Search Results

Search found 19359 results on 775 pages for 'domain names'.

Page 234/775 | < Previous Page | 230 231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240 241  | Next Page >

  • How do I combine two arrays in PHP based on a common key?

    - by Eoghan O'Brien
    Hi, I'm trying to join two associative arrays together based on an entry_id key. Both arrays come from individual database resources, the first stores entry titles, the second stores entry authors, the key=value pairs are as follows: array ( 'entry_id' => 1, 'title' => 'Test Entry' ) array ( 'entry_id' => 1, 'author_id' => 2 I'm trying to achieve an array structure like: array ( 'entry_id' => 1, 'author_id' => 2, 'title' => 'Test Entry' ) Currently, I've solved the problem by looping through each array and formatting the array the way I want, but I think this is a bit of a memory hog. $entriesArray = array(); foreach ($entryNames as $names) { foreach ($entryAuthors as $authors) { if ($names['entry_id'] === $authors['entry_id']) { $entriesArray[] = array( 'id' => $names['entry_id'], 'title' => $names['title'], 'author_id' => $authors['author_id'] ); } } } I'd like to know is there an easier, less memory intensive method of doing this?

    Read the article

  • Testing subpackage modules in Python 3

    - by Mitchell Model
    I have been experimenting with various uses of hierarchies like this and the differences between absolute and relative imports, and can't figure out how to do routine things with the package, subpackages, and modules without simply putting everything on sys.path. I have a two-level package hierarchy: MyApp __init__.py Application __init__.py Module1 Module2 ... Domain __init__.py Module1 Module2 ... UI __init__.py Module1 Module2 ... I want to be able to do the following: Run test code in a Module's "if main" when the module imports from other modules in the same directory. Have one or more test code modules in each subpackage that runs unit tests on the modules in the subpackage. Have a set of unit tests that reside in someplace reasonable, but outside the subpackages, either in a sibling package, at the top-level package, or outside the top-level package (though all these might end up doing is running the tests in each subpackage) "Enter" the structure from any of the three subpackage levels, e.g. run code that just uses Domain modules, run code that just uses Application modules, but Application uses code from both Application and Domain modules, and run code from GUI uses code from both GUI and Application; for instance, Application test code would import Application modules but not Domain modules. After developing the bulk of the code without subpackages, continue developing and testing after organizing the modules into this hierarchy. I know how to use relative imports so that external code that puts MyApp on its sys.path can import MyApp, import any subpackages it wants, and import things from their modules, while the modules in each subpackage can import other modules from the same subpackage or from sibling packages. However, the development needs listed above seem incompatible with subpackage structuring -- in other words, I can't have it both ways: a well-structured multi-level package hierarchy used from the outside and also used from within, in particular for testing but also because modules from one design level (in particular the UI) should not import modules from a design level below the next one down. Sorry for the long essay, but I think it fairly represents the struggles a lot of people have been having adopting to the new relative import mechanisms.

    Read the article

  • How can I see which shared folders my program has access to?

    - by Kasper Hansen
    My program needs to read and write to folders on other machines that might be in another domain. So I used the System.Runtime.InteropServices to add shared folders. This worked fine when it was hard coded in the main menu of my windows service. But since then something went wrong and I don't know if it is a coding error or configuration error. What is the scope of a shared folder? If a thread in my program adds a shared folder, can the entire local machine see it? Is there a way to view what shared folders has been added? Or is there a way to see when a folder is added? [DllImport("NetApi32.dll", SetLastError = true, CharSet = CharSet.Unicode)] internal static extern System.UInt32 NetUseAdd(string UncServerName, int Level, ref USE_INFO_2 Buf, out uint ParmError); [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential, CharSet = CharSet.Unicode)] internal struct USE_INFO_2 { internal LPWSTR ui2_local; internal LPWSTR ui2_remote; internal LPWSTR ui2_password; internal DWORD ui2_status; internal DWORD ui2_asg_type; internal DWORD ui2_refcount; internal DWORD ui2_usecount; internal LPWSTR ui2_username; internal LPWSTR ui2_domainname; } private void AddSharedFolder(string name, string domain, string username, string password) { if (name == null || domain == null || username == null || password == null) return; USE_INFO_2 useInfo = new USE_INFO_2(); useInfo.ui2_remote = name; useInfo.ui2_password = password; useInfo.ui2_asg_type = 0; //disk drive useInfo.ui2_usecount = 1; useInfo.ui2_username = username; useInfo.ui2_domainname = domain; uint paramErrorIndex; uint returnCode = NetUseAdd(String.Empty, 2, ref useInfo, out paramErrorIndex); if (returnCode != 0) { throw new Win32Exception((int)returnCode); } }

    Read the article

  • Setting directory security to allow user and deny all

    - by Rita
    I have winforms app, in which I need to access a secured directory. I'm using impersonation and create WindowsIdentity to access the folder. My problem is writing unit tests to test the directory security; I'd like to a write a code that creates a directory secured to only ONE user, which isn't the current user running the UT (or else the test would be worthless). I know how to add permissions to a certain user, but how can I deny the rest, including admins? (in case the user running the UT is an admin) (will this be a wise thing to do?) DirectoryInfo directoryInfo = new DirectoryInfo(path); DirectorySecurity directorySecurity = directoryInfo.GetAccessControl(); directorySecurity.AddAccessRule(new FileSystemAccessRule("Domain\SecuredUser", FileSystemRights.FullControl, InheritanceFlags.ContainerInherit | InheritanceFlags.ObjectInherit, PropagationFlags.InheritOnly, AccessControlType.Allow)); directorySecurity.RemoveAccessRule(new FileSystemAccessRule("??", FileSystemRights.FullControl, InheritanceFlags.ContainerInherit | InheritanceFlags.ObjectInherit, PropagationFlags.InheritOnly, AccessControlType.Deny)); directoryInfo.SetAccessControl(directorySecurity); This isn't working. I don't know who am I supposed to deny. Domain\Admins, Domain\Administrators, me... No one is being denied, and when I check folder's security - The SecuredUser has access to the folder, but the permissions are not checked, even though I specified FullControl. Basically I want to code this: <authorization> <allow users ="Domain\User" /> <deny users="*" /> </authorization> I was thinking about impersonating UT run with a weak user with no permissions, but this would result in: Impersonate - Run UT - Impersonate - Access folder, and I'm not sure if this is the right design. Help would be greatly appreciated, thank you.

    Read the article

  • Paypal Error - IPN Validation Failed.

    - by user504178
    Hello , I am getting below error. [12/26/2010 5:48 AM] - FAIL: IPN Validation Failed. IPN POST Vars from Paypal: auth=A76zglTH7sCSLAVjZISTEp38SYXWAoNlO1uurxDvnlFy40uy-mlrvqkp_S5q3bFhVBbO2GwpJRvdYDvfQuM0581EYkEITS1SnDzfWV-ju60OZm_VzHsc8o2Q8K7mmZuDs9ANFwW9iIP2Ig8fGPSwZN8APK2PtCMIda28rBnNMJ2FWaeNKgmzTCuG5HnpzLD7ZtTCElp4MC05kyx9Ro-9ggqzVx7OU1zleJ_c1W, form_charset=UTF-8, IPN Response from Paypal Server: HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date: Sun, 26 Dec 2010 10:48:50 GMT Server: Apache Set-Cookie: c9MWDuvPtT9GIMyPc3jwol1VSlO=Ejohjh-kFgFpKAeNiYlgG8LwsLOi5Sir4Ut7tXINWaRmWM2eNXfFkJRQmO09WqBbXWIpXd0ydzrS7JMWO0sHZMg0Wfdd4gt6UcpSswiiUl2EfiP_ykxKJOFOzcjMrn_6xzc8GG%7c5mvwkJOzeFg-vpKR1fovKAVDyvmzI5sFbPatUC6gbf9Wk4Llel4btOJa7uQbYSLhuprHVG%7c537g5xvn4Hns8l-HE1pnyQ2GUAxcSINm-oVJENMuU6yS_bYa4IAw4QlGP-0zq80pjZa5j0%7c1293360531; domain=.paypal.com; path=/ Set-Cookie: cookie_check=yes; expires=Wed, 23-Dec-2020 10:48:51 GMT; domain=.paypal.com; path=/ Set-Cookie: navcmd=_notify-validate; domain=.paypal.com; path=/ Set-Cookie: navlns=0.0; expires=Sat, 21-Dec-2030 10:48:51 GMT; domain=.paypal.com; path=/ Set-Cookie: Apache=10.191.196.11.222161293360530699; path=/; expires=Sat, 12-Nov-04 04:20:34 GMT Connection: close Transfer-Encoding: chunked Content-Type: text/html; charset=UTF-8 7 INVALID 0 Can anyone please let me know whats wrong over here. Regards, Atul

    Read the article

  • merging javascript arrays for json

    - by Nat
    I serially collect information from forms into arrays like so: list = {"name" : "John", "email" : "[email protected]", "country" : "Canada", "color" : "blue"}; identifier = "first_round"; list = {"name" : "Harry", "email" : "[email protected]", "country" : "Germany"}; identifier = "second_round"; I want to combine them into something (I may have braces where I need brackets) like: list_all = { "first_round" : {"name" : "John", "email" : "[email protected]", "country" : "Canada", "color" : "blue"} , "second_round" : {"name" : "Harry", "email" : "[email protected]", "country" : "Germany"} }; so I can access them like: alert(list_all.first_round.name) -> John (Note: the name-values ("name", "email", "color") in the two list-arrays are not quite the same, the number of items in each list-array is limited but not known in advance; I need to serially add only one array to the previous structure each round and there may be any number of rounds, i.e. "third-round" : {...}, "fourth-round" : {...} and so on.) Ultimately, I'd like it to be well-parsed for JSON. I use the jquery library, if that helps.

    Read the article

  • CQRS and email notification

    - by t0PPy
    Reading up on CQRS there is a lot of talk of email notification - i'm wondering where to get the data from. Imagine a senario where one user invites other users to an event. To inform a user that he has been invitet to an event, he is send an email. The concrete mecanics might go like this: A "CreateEvent" command with an associated collection of user to invite, is received by the server. A new meeting aggregate is created and a method "InviteUser" is called for each user that is to be invited. Each time a user is invited to an event, a domain event "UserWasInvitedToEvent" is raised. An email notification sender picks up the domain event and sends out the notification email. Now my question is this: Where do i go for information to include in the email? Say i want to include a description of the event as well as the users name. Since this is CQRS i can't get it thru my domain model; All the properties of the domain objects are private! Should i then query the write side? Or maybe move email notification to a different service entirely? Any thoughts will be much appriciated!

    Read the article

  • Properly populating tables in an Object Relational database

    - by chaosTechnician
    I've got a homework assignment that requires that I use Oracle 10g Express to implement an Object Relational database to track phone billing data. I have a superclass of Communications with subclasses of Call, Text, and Data. I'm hitting a snag with properly populating these tables so that I can find the appropriate data in the various tables. My Types and Tables are declared as such: create type CommunicationType as object ( -- column names here ) not final; create type CallType under CommunicationType ( -- column names here ); create type TextType under CommunicationType ( -- column names here ); create type DataType under CommunicationType ( -- column names here ); create table Communications of CommunicationType ( -- Primary and Foreign key constraints here ); create table Calls of CallType; create table Texts of TextType; create table Datas of DataType; When I try to insert data into one of the subclasses, its entry doesn't appear in the superclass. Likewise if I insert into the superclass, it doesn't show up in the appropriate subclass. For example, insert into Calls values (CallType( -- Values -- )); doesn't show any data in Communications. Nor does insert into Communications values (CallType( -- Values -- )); show anything in Calls. What am I doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • Error in pom file in Maven project,after importing into eclipse

    - by dipti
    I am actually new to the Maven framework.I already have a Maven project.I installed the Maven plugin etc into my EclipseIDE from http://m2eclipse.sonatype.org/sites/m2e.Then I imported my project and enabled dependencies.But the project is showing too many errors.The pom.xml itself is showing errors.The errors are"Project Build Error:unknown packaging:apk",Project Build Error:unresolvable build extension:plugin" etc. My error area is: project xmlns="http://maven.apache.org/POM/4.0.0" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://maven.apache.org/POM/4.0.0 http://maven.apache.org/xsd/maven-4.0.0.xsd" 4.0.0 <groupId>com.nbc.cnbc.android</groupId> <artifactId>android.domain.tests</artifactId> <version>1.0.0</version> <packaging>apk</packaging> <parent> <groupId>com.nbc.cnbc.android</groupId> <artifactId>android.domain.parent</artifactId> <version>1.0.0</version> <relativePath>../android.domain.parent/pom.xml</relativePath> </parent> <name>android.domain.tests</name> <url>http://maven.apache.org</url> Could it be because the url specified in the last line could be different??? Any ideas why this could be happening?? Any reply is highly appreciated.Thanks a looot in advance!! Regards, Dipti

    Read the article

  • Populating a foreign key table with variable user input

    - by Vincent
    I'm working on a website that will be based on user contributed data, submitted using a regular HTML form. To simplify my question, let's say that there will be two fields in the form: "User Name" and "Country" (this is just an example, not the actual site). There will be two tables in the database : "countries" and "users," with "users.country_id" being a foreign key to the "countries" table (one-to-many). The initial database will be empty. Users from all over the world will submit their names and the countries they live in and eventually the "countries" table will get filled out with all of the country names in the world. Since one country can have several alternative names, input like Chile, Chili, Chilli will generate 3 different records in the countries table, but in fact there is only one country. When I search for records from Chile, Chili and Chilli will not be included. So my question is - what would be the best way to deal with a situation like this, with conditions such that the initial database is empty, no other resources are available and everything is based on user input? How can I organize it in such way that Chile, Chili and Chilli would be treated as one country, with minimum manual interference. What are the best practices when it comes to normalizing user submitted data and is there a scientific term for this? I'm sure this is a common problem. Again, I used country names just to simplify my question, it can be anything that has possible different spellings.

    Read the article

  • Lucene Query Syntax

    - by Don
    Hi, I'm trying to use Lucene to query a domain that has the following structure Student 1-------* Attendance *---------1 Course The data in the domain is summarised below Course.name Attendance.mandatory Student.name ------------------------------------------------- cooking N Bob art Y Bob If I execute the query "courseName:cooking AND mandatory:Y" it returns Bob, because Bob is attending the cooking course, and Bob is also attending a mandatory course. However, what I really want to query for is "students attending a mandatory cooking course", which in this case would return nobody. Is it possible to formulate this as a Lucene query? I'm actually using Compass, rather than Lucene directly, so I can use either CompassQueryBuilder or Lucene's query language. For the sake of completeness, the domain classes themselves are shown below. These classes are Grails domain classes, but I'm using the standard Compass annotations and Lucene query syntax. @Searchable class Student { @SearchableProperty(accessor = 'property') String name static hasMany = [attendances: Attendance] @SearchableId(accessor = 'property') Long id @SearchableComponent Set<Attendance> getAttendances() { return attendances } } @Searchable(root = false) class Attendance { static belongsTo = [student: Student, course: Course] @SearchableProperty(accessor = 'property') String mandatory = "Y" @SearchableId(accessor = 'property') Long id @SearchableComponent Course getCourse() { return course } } @Searchable(root = false) class Course { @SearchableProperty(accessor = 'property', name = "courseName") String name @SearchableId(accessor = 'property') Long id }

    Read the article

  • Populate tableView with more than one array

    - by Ewoods
    The short version: Is there a way to populate one specific row in a tableView with one value from one array, then populate another row in that same tableView with one value from a different array? For example, cell 1 would have the first value from Array A, cell 2 would have the first value from Array B, cell 3 would have the first value from Array C, etc. The long version: I hope this isn't too confusing. I've got an array of names, and then three more arrays with actions associated with those people. For example, the names array has Jim, Bob, and Sue, and then there's an array for eating, reading, and sleeping that records every time each person does one of these things (all of these arrays are populated from a MySQL database). The names array is used to populate a root tableView. Tapping on one of the names brings up a detail view controller that has another tableView that only has three rows. This part is all working fine. What I want to happen is when I tap on a name, it moves to the detail view and the three cells would then show the last event for that person for each of the three activities. Tapping on one of those three events then moves to a new view controller with a tableView that shows every event for that category. For example, if I tapped on Bob, the second page would show the last time Bob ate, read, and slept. Tapping on the first row would bring up a table that showed every time Bob has eaten. So far I've only been able to populate the second tableView with all of the rows from one of the arrays. I need it the other way around (one row from all of the arrays).

    Read the article

  • Find and replace certain part of value (jquery)

    - by Hakan
    This might be a little complicated. See code below. When image is clicked I want to change "MY-ID-NUMBER" in "value" and "src" of object. But I want the other information to remain. When link is clicked I want to restore "value" and "src" so I can use the same function for next image that is clicked. Is it possible? Please help! My HTML: <img height="186" width="134" alt="4988" src="i123.jpg"> <img height="186" width="134" alt="4567" src="i124.jpg"> <a class="restore-to-default" href="#">DVD</a> <div class="tdt"> <object width="960" height="540"><param name="movie" value="http://www.domain.com/v3.4/player.swf?file=http://se.player-feed.domain.com/cinema/MY-ID-NUMBER/123-1/><param name="wmode" value="transparent" /><param name="allowFullScreen" value="true" /><param name="allowScriptAccess" value="always" /><embed id="player" name="player" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" src="http://www.player.domain.com/v3.4/player.swf?file=http://se.player-feed.domain.com/cinema/MY-ID-NUMBER/123-1/&display_title=over&menu=true&enable_link=true&default_quality=xxlarge&controlbar=over&autostart=true&backcolor=000000&frontcolor=ffffff&share=0&repeat=always&displayclick=play&volume=80&linktarget=_blank" width="960" height="540"allowFullScreen="true" allowScriptAccess="always"></embed></object> My jquery: $('img').click(function(){ var alt = $(this).attr("alt"); $('.tdt object').val("alt", alt); // Some how change "MY-ID-NUMBER" into the "alt-value" of image }); $('a').click(function(){ //restore to "MY-ID-NUMBER" }); Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Login Problem Windows Authentication

    - by user109280
    Duplicate of: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/881928/windows-authentication-trusted-connection-problem I logged in the Windows Server(Machine 1) as "abc\user1 ". Windows Server machine is in abc domain. MSSQL Server is in the "abc" domain on Machine 1 and have mixed mode.authentication. It has account "abc\user1 " and "abc\user2 ". Both has role of sysadmin and serveradmin. I logged in another machine(Machine 2) using "abc\user2 ". Same Domain. Run the ant which connect to MSSQL Server. URL is formed as follows. jdbc:sqlserver://%DB_IP%:%DB_PORT%;SelectMethod=cursor;integratedSecurity=true;DatabaseName=dbname; 1) From Machine 2, If I use "abc\user2" credential for connection, then it works fine. since integratedSecurity=true. 2) From Machine 2, If I use "abc\user1" credential for connection, then it doesn't fine, since integratedSecurity=true and take System Credentials i.e "abc\user2". Even if I make integratedSecurity=false , then also it doesn't connect using "abc\user1" What changes to URL I have make to work for "abc\user1" from Machine2 for connection. what properties to be added in url? OR Driver doesn't support to use another domain\User Credentials? What need to set on MSSQL Server ?? Deepak

    Read the article

  • Loading Dimension Tables - Methodologies

    - by Nev_Rahd
    Hello, Recently I been working on project, where need to populated Dim Tables from EDW Tables. EDW Tables are of type II which does maintain historical data. When comes to load Dim Table, for which source may be multiple EDW Tables or would be single table with multi level pivoting (on attributes). Mean: There would be 10 records - one for each attribute which need to be pivoted on domain_code to make a single row in Dim. Out of these 10 records there would be some attributes with same domain_code but with different sub_domain_code, which needs further pivoting on subdomain code. Ex: if i got domain code: 01,02, 03 = which are straight pivot on domain code I would also have domain code: 10 with subdomain code / version as 2006,2007,2008,2009 That means I need to split my source table with above attributes into two = one for domain code and other for domain_code + version. so far so good. When it comes to load Dim Table: As per design specs for Dimensions (originally written by third party), what they want is: for every single change in EDW (attribute), it should assemble all the related records (for that NK) mean new one with other attribute values which are current = process them to create a new dim record and insert it. That mean if a single extract contains 100 records updated (one for each NK), it should assemble 100 + (100*9) records to insert / update dim table. How good is this approach. Other way I tried to do is just do a lookup into dim table for that NK get the value's of recent records (attributes which not changed) and insert it and update the current one. What would be the better approach assembling records at source side for one attribute change or looking into dim table's recent record and process it. If this doesn't make sense, would like to elaborate it further. Thanks

    Read the article

  • How do I make a serialization class for this?

    - by chobo2
    I have something like this (sorry for the bad names) <root xmlns="http://www.domain.com" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.Domain.com Schema.xsd> <product></product> <SomeHighLevelElement> <anotherElment> <lowestElement> </lowestElement> </anotherElment> </SomeHighLevelElement> </root> I have something like this for my class public class MyClass { public MyClass() { ListWrapper= new List<UserInfo>(); } public string product{ get; set; } public List<SomeHighLevelElement> ListWrapper{ get; set; } } public class SomeHighLevelElement { public string lowestElement{ get; set; } } But I don't know how to write the code for the "anotherElement" not sure if I have to make another wrapper around it. Edit I know get a error in my actual xml file. I have this in my tag xmlns="http://www.domain.com" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.Domain.com Schema.xsd Throws an exception on the root line saying there was a error with this stuff. So I don't know if it is mad at the schemaLocation since I am using local host right now or what.

    Read the article

  • jQuery: Main nav items selected depending on URL or page name

    - by Ricardo
    Ok, I've looked all over for a solution for this but so far I'm unable to find anything related to what I need to accomplish. What I need is very simple as far as logic goes. I have a nav bar like this one: <nav> <ul> <li><a href="download.shtml">Download</a></li> <li><a href="documentation.shtml">Documentation</a></li> <li><a href="contact.shtml">Contact</a></li> <li><a href="about.shtml">About</a></li> </ul> </nav> And the URLs of the site are straightforward: http://domain.net/download.shtml http://domain.net/documentation.shtml http://domain.net/contact.shtml http://domain.net/about.shtml Question: How can I detect which page/URL I'm on and add a class of .active to the corresponding nav item? The end result would be, for example if I'm in the Download page: <nav> <ul> <li><a href="download.shtml" class="active">Download</a></li> <li><a href="documentation.shtml">Documentation</a></li> <li><a href="contact.shtml">Contact</a></li> <li><a href="about.shtml">About</a></li> </ul> </nav> Thanks in advance for any help on this matter.

    Read the article

  • Silverlight ClientAccessPolicy issue...I think

    - by Terrence
    Fisrt of all I have my ClientAccessPolicy.xml file in the root of my website. If I access my website using the public domain name like this: h t t p://www.mydomain.com and then go to the page where my SL control is, I get the spinning % numbers up until about 98%, then it quits and my SL control does not appear on the page. If I access my website using the machine name (website is at datacenter, we have vpn setup) like this: h t t p://machinename and then go to the page where my SL control is everything works fine. this must be a ClientAccess Policy issue don't your think? Or what DO you thnik the issue is? Thanks in advance. Here is the contents of my ClientAccessPolicy.xml file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <access-policy> <cross-domain-access> <policy> <allow-from http-request-headers="*"> <domain uri="*" /> </allow-from> <grant-to> <resource path="/" include-subpaths="true" /> </grant-to> </policy> </cross-domain-access> </access-policy>

    Read the article

  • How to deploy to multiple redundant production servers with "cap deploy"?

    - by Chad Johnson
    Capistrano is working great to deploy to a single server. However, I have multiple production API servers for my web application. When I deploy, my code needs to get deployed to every API server at once. Specifying each server manually is NOT the solution I am looking for (e.g. I don't want to do "cap api1 deploy; cap api2 deploy"). Is there a way, using Capistrano, to deploy to all servers at once, with just a simple "cap deploy"? I'm wondering what changes I would need to make to a typical deploy.rb file, whether I'd need to create a separate file for each server, and whether and how the Capfile would need to be changed. Also, I need to be able to specify a different deploy_to path for each server. And ideally, I wouldn't have to repeat things in different config files for different servers (eg. wouldn't have to specify :repository, :application, etc. multiple times). I have spent hours searching Google on this and looking through tutorials, but I have found nothing helpful. Here is a snippet from my current deploy.rb file: set :application, "testapplication" set :repository, "ssh://domain.com//srv/hg/#{application}" set :scm, :mercurial set :deploy_to, "/srv/www/#{application}" role :web, "domain.com" role :app, "domain.com" role :db, "domain.com", :primary => true, :norelease => true Should I just use the multistage extension and do this? task :deploy_everything do system "cap api1 deploy" system "cap api2 deploy" system "cap api2 deploy" end That could work, but I feel like this isn't what this extension is meant for...

    Read the article

  • How to Load assembly to AppDomain with all references recursively?

    - by abatishchev
    I want to load to new AppDomin some assembly which has a complex references tree (MyDll.dll - Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel.dll - Microsoft.Vbe.Interop.dll - Office.dll - stdole.dll) As far as I understood, when an assembly is been loaded to AppDomain, it's references would not be loaded automatically, and I have to load them manually. So when I do: string dir = @"SomePath"; // different from AppDomain.CurrentDomain.BaseDirectory string path = System.IO.Path.Combine(dir, "MyDll.dll"); AppDomainSetup setup = AppDomain.CurrentDomain.SetupInformation; setup.ApplicationBase = dir; AppDomain domain = AppDomain.CreateDomain("SomeAppDomain", null, setup); domain.Load(AssemblyName.GetAssemblyName(path)); and got FileNotFoundException: Could not load file or assembly 'MyDll, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. I think the key word is one of its dependencies. Ok, I do next before domain.Load(AssemblyName.GetAssemblyName(path)); foreach (AssemblyName refAsmName in Assembly.ReflectionOnlyLoadFrom(path).GetReferencedAssemblies()) { domain.Load(refAsmName); } But got FileNotFoundException again, on another (referenced) assembly. How to load all references recursively? Have I to create references tree before loading root assembly? How to get an assembly's references without loading it?

    Read the article

  • NHibernate many-to-many mapping

    - by Scozzard
    Hi, I am having an issue with many-to-many mapping using NHibernate. Basically I have 2 classes in my object model (Scenario and Skill) mapping to three tables in my database (Scenario, Skill and ScenarioSkill). The ScenarioSkills table just holds the IDs of the SKill and Scenario table (SkillID, ScenarioID). In the object model a Scenario has a couple of general properties and a list of associated skills (IList) that is obtained from the ScenarioSkills table. There is no associated IList of Scenarios for the Skill object. The mapping from Scenario and Skill to ScenarioSkill is a many-to-many relationship: Scenario * --- * ScenarioSkill * --- * Skill I have mapped out the lists as bags as I believe this is the best option to use from what I have read. The mappings are as follows: Within the Scenario class <bag name="Skills" table="ScenarioSkills"> <key column="ScenarioID" foreign-key="FK_ScenarioSkill_ScenarioID"/> <many-to-many class="Domain.Skill, Domain" column="SkillID" /> </bag> And within the Skill class <bag name="Scenarios" table="ScenarioSkills" inverse="true" access="noop" cascade="all"> <key column="SkillID" foreign-key="FK_ScenarioSkill_SkillID" /> <many-to-many class="Domain.Scenario, Domain" column="ScenarioID" /> </bag> Everything works fine, except when I try to delete a skill, it cannot do so as there is a reference constraint on the SkillID column of the ScenarioSkill table. Can anyone help me? I am using NHibernate 2 on an C# asp.net 3.5 web application solution.

    Read the article

  • Generating ul from array with php fails

    - by Toni Michel Caubet
    Given a $files array I am trying to generate a list, like this: <ul class=""> <? for($i=0;$i < count($files); $i++) { $text = str_replace("http://domain.com/files/uploads/", "", $files[$i]); $file = $files[$i]; $notme = sesion()>0 && $obj['id'] != sesion(); ?> <li> <a target="_blank" href="<?=$file?>"><?=$text?></a> <? if($notme){ ?> <span class="add_to_files" data-file="<?=$file?>">Agregar al gestor</span> <? } ?> </li> <? } ?> </ul> This is the output: Please note how the span html is wrong, <ul class=""> <li> <a href="http://domain.com/files/uploads/388400967232883.jpg" target="_blank">388400967232883.jpg</a> <span target="_blank" href="http://domain.com/files/uploads/388400967232883.jpg" url"="" data-file="&lt;a class=" class="add_to_files">http://domain.com/files/uploads/388400967232883.jpg"&gt;Agregar al gestor</span> </li> </ul> Any idea why?

    Read the article

  • Chache problem running two consecutive HTTP GET requests from an APP1 to an APP2

    - by user502052
    I use Ruby on Rails 3 and I have 2 applications (APP1 and APP2) working on two subdomains: app1.domain.local app2.domain.local and I am tryng to run two consecutive HTTP GET requests from APP1 to APP2 like this: Code in APP1 (request): response1 = Net::HTTP.get( URI.parse("http://app2.domain.local?test=first&id=1") ) response2 = Net::HTTP.get( URI.parse("http://app2.domain.local/test=second&id=1") ) Code in APP2 (response): respond_to do |format| if <model_name>.find(params[:id]).<field_name> == "first" <model_name>.find(params[:id]).update_attribute ( <field_name>, <field_value> ) format.xml { render :xml => <model_name>.find(params[:id]).<field_name> } elsif <model_name>.find(params[:id]).<field_name> == "second" format.xml { render :xml => <model_name>.find(params[:id]).<field_name> } end end After the first request I get the correct XML (response1 is what I expect), but on the second it isn't (response2 isn't what I expect). Doing some tests I found that the second time that <model_name>.find(params[:id]).<field_name> run (for the elsif statements) it returns always a blank value so that the code in the elseif statement is never run. Is it possible that the problem is related on caching <model_name>.find(params[:id]).<field_name>? P.S.: I read about eTag and Conditional GET, but I am not sure that I must use that approach. I would like to keep all simple.

    Read the article

  • how to connect to MSSQL using activerecord, JDBC, JTDS and Integrated Security

    - by Rob
    As per the above, I've tried: establish_connection(:adapter => "jdbcmssql", :url => "jdbc:jtds:sqlserver://myserver:1433/mydatabase;domain='mynetwork';", :username => 'user', :password=>'pass' ) establish_connection(:adapter => "jdbcmssql", :url => 'jdbc:jtds:sqlserver://myserver:1433/mydatabase;domain="mynetwork";user="mynetwork\user"' ) establish_connection(:adapter => "jdbcmssql", :url => "jdbc:jtds:sqlserver://myserver:1433/mydatabase;domain='mynetwork';", :username=>'user' ) establish_connection(:adapter => "jdbcmssql", :url => "jdbc:jtds:sqlserver://myserver:1433/mydatabase;domain='mynetwork';integratedSecurity='true'", :username=>'user' ) .. and various other combinations. Each time I get: net/sourceforge/jtds/jdbc/SQLDiagnostic.java:368:in `addDiagnostic': java.sql.SQLException: Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection. (NativeException) Any tips? Thanks, activerecord (2.3.5) activerecord-jdbc-adapter (0.9.6) activerecord-jdbcmssql-adapter (0.9.6) jdbc-jtds (1.2.5) jruby 1.4.0 (ruby 1.8.7 patchlevel 174) (2009-11-02 69fbfa3) (Java HotSpot(TM) Client VM 1.6.0_18) [x86-java]

    Read the article

  • Map inheritance from generic class in Linq To SQL

    - by Ksenia Mukhortova
    Hi everyone, I'm trying to map my inheritance hierarchy to DB using Linq to SQL: Inheritance is like this, classes are POCO, without any LINQ to SQL attributes: public interface IStage { ... } public abstract class SimpleStage<T> : IStage where T : Process { ... } public class ConcreteStage : SimpleStage<ConcreteProcess> { ... } Here is the mapping: <Database Name="NNN" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/linqtosql/mapping/2007"> <Table Name="dbo.Stage" Member="Stage"> <Type Name="BusinessLogic.Domain.IStage"> <Column Name="ID" Member="ID" DbType="Int NOT NULL IDENTITY" IsPrimaryKey="true" IsDbGenerated="true" AutoSync="OnInsert" /> <Column Name="StageType" Member="StageType" IsDiscriminator="true" /> <Type Name="BusinessLogic.Domain.SimpleStage" IsInheritanceDefault="true"> <Type Name="BusinessLogic.Domain.ConcreteStage" IsInheritanceDefault="true" InheritanceCode="1"/> </Type> </Type> </Table> </Database> In the runtime I get error: System.InvalidOperationException was unhandled Message="Mapping Problem: Cannot find runtime type for type mapping 'BusinessLogic.Domain.SimpleStage'." Neither specifying SimpleStage, nor SimpleStage<T> in mapping file helps - runtime keeps producing different types of errors. DC is created like this: StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(@"MappingFile.map"); XmlMappingSource mapping = XmlMappingSource.FromStream(sr.BaseStream); DataContext dc = new DataContext(@"connection string", mapping); If Linq to SQL doesn't support this, could you, please, advise some other ORM, which does. Thanks in advance, Regards! Ksenia

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 230 231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240 241  | Next Page >