other details before and after these steps that make the process smoother for the user, but this should be enough to understand the core of the problem I'm trying to solve.) Other requirements: We can't install as a per-user app The user shouldn't be presented with an authentication dialog box if UAC would have simply asked "are you sure you want to allow this?". I think this might kill a solution using WindowsImpersonationContext, but I'm not sure. The system needs to work on XP, Vista, and Windows 7 (even if there is a separate process for XP).

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• The remote server returned an error: NotFound.

  - by xscape

  Hi, I'm trying to retrieve a string in my old webservice but it give me an error of The remote server returned an error: NotFound. and its InnerException is {System.Net.WebException: The remote server returned an error: NotFound. --- System.Net.WebException: The remote server returned an error: NotFound. at System.Net.Browser.BrowserHttpWebRequest.InternalEndGetResponse(IAsyncResult asyncResult) at System.Net.Browser.BrowserHttpWebRequest.<c_DisplayClass5.b_4(Object sendState) at System.Net.Browser.AsyncHelper.<c_DisplayClass2.b_0(Object sendState) --- End of inner exception stack trace --- at System.Net.Browser.AsyncHelper.BeginOnUI(SendOrPostCallback beginMethod, Object state) at System.Net.Browser.BrowserHttpWebRequest.EndGetResponse(IAsyncResult asyncResult) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelFactory.HttpRequestChannel.HttpChannelAsyncRequest.CompleteGetResponse(IAsyncResult result)} this is the method which error prompted, this method returns a string format void client_ValidateUserEncryptedCompleted(object sender, DummyWS.ValidateUserEncryptedCompletedEventArgs e) { object token = e.Result; client = new DummyWS.MachineHistoryWSSoapClient(); if (token != null) { client.GetSummaryXMLAsync(token, "", ""); } } I am currently using Silverlight 4.0 and my ServiceReferences.ClientConfig is <configuration> <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="MachineHistoryWSSoap" maxBufferSize="2147483647" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647"> <security mode="None" /> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <client> <endpoint address="http://localhost/MHVwsModified/MachineHistoryWS.asmx" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="MachineHistoryWSSoap" contract="DummyWS.MachineHistoryWSSoap" name="MachineHistoryWSSoap" /> </client> </system.serviceModel> My Web.Config in my web service is <configuration xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/.NetConfiguration/v2.0"> <system.web> <compilation debug="true"> <assemblies> <add assembly="System.Windows.Forms, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=B77A5C561934E089" /></assemblies></compilation> <authentication mode="Windows" /> </system.web> <system.webServer> <directoryBrowse enabled="true" /> </system.webServer> Any help will be aprreciated thank you.

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• Best Practices / Patterns for Enterprise Protection/Remediation of SSNs (Social Security Numbers)

  - by Erik Neu

  I am interested in hearing about enterprise solutions for SSN handling. (I looked pretty hard for any pre-existing post on SO, including reviewing the terriffic SO automated "Related Questions" list, and did not find anything, so hopefully this is not a repeat.) First, I think it is important to enumerate the reasons systems/databases use SSNs: (note—these are reasons for de facto current state—I understand that many of them are not good reasons) Required for Interaction with External Entities. This is the most valid case—where external entities your system interfaces with require an SSN. This would typically be government, tax and financial. SSN is used to ensure system-wide uniqueness. SSN has become the default foreign key used internally within the enterprise, to perform cross-system joins. SSN is used for user authentication (e.g., log-on) The enterprise solution that seems optimum to me is to create a single SSN repository that is accessed by all applications needing to look up SSN info. This repository substitutes a globally unique, random 9-digit number (ASN) for the true SSN. I see many benefits to this approach. First of all, it is obviously highly backwards-compatible—all your systems "just" have to go through a major, synchronized, one-time data-cleansing exercise, where they replace the real SSN with the alternate ASN. Also, it is centralized, so it minimizes the scope for inspection and compliance. (Obviously, as a negative, it also creates a single point of failure.) This approach would solve issues 2 and 3, without ever requiring lookups to get the real SSN. For issue #1, authorized systems could provide an ASN, and be returned the real SSN. This would of course be done over secure connections, and the requesting systems would never persist the full SSN. Also, if the requesting system only needs the last 4 digits of the SSN, then that is all that would ever be passed. Issue #4 could be handled the same way as issue #1, though obviously the best thing would be to move away from having users supply an SSN for log-on. There are a couple of papers on this: UC Berkely: http://bit.ly/bdZPjQ Oracle Vault: bit.ly/cikbi1

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• Job queue manager with RPC interface

  - by admr

  I need a job queue manager that I can control over the Internet. It should be able to execute and stop processes, check on their status (ideally notice and execute some code when a process exits), respond to commands and also be able to report back to a server. Background: I have a GWT application that allows to create jobs to execute on a cloud instance (currently EC2). I want to push a "job packet" (data for a process to operate on etc) to S3, start a Linux EC2 instance (or use one that's already running), and tell a job manager on the instance to execute that job (possibly parallel to other jobs). It should then pull the "job packet" from S3, run a process that operates on that data and report back to the server that is running the server part of my GWT application with some information (e.g. exit code, stdout, stderr). If I have to write e.g. stdour/err to a file from the process and read that file, that's OK too. I would really like the manager to be "close" to the processes it runs, meaning I want to avoid using something like Runtime.exec from the JDK. It seems like I would have to do that if I used Quartz for example. I'm fine with the calls in both directions being asynchronous. I'm fine with any reasonable technology for the calls as long as I can easily build an interface for that in my GWT server side (e.g. HTTP requests to a servlet over SSL would be nice and trivial). The job manager does not need to have a very sophisticated queueing system. Running several processes either sequentially or in parallel should be fine. Determining how much compute time a process received during its lifetime would be nice (AFAIK, this might be challenging). I did not yet find any existing software that does this, including http://java-source.net/open-source/job-schedulers. I suspect I might have to build an RPC interface (with authentication etc, of course) around a job manager; maybe use something like Apache Commons Exec. In that case, I would prefer Java or Python for the job manager part. I would be happy to hear suggestions for either the former or latter scenario!

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• Finding underlying cause of Window 7 Account corruption.

  - by Carl Jokl

  I have been having trouble with my Sister's computer which I built. It is running Windows 7 Ultimate x64. The problem is that I have had problems with the accounts becoming corrupted. First problems manifest themselves in the form of Windows saying the profile failed to be loaded properly and a temporary profile. Eventually the account will not allow login at all. An error message along the lines the authentication service failing the login. I have found information about this problem and how to fix it. The problem being that something has corrupted the account profile and backing up and recreating the accounts fixes the problem. I have been able to fix things and get logins working again but over the period of usually about a week it happens again. Bit by bit the accounts corrupt and then it is back to square one. I am frustrated because I don't know what the underlying cause of the problem is i.e. what is causing the accounts to be corrupted in the first place. At the moment I am just treating the symptoms. I was hoping someone who may have more experience with dealing with this problem might be able to help me find the root cause. Some articles suggest that Norton Internet Security is a big culprit of this problem which is installed. I could try uninstalling Norton and see if it helps. The one thing which is different about this computer to any other I have built is that it has a solid state drive. Actually it has both a hard drive and solid state drive. The documents and settings i.e. the Users directory is stored on the hard drive. This was done following an article about moving the user account data onto a separate drive on Windows 7 which I found on the Internet. Moving the User accounts is more of a pain under Windows 7 and this solution involved creating a low level file system link to the folder from the boot drive (Solid State) to the Hard Drive. The idea is that the computer behaves just as if it is accessing the User's folder from the boot drive but actually the data is stored on the hard drive. This may have nothing to do with the cause of the problem but due to the problem being user account corruption it is a possibility I have not been able to rule out. Any help would be appreciated as I would be glad to see the back of this problem.

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• NO FBML is working in iframe in facebook using PHP (ie or ff or anywhere else!)

  - by Cyprus106

  I have tried for three days now and gotten nowhere on this.... I absolutely can not get any "fb:" code to render anything! I've tried the exact code in the sandbox and it works fine. I've read through every search result I could find and gotten nowhere... I'm using a standard xd_receiver page, and in the body there's this line: < script src="http://static.ak.connect.facebook.com/js/api_lib/v0.4/XdCommReceiver.js" type="text/javascript"></script> Here's my index page. It's basically the stock facebook example code.... <?php require_once 'facebook-platform/php/facebook.php'; //Authentication Keys $appapikey = 'MY_KEY'; // obviously this is my real key $appsecret = 'MY_SECRET'; // same thing $facebook = new Facebook($appapikey, $appsecret); $user_id = $facebook->require_login(); ?> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xmlns:fb="http://www.facebook.com/2008/fbml"> <head></head> <body> <script src="http://static.ak.connect.facebook.com/js/api_lib/v0.4/FeatureLoader.js.php" type="text/javascript"></script> <? echo "<p>Hello, <fb:name uid=\"$user_id\" useyou=\"false\"></fb:name>!</p>"; ?> <script type="text/javascript"> FB_RequireFeatures(["XFBML"], function(){ FB.Facebook.init("<?php echo $appapikey; ?>", "xd_receiver.htm"); }); </script> </body> </html> oddly enough, when I put this code below where it echos the logged in user's name, it does show the id numbers of friends. But again, it won't render their names <?php friends.get API method echo "<p>Friends:"; $friends = $facebook->api_client->friends_get(); $friends = array_slice($friends, 0, 25); foreach ($friends as $friend) { echo "<br>".$friend." - <fb:name uid=\".$user_id.\" useyou=\"false\"></fb:name>"; } echo "</p>"; ?> Here's my settings: Canvas Callback URL http://www.my-actual-website.com/test/ Canvas URL http://apps.facebook.com/gogre_testapp/ FBML/iframe iframe Application Type Website Post-Remove URL http://www.my-actual-website.com/test/ Post-Authorize URL http://www.my-actual-website.com/test/ Please, somebody help me out! I've been trying unsuccessfully for days

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• Validate an Xml file against a DTD with a proxy. C# 2.0

  - by Chris Dunaway

  I have looked at many examples for validating an XML file against a DTD, but have not found one that allows me to use a proxy. I have a cXml file as follows (abbreviated for display) which I wish to validate: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <!DOCTYPE cXML SYSTEM "http://xml.cxml.org/schemas/cXML/1.2.018/InvoiceDetail.dtd"> <cXML payloadID="123456" timestamp="2009-12-10T10:05:30-06:00"> <!-- content snipped --> </cXML> I am trying to create a simple C# program to validate the xml against the DTD. I have tried code such as the following but cannot figure out how to get it to use a proxy: private static bool isValid = false; static void Main(string[] args) { try { XmlTextReader r = new XmlTextReader(args[0]); XmlReaderSettings settings = new XmlReaderSettings(); XmlDocument doc = new XmlDocument(); settings.ProhibitDtd = false; settings.ValidationType = ValidationType.DTD; settings.ValidationEventHandler += new ValidationEventHandler(v_ValidationEventHandler); XmlReader validator = XmlReader.Create(r, settings); while (validator.Read()) ; validator.Close(); // Check whether the document is valid or invalid. if (isValid) Console.WriteLine("Document is valid"); else Console.WriteLine("Document is invalid"); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.WriteLine(ex.ToString()); } } static void v_ValidationEventHandler(object sender, ValidationEventArgs e) { isValid = false; Console.WriteLine("Validation event\n" + e.Message); } The exception I receive is System.Net.WebException: The remote server returned an error: (407) Proxy Authentication Required. which occurs on the line while (validator.Read()) ; I know I can validate against a DTD locally, but I don't want to change the xml DOCTYPE since that is what the final form needs to be (this app is solely for diagnostic purposes). For more information about the cXML spec, you can go to cxml.org. I appreciate any assistance. Thanks

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• How would a php or java client authenticate if I'm using WCF w/ forms auth?

  - by Toran Billups

  I have a generic proof of concept WCF service that is using forms authentication to secure access. All works great when my client is .NET (vb code below) Dim client As SupplierServiceClient = New SupplierServiceClient() client.ClientCredentials.UserName.UserName = "[email protected]" client.ClientCredentials.UserName.Password = "password" Dim SupplierList As List(Of Supplier) = client.GetSuppliers() but as I want this to interop w/ anyone who can do SOAP 1.1/1.2 - how would a PHP or Java client connect? My WCF web.config is listed below (fyi) <system.serviceModel> <services> <service name="SampleApplicationWCF.Library.SupplierService" behaviorConfiguration="NorthwindBehavior"> <endpoint address="" name="wsHttpSupplierService" contract="SampleApplicationWCF.Library.ISupplierService" binding="wsHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="wsHttp"/> <endpoint address="https://server/SampleApplicationWCF/SupplierService.svc/Basic" name="basicHttpSupplierService" contract="SampleApplicationWCF.Library.ISupplierService" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="basicHttp"/> <endpoint contract="IMetadataExchange" binding="mexHttpBinding" address="mex"/> </service> </services> <bindings> <wsHttpBinding> <binding name="wsHttp"> <security mode="TransportWithMessageCredential"> <transport/> <message clientCredentialType="UserName" negotiateServiceCredential="false" establishSecurityContext="true"/> </security> </binding> </wsHttpBinding> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="basicHttp"> <security mode="TransportWithMessageCredential"> <transport/> <message clientCredentialType="UserName"/> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="NorthwindBehavior"> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="true"/> <serviceAuthorization principalPermissionMode="UseAspNetRoles"/> <serviceCredentials> <userNameAuthentication userNamePasswordValidationMode="MembershipProvider"/> </serviceCredentials> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> </system.serviceModel>

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• Asp.net login problem.

  - by Catarrunas

  Hello, im building a asp.net web site with 2.0 framework. I've been "fighting" with web.config, i've changed it quiet some times. So to start from scracht this is what i have: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-16"?> <configuration> <connectionStrings> <remove name="LocalSqlServer"/> <add name="ABC" connectionString="Database=jsilvaqqc.mdf; Data Source=213.175.208.3;Initial Catalog=jsilvaqqc;User ID=jsilva;Password=joao123#;" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient"/> <add name="LocalSqlServer" connectionString="Database=jsilvaqqc.mdf; Data Source=213.175.208.3;Initial Catalog=jsilvaqqc;User ID=jsilva;Password=joao123#;" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient"/> </connectionStrings> <location path="Members"> <system.web> <authorization> <allow users="*"/> <deny users="?"/> </authorization> </system.web> </location> <system.web> <compilation debug="true"/> </system.web></configuration> It works fine im my machine. I've created the users for the login and the role to access the "Members" folder. But in my host company, it doesnt work. I have the aspnet database from my computer in that databese "jsilvaqqc.mdf". When i try to log on pops up box requiring autentication. But i've alreadu given that in the log in form. Do i need aspnet "authentication" tag? Why dont i need it in my machine if i access the same database? Thanks for you help.

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• Internet Explorer buggy when accessing a custom weblogic provider

  - by James

  I've created a custom Weblogic Security Authentication Provider on version 10.3 that includes a custom login module to validate users. As part of the provider, I've implemented the ServletAuthenticationFilter and added one filter. The filter acts as a common log on page for all the applications within the domain. When we access any secured URLs by entering them in the address bar, this works fine in IE and Firefox. But when we bookmark the link in IE an odd thing happens. If I click the bookmark, you will see our log on page, then after you've successfully logged into the system the basic auth page will display, even though the user is already authenticated. This never happens in Firefox, only IE. It's also intermittent. 1 time out of 5 IE will correctly redirect and not show the basic auth window. Firefox and Opera will correctly redirect everytime. We've captured the response headers and compared the success and failures, they are identical. final boolean isAuthenticated = authenticateUser(userName, password, req); // Send user on to the original URL if (isAuthenticated) { res.sendRedirect(targetURL); return; } As you can see, once the user is authenticated I do a redirect to the original URL. Is there a step I'm missing? The authenticateUser() method is taken verbatim from an example in Oracle's documents. private boolean authenticateUser(final String userName, final String password, HttpServletRequest request) { boolean results; try { ServletAuthentication.login(new CallbackHandler() { @Override public void handle(Callback[] callbacks) throws IOException, UnsupportedCallbackException { for (Callback callback : callbacks) { if (callback instanceof NameCallback) { NameCallback nameCallback = (NameCallback) callback; nameCallback.setName(userName); } if (callback instanceof PasswordCallback) { PasswordCallback passwordCallback = (PasswordCallback) callback; passwordCallback.setPassword(password.toCharArray()); } } } }, request); results = true; } catch (LoginException e) { results = false; } return results; I am asking the question here because I don't know if the issue is with the Weblogic config or the code. If this question is more suited to ServerFault please let me know and I will post there. It is odd that it works everytime in Firefox and Opera but not in Internet Explorer. I wish that not using Internet Explorer was an option but it is currently the company standard. Any help or direction would be appreciated. I have tested against IE 6 & 8 and deployed the custom provider on 3 different environments and I can still reproduce the bug.

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• Combined sign in and registration page?

  - by Ryan

  This is somewhat against rails convention but I am trying to have one controller that manages both user session authentication and user registration. I am having troubles figuring out how to go about this. So far I am merging the User Controller and the Sessions Controller and having the 'new' method deliver both a new usersession and a new user instance. With the new routes in rails 3 though, I am having trouble figuring out how to generate forms for these items. Below is the code: user_controller.rb class UserController < ApplicationController def new @user_session = UserSession.new @user = User.new end def create_user @user = User.new(params[:user]) if @user.save flash[:notice] = "Account Successfully Registered" redirect_back_or_default signup_path else render :action => new end end def create_session @user_session = UserSession.new(params[:user_session]) if @user_session.save flash[:notice] = "Login successful!" redirect_back_or_default login_path else render :action => new end end end views/user/new.html.erb <div id="login_section"> <% form_for @user_session do |f| -%> <%= f.label :email_address, "Email Address" %> <%= f.text_field :email %> <%= f.label :password, "Password" %> <%= f.text_field :password %> <%= f.submit "Login", :disable_with => 'Logining...' %> <% end -%> </div> <div id="registration_section"> <% form_for @user do |f| -%> <%= f.label :email_address, "Email Address" %> <%= f.text_field :email %> <%= f.label :password, "Password" %> <%= f.text_field :password %> <%= f.label :password_confirmation, "Password Confirmation" %> <%= f.text_field :password_confirmation %> <%= f.submit "Register", :disable_with => 'Logining...' %> <% end -%> </div> I imagine I will need to use :url = something for those forms, but I am unsure how to specify. Within routes.rb I have yet to specify either Usersor UserSessions as resources (not convinced that this is the best way to do it... but I could be). I would like, however, the registration and login on the same page and have implemented this by doing the following: routes.rb match 'signup' => 'user#new' match 'login' => 'user#new' What's the best way to go about solving this?

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• Rails send mail with GMail

  - by Danny McClelland

  Hi Everyone, I am on rails 2.3.5 and have the latest Ruby installed and my application is running well, except, GMail emails. I am trying to setup my gmail imap connection which has worked previously but now doesnt want to know. This is my code: # Be sure to restart your server when you modify this file # Uncomment below to force Rails into production mode when # you don't control web/app server and can't set it the proper way # ENV['RAILS_ENV'] ||= 'production' # Specifies gem version of Rails to use when vendor/rails is not present RAILS_GEM_VERSION = '2.3.5' unless defined? RAILS_GEM_VERSION # Bootstrap the Rails environment, frameworks, and default configuration require File.join(File.dirname(__FILE__), 'boot') Rails::Initializer.run do |config| # Gems config.gem "capistrano-ext", :lib => "capistrano" config.gem "configatron" # Make Time.zone default to the specified zone, and make Active Record store time values # in the database in UTC, and return them converted to the specified local zone. config.time_zone = "London" # The internationalization framework can be changed to have another default locale (standard is :en) or more load paths. # All files from config/locales/*.rb,yml are added automatically. # config.i18n.load_path << Dir[File.join(RAILS_ROOT, 'my', 'locales', '*.{rb,yml}')] #config.i18n.default_locale = :de # Your secret key for verifying cookie session data integrity. # If you change this key, all old sessions will become invalid! # Make sure the secret is at least 30 characters and all random, # no regular words or you'll be exposed to dictionary attacks. config.action_controller.session = { :session_key => '_base_session', :secret => '7389ea9180b15f1495a5e73a69a893311f859ccff1ffd0fa2d7ea25fdf1fa324f280e6ba06e3e5ba612e71298d8fbe7f15fd7da2929c45a9c87fe226d2f77347' } config.active_record.observers = :user_observer end ActiveSupport::CoreExtensions::Date::Conversions::DATE_FORMATS.merge!(:default => '%d/%m/%Y') ActiveSupport::CoreExtensions::Time::Conversions::DATE_FORMATS.merge!(:default => '%d/%m/%Y') require "will_paginate" ActionMailer::Base.delivery_method = :smtp ActionMailer::Base.smtp_settings = { :enable_starttls_auto => true, :address => "smtp.gmail.com", :port => 587, :domain => "XXXXXXXX.XXX", :authentication => :plain, :user_name => "XXXXXXXXXX.XXXXXXXXXX.XXX", :password => "XXXXX" } But the above just results in an SMTP auth error in the production log. I have read varied reports of this not working in Rails 2.2.2 but nothing for 2.3.5, anyone got any ideas? Thanks, Danny

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• Should I skip authorization, with CanCan, of an action that instantiates a resource?

  - by irkenInvader

  I am writing a web app to pick random lists of cards from larger, complete sets of cards. I have a Card model and a CardSet model. Both models have a full RESTful set of 7 actions (:index, :new, :show, etc). The CardSetsController has an extra action for creating random sets: :random. # app/models/card_set.rb class CardSet < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :creator, :class_name => "User" has_many :memberships has_many :cards, :through => :memberships # app/models/card.rb class Card < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :creator, :class_name => "User" has_many :memberships has_many :card_sets, :through => :memberships I have added Devise for authentication and CanCan for authorizations. I have users with an 'editor' role. Editors are allowed to create new CardSets. Guest users (Users who have not logged in) can only use the :index and :show actions. These authorizations are working as designed. Editors can currently use both the :random and the :new actions without any problems. Guest users, as expected, cannot. # app/controllers/card_sets_controller.rb class CardSetsController < ApplicationController before_filter :authenticate_user!, :except => [:show, :index] load_and_authorize_resource I want to allow guest users to use the :random action, but not the :new action. In other words, they can see new random sets, but not save them. The "Save" button on the :random action's view is hidden (as designed) from the guest users. The problem is, the first thing the :random action does is build a new instance of the CardSet model to fill out the view. When cancan tries to load_and_authorize_resource a new CardSet, it throws a CanCan::AccessDenied exception. Therefore, the view never loads and the guest user is served a "You need to sign in or sign up before continuing" message. # app/controllers/card_sets_controllers.rb def random @card_set = CardSet.new( :name => "New Set of 10", :set_type => "Set of 10" ) I realize that I can tell load_and_authorize_resource to skip the :random action by passing :except => :random to the call, but that just feels "wrong" for some reason. What's the "right" way to do this? Should I create the new random set without instantiating a new CardSet? Should I go ahead and add the exception?

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• Feedback on Optimizing C# NET Code Block

  - by Brett Powell

  I just spent quite a few hours reading up on TCP servers and my desired protocol I was trying to implement, and finally got everything working great. I noticed the code looks like absolute bollocks (is the the correct usage? Im not a brit) and would like some feedback on optimizing it, mostly for reuse and readability. The packet formats are always int, int, int, string, string. try { BinaryReader reader = new BinaryReader(clientStream); int packetsize = reader.ReadInt32(); int requestid = reader.ReadInt32(); int serverdata = reader.ReadInt32(); Console.WriteLine("Packet Size: {0} RequestID: {1} ServerData: {2}", packetsize, requestid, serverdata); List<byte> str = new List<byte>(); byte nextByte = reader.ReadByte(); while (nextByte != 0) { str.Add(nextByte); nextByte = reader.ReadByte(); } // Password Sent to be Authenticated string string1 = Encoding.UTF8.GetString(str.ToArray()); str.Clear(); nextByte = reader.ReadByte(); while (nextByte != 0) { str.Add(nextByte); nextByte = reader.ReadByte(); } // NULL string string string2 = Encoding.UTF8.GetString(str.ToArray()); Console.WriteLine("String1: {0} String2: {1}", string1, string2); // Reply to Authentication Request MemoryStream stream = new MemoryStream(); BinaryWriter writer = new BinaryWriter(stream); writer.Write((int)(1)); // Packet Size writer.Write((int)(requestid)); // Mirror RequestID if Authenticated, -1 if Failed byte[] buffer = stream.ToArray(); clientStream.Write(buffer, 0, buffer.Length); clientStream.Flush(); } I am going to be dealing with other packet types as well that are formatted the same (int/int/int/str/str), but different values. I could probably create a packet class, but this is a bit outside my scope of knowledge for how to apply it to this scenario. If it makes any difference, this is the Protocol I am implementing. http://developer.valvesoftware.com/wiki/Source_RCON_Protocol

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• using a Singleton to pass credentials in a multi-tenant application a code smell?

  - by Hans Gruber

  Currently working on a multi-tenant application that employs Shared DB/Shared Schema approach. IOW, we enforce tenant data segregation by defining a TenantID column on all tables. By convention, all SQL reads/writes must include a Where TenantID = '?' clause. Not an ideal solution, but hindsight is 20/20. Anyway, since virtually every page/workflow in our app must display tenant specific data, I made the (poor) decision at the project's outset to employ a Singleton to encapsulate the current user credentials (i.e. TenantID and UserID). My thinking at the time was that I didn't want to add a TenantID parameter to each and every method signature in my Data layer. Here's what the basic pseudo-code looks like: public class UserIdentity { public UserIdentity(int tenantID, int userID) { TenantID = tenantID; UserID = userID; } public int TenantID { get; private set; } public int UserID { get; private set; } } public class AuthenticationModule : IHttpModule { public void Init(HttpApplication context) { context.AuthenticateRequest += new EventHandler(context_AuthenticateRequest); } private void context_AuthenticateRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { var userIdentity = _authenticationService.AuthenticateUser(sender); if (userIdentity == null) { //authentication failed, so redirect to login page, etc } else { //put the userIdentity into the HttpContext object so that //its only valid for the lifetime of a single request HttpContext.Current.Items["UserIdentity"] = userIdentity; } } } public static class CurrentUser { public static UserIdentity Instance { get { return HttpContext.Current.Items["UserIdentity"]; } } } public class WidgetRepository: IWidgetRepository{ public IEnumerable<Widget> ListWidgets(){ var tenantId = CurrentUser.Instance.TenantID; //call sproc with tenantId parameter } } As you can see, there are several code smells here. This is a singleton, so it's already not unit test friendly. On top of that you have a very tight-coupling between CurrentUser and the HttpContext object. By extension, this also means that I have a reference to System.Web in my Data layer (shudder). I want to pay down some technical debt this sprint by getting rid of this singleton for the reasons mentioned above. I have a few thoughts on what an better implementation might be, but if anyone has any guidance or lessons learned they could share, I would be much obliged.

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