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  • validation functions in google apps script is not working properly

    - by chocka
    I create a i/p form in google site using Apps Script and i did the validation using the Apps Script coding. Validation functions available in Apps script is not satisfying all the possibility of checking the error. function validate(e) { var app = UiApp.getActiveApplication(); var flag=0; var text = app.getElementById('name'); var textrequired = app.getElementById('namerequired'); var number = app.getElementById('number'); var numberrequired = app.getElementById('numberrequired'); var email = app.getElementById('email'); var emailrequired = app.getElementById('emailrequired'); var submit = app.getElementById('submit_button'); var valid = app.createClientHandler() .validateNumber(number) .validateNotInteger(text) .validateEmail(email) .forTargets(submit).setEnabled(true) .forTargets(number,text,email).setStyleAttribute("color","black") .forTargets(numberrequired,textrequired,emailrequired).setText('*').setStyleAttribute("color", "red").setVisible(true); var invalidno = app.createClientHandler().validateNotNumber(number).validateMatches(number, '').forTargets(number).setStyleAttribute("color", "red").forTargets(submit).setEnabled(false).forTargets(numberrequired).setText('Please Enter a Valid No.').setStyleAttribute("color", "red").setVisible(true); var validno = app.createClientHandler().validateNumber(number).forTargets(number).setStyleAttribute("color","black").forTargets(numberrequired).setText('*').setStyleAttribute("color", "red").setVisible(true); var invalidText=app.createClientHandler().validateNumber(text).validateMatches(text, '').forTargets(text).setStyleAttribute("color", "red").forTargets(submit).setEnabled(false).forTargets(textrequired).setText('Please Enter a Valid Name.').setStyleAttribute("color", "red").setVisible(true); var validText=app.createClientHandler().validateNotNumber(text).forTargets(text).setStyleAttribute("color","black").forTargets(textrequired).setText('*').setStyleAttribute("color", "red").setVisible(true); var invalidemail=app.createClientHandler().validateNotEmail(email).validateMatches(email, '').forTargets(email).setStyleAttribute("color", "red").forTargets(submit).setEnabled(false).forTargets(emailrequired).setText('Please Enter a Valid Mail-Id.').setStyleAttribute("color", "red").setVisible(true); var validemail=app.createClientHandler().validateEmail(email).forTargets(email).setStyleAttribute("color","black").forTargets(emailrequired).setText('*').setStyleAttribute("color", "red").setVisible(true); number.addKeyPressHandler(invalidno).addKeyPressHandler(validno).addKeyPressHandler(valid).addKeyPressHandler(invalidText).addKeyPressHandler(invalidemail); text.addKeyPressHandler(invalidText).addKeyPressHandler(validText).addKeyPressHandler(valid).addKeyPressHandler(invalidno).addKeyPressHandler(invalidemail); email.addKeyPressHandler(invalidemail).addKeyPressHandler(validemail).addKeyPressHandler(valid).addKeyPressHandler(invalidno).addKeyPressHandler(invalidText); if (text == ''){flag = 1;} if (email == ''){flag = 1;} if (number == ''){flag = 1;} if(flag == 1){submit.setEnabled(false);} return app; } I just placed my Validation function using Apps Script. I don't know why its not satisfying all the possibilities of the validation. And also i have to do is to enable the submit button after all the fields satisfy the validation. After once it enabled, if i make any error in any field it will not get disable correctly. I wrote the coding correctly i think so. Please take a look at my validation function and give me some suggestion to make it possible. Please guide me, Thanks & Regards, chocka.

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  • How load text into JavaStackTraceConsolePage programmatically?

    - by Marcel
    In my Eclipse plugin I'd like to send a Java console output (loaded from some other system) to the Java Stack Trace Console. I pseudo-code it'd be something like: get the console output from the other system obtain a reference to a JavaStackTraceConsolePage instance send the text to the console page display the console i.e. switch from my plugin's view to the Console view Step 1 is easy as it is specific to my plugin. As for the rest I'm pretty much clueless - Google and stackoverflow.com don't come up with useful references or how-tos. Since the class JavaStackTraceConsolePage is part of an internal Eclipse API (org.eclipse.jdt.internal.debug.ui.console) I'm not even sure whether it's doable at all.

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  • Convert PDF to Image Batch

    - by tro
    I am working on a solution where I can convert pdf files to images. I am using the following example from codeproject: http://www.codeproject.com/Articles/317700/Convert-a-PDF-into-a-series-of-images-using-Csharp?msg=4134859#xx4134859xx now I tried with the following code to generate from more then 1000 pdf files new images: using Cyotek.GhostScript; using Cyotek.GhostScript.PdfConversion; using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Drawing; using System.IO; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Threading.Tasks; namespace RefClass_PDF2Image { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { string outputPath = Properties.Settings.Default.outputPath; string pdfPath = Properties.Settings.Default.pdfPath; if (!Directory.Exists(outputPath)) { Console.WriteLine("Der angegebene Pfad " + outputPath + " für den Export wurde nicht gefunden. Bitte ändern Sie den Pfad (outputPath) in der App.Config Datei."); return; } else { Console.WriteLine("Output Pfad: " + outputPath + " gefunden."); } if (!Directory.Exists(pdfPath)) { Console.WriteLine("Der angegebene Pfad " + pdfPath + " zu den PDF Zeichnungen wurde nicht gefunden. Bitte ändern Sie den Pfad (pdfPath) in der App.Config Datei."); return; } else { Console.WriteLine("PDF Pfad: " + pdfPath + " gefunden."); } Pdf2ImageSettings settings = GetPDFSettings(); DateTime start = DateTime.Now; TimeSpan span; Console.WriteLine(""); Console.WriteLine("Extraktion der PDF Zeichnungen wird gestartet: " + start.ToShortTimeString()); Console.WriteLine(""); DirectoryInfo diretoryInfo = new DirectoryInfo(pdfPath); DirectoryInfo[] directories = diretoryInfo.GetDirectories(); Console.WriteLine(""); Console.WriteLine("Es wurden " + directories.Length + " verschiedende Verzeichnisse gefunden."); Console.WriteLine(""); List<string> filenamesPDF = Directory.GetFiles(pdfPath, "*.pdf*", SearchOption.AllDirectories).Select(x => Path.GetFullPath(x)).ToList(); List<string> filenamesOutput = Directory.GetFiles(outputPath, "*.*", SearchOption.AllDirectories).Select(x => Path.GetFullPath(x)).ToList(); Console.WriteLine(""); Console.WriteLine("Es wurden " + filenamesPDF.Count + " verschiedende PDF Zeichnungen gefunden."); Console.WriteLine(""); List<string> newFileNames = new List<string>(); int cutLength = pdfPath.Length; for (int i = 0; i < filenamesPDF.Count; i++) { string temp = filenamesPDF[i].Remove(0, cutLength); temp = outputPath + temp; temp = temp.Replace("pdf", "jpg"); newFileNames.Add(temp); } for (int i = 0; i < filenamesPDF.Count; i++) { FileInfo fi = new FileInfo(newFileNames[i]); if (!fi.Exists) { if (!Directory.Exists(fi.DirectoryName)) { Directory.CreateDirectory(fi.DirectoryName); } Bitmap firstPage = new Pdf2Image(filenamesPDF[i], settings).GetImage(); firstPage.Save(newFileNames[i], System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Jpeg); firstPage.Dispose(); } //if (i % 20 == 0) //{ // GC.Collect(); // GC.WaitForPendingFinalizers(); //} } Console.ReadLine(); } private static Pdf2ImageSettings GetPDFSettings() { Pdf2ImageSettings settings; settings = new Pdf2ImageSettings(); settings.AntiAliasMode = AntiAliasMode.Medium; settings.Dpi = 150; settings.GridFitMode = GridFitMode.Topological; settings.ImageFormat = ImageFormat.Png24; settings.TrimMode = PdfTrimMode.CropBox; return settings; } } } unfortunately, I always get in the Pdf2Image.cs an out of memory exception. here the code: public Bitmap GetImage(int pageNumber) { Bitmap result; string workFile; //if (pageNumber < 1 || pageNumber > this.PageCount) // throw new ArgumentException("Page number is out of bounds", "pageNumber"); if (pageNumber < 1) throw new ArgumentException("Page number is out of bounds", "pageNumber"); workFile = Path.GetTempFileName(); try { this.ConvertPdfPageToImage(workFile, pageNumber); using (FileStream stream = new FileStream(workFile, FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read)) { result = new Bitmap(stream); // --->>> here is the out of memory exception stream.Close(); stream.Dispose(); } } finally { File.Delete(workFile); } return result; } how can I fix that to avoid this exception? thanks for any help, tro

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  • How can I reverse a stack?

    - by come pollinate me
    I need to write a VB.NET code to reverse the given characters using a stack. Input: 'S','T','A','C','K' So far I have input the letters, but I don't know how to get the console to reverse it. I'm a beginner to programming so please excuse my ignorance. An explanation as to how it's done would also be greatly appreciated. What I got so far. Module Module1 Sub Main() Dim StackObject As New Stack StackObject.Push("S") Console.WriteLine(StackObject.Peek) StackObject.Push("T") Console.WriteLine(StackObject.Peek) StackObject.Push("A") Console.WriteLine(StackObject.Peek) StackObject.Push("C") Console.WriteLine(StackObject.Peek) StackObject.Push("K") Console.WriteLine(StackObject.Peek) End Sub End Module I just need it to be reversed. I got it!! Module Module1 Sub Main() Dim StackObject As New Stack StackObject.Push("S") StackObject.Push("T") StackObject.Push("A") StackObject.Push("C") StackObject.Push("K") For Each cur As String In StackObject Console.WriteLine(cur) Next End Sub End Module That's how it's done.

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  • How to create a closure and pass in variable length argument list?

    - by Jian Lin
    We can create a closure p by capturing the arguments in the scope in the following code: var p = function() { }; if (typeof(console) != 'undefined' && console.log) { p = function() { console.log(arguments); }; } but the arguments are passed like an array to console.log, instead of passed one by one as in console.log(arguments[0], arguments[1], arguments[2], ... Is there a way to expand the arguments and pass to console.log like the way above? Note that p = console.log; works well in Firefox and IE 8 but not on Chrome.

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  • C# program for finding how many numbers are devidable by 5 in give range

    - by user1639735
    My task is: Write a program that reads two positive integer numbers and prints how many numbers p exist between them such that the reminder of the division by 5 is 0 (inclusive). Example: p(17,25) = 2. Console.Write("Enter min: "); int min = int.Parse(Console.ReadLine()); Console.Write("Enter max: "); int max = int.Parse(Console.ReadLine()); Console.WriteLine("The numbers devidable by 5 without remainder from {0} to {1} are: ",min,max); for (int i = min; i <= max; i++) { if (i % 5 == 0) { Console.WriteLine(i); } } This prints out the numbers that are devidable by 5 in the range...How do I count how many are there and print the count in the console? Thanks.

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  • What's your advise on a potential legal suit? [closed]

    - by ohho
    I [xxx app developer] received an email from Apple that a developer [of yyy app] believes I am "infringing their copyright." Description of Issue: [xxx developer] copied my application (my application is [yyy]) feature by feature. Even their donation model is completely copied from my application. Their first release was significantly later than mine, which implies copying of the application rather than parallel development. I suffered significant financial losses because of their actions, in additional to promotion problems as many people are confused with their product. My advertising was based around the idea of a "free [yyy] application for an iPhone" and they have just taken that as a title for their application. I would appreciate if someone takes a look at their release schedule and compare it to my releases. Additionally, please take a look at their functionality and how it point by point copies the functionality of my older releases. I am asking Apple to remove their application from the App Store, and ban them from resubmitting it. Thank you for your time! [yyy developer], the developer of the [yyy] application. My response was: The code of [xxx] is written by myself, using Apple public API. The graphics elements are designed by myself. The user interface and app control are independently designed and different from other [similar type] apps (please judge yourself). In-app Purchase is iOS Apple standard API. iAd is Apple iOS standard API. I don't think features can be owned exclusively. In fact, my app comes with fewer features, as I prefer minimalist design. I don't think idea can be owned exclusively. Apple responded: Thank you for your response. Unfortunately, Apple cannot serve as arbiter for disputes among third parties. Please contact [yyy developer] directly regarding your actions. You can reach [yyy developer] through: [...]. We look forward to confirmation from both parties that this issue has been resolved. If this issue is not resolved shortly, Apple may be forced to pull your application(s) from the App Store. Then I sent my response above to [yyy developer]. [yyy developer] then asked me "to provide (my) legal address and contact details that (his) lawyer requires to file a copyright infringement suit." IMO, I don't think the [yyy developer]'s claim on "feature by feature" copy is valid. I have fewer features, completely different user interface design. However, I don't think I can afford a legal action for an app of so little financial return. So what's your advise on this? Should I just let Apple pull my app? Or is there any alternative I can consider? FYI ... UI of [xxx app]: and UI of [yyy app]:

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  • Apache config that uses two document roots based on whether the requested resource exists in the first

    - by mattalexx
    Background I have a client site that consists of a CakePHP installation and a Magento installation: /web/example.com/ /web/example.com/app/ <== CakePHP /web/example.com/app/webroot/ <== DocumentRoot /web/example.com/app/webroot/store/ <== Magento /web/example.com/config/ <== Site-wide config /web/example.com/vendors/ <== Site-wide libraries The server runs Apache 2.2.3. The problem The whole company has FTP access and got used to clogging up the /web/example.com/, /web/example.com/app/webroot/, and /web/example.com/app/webroot/store/ directories with their own files. Sometimes these files need HTTP access and sometimes they don't. In any case, this mess makes my job harder when it comes to maintaining the site. Code merges, tarring the live code, etc, is very complicated and usually requires a bunch of filters. Abandoned solution At first, I thought I would set up a new subdomain on the same server, move all of their files there, and change their FTP chroot. But that wouldn't work for these reasons: Firstly, I have no idea (and neither do they remember) what marketing materials they've sent out that contain URLs to certain resources they've uploaded to the server, using the main domain, and also using abstract subdomains that use the main virtual host because it has ServerAlias *.example.com. So suddenly having them only use static.example.com isn't feasible. Secondly, The PHP scripts in their projects are potentially very non-portable. I want their files to stay in as similar an environment as they were built as I can. Also, I do not want to debug their code to make it portable. Half-baked solution After some thought, I decided to find a way to section off the actual website files into another directory that they would not touch. The company's uploaded files would stay where they were. This would ensure that I didn't break any of their projects that needed HTTP access. It would look something like this: /web/example.com/ <== A bunch of their files are in here /web/example.com/app/webroot/ <== 1st DocumentRoot; A bunch of their files are in here /web/example.com/app/webroot/store/ <== Some more are in here /web/example.com/site/ <== New dir; Contains only site files /web/example.com/site/app/ <== CakePHP /web/example.com/site/app/webroot/ <== 2nd DocumentRoot /web/example.com/site/app/webroot/store/ <== Magento /web/example.com/site/config/ <== Site-wide config /web/example.com/site/vendors/ <== Site-wide libraries After I made this change, I would not need to pay attention to anything except for the stuff within /web/example.com/site/ and my job would be a lot easier. I would be the only one changing stuff in there. So here's where the Apache magic would happen: I need an HTTP request to http://www.example.com/ to first use /web/example.com/app/webroot/ as the document root. If nothing is found (no miscellaneous uploaded company projects are found), try finding something within /web/example.com/site/app/webroot/. Another thing to keep in mind is, the site might have some problems if the $_SERVER['DOCUMENT_ROOT'] variable reads /web/example.com/app/webroot/ but the actual files are within /web/example.com/site/app/webroot/. It would be better if the DOCUMENT_ROOT environment variable could be /web/example.com/site/app/webroot/ for anything within the /web/example.com/site/app/webroot/ directory. Conclusion Is my half-baked solution possible with Apache 2.2.3? Is there a better way to solve this problem?

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  • GRID is not properly rendered in ExtJS 4 by using Store

    - by user548543
    Here is the Src code for HTML file <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4 /strict.dtd"> <html> <head> <title>MVC Architecture</title> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="/bh/extjs/resources/css/ext-all.css" /> <script type="text/javascript" src="extjs/ext-debug.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="Main.js"></script> </head> <body> </body> </html> File path: /bh/Main.js [Main File] Ext.require('Ext.container.Viewport'); Ext.application({ name: 'App', appFolder: 'app', controllers: ['UserController'], launch: function() { Ext.create('Ext.container.Viewport', { layout: 'border', items: [ { xtype: 'userList' } ] }); } }); File path: /app/controller/UserController.js [Controller] Ext.define('App.controller.UserController',{ extend: 'Ext.app.Controller', stores: ['UserStore'], models:['UserModel'], views:['user.UserList'], init: function() { this.getUserStoreStore().load(); } }); File path: /app/store/UserStore.js Ext.define('App.store.UserStore', { extend: 'Ext.data.Store', model: 'App.model.UserModel', proxy: { type: 'ajax', url: 'app/data/contact.json' } }); File path: /app/model/UserModel.js [Model] Ext.define('App.model.UserModel',{ extends:'Ext.data.Model', fields:[ {name: 'name', type: 'string'}, {name: 'age', type: 'string'}, {name: 'phone', type: 'string'}, {name: 'email', type: 'string'} ] }); File path: /app/view/UserList.js [View] Ext.define('App.view.user.UserList' ,{ extend: 'Ext.grid.Panel', alias:'widget.userList', title:'Contacts', region:'center', resizable:true, initComponent: function() { this.store = 'UserStore'; this.columns = [ {text: 'Name',flex:1,sortable: true,dataIndex: 'name'}, {text: 'Age',flex:1,sortable: true,dataIndex: 'age'}, {text: 'Phone',flex:1,sortable: true,dataIndex: 'phone'}, {text: 'Email',flex:1,sortable: true,dataIndex: 'email'} ]; this.callParent(arguments); } }); In fire bug it shows the JSON response as follows: [{ "name": "Aswini", "age": "32", "phone": "555-555-5555", "email": "[email protected]" }] Why the Data has not been displayed although I have a valid json response. Please help!!!

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  • My server app works strangely. What could be the reason(s)?

    - by Poni
    Hi! I've written a server app (two parts actually; proxy server and a game server) using C++ (board game). It uses IOCP as the sockets interface. For that app I've also written a "client simulator" (hereafter "client") app that spawns many client connections, where each of them plays, in very high speed, getting the CPU to be 100% utilized. So, that's how it goes in terms of topology: Game server - holds the game state. Real players do not connect it directly but through the proxy server. When a player joins a game, the proxy actually asks for it on behalf of that player, and the game server spawns a "player instance" for that player, and from now on, every notification between the game server and the player is being passed through the proxy. Proxy server - holds TCP connections with the real players. Players communicate with the game server through it only. Client simulator - connects to the proxy only. When running the server (again, it's actually two server apps) & client locally it all works just fine. I'm talking about 40k+ player instances in which all of them are active in a game. On the other hand, when running the server remotely with, say, 1000 clients who play things getting strange. For example, I run it as said above. Then with Task Manager I kill the client simulator app ("End Process Tree"). Then it seems like the buffer of the remote server got modified by another thread, or in other words, a memory corruption has been occurred. The server crashes because it got an unknown message id (it's a custom protocol where each message has it's own unique number). To make things clear, here is how I run the apps: PC1 - game server and clients simulator (because the clients will connect the proxy). PC2 - proxy server. The strangest thing is this: Only the remote side gets "corrupted". Remote in terms that it's not the PC I use to code the app (VC++ 2008). Let's call the PC I use to code the apps "PC1". Now for example, if this time I ran the game server on PC1 (it means that proxy server on PC2 and clients simulator on PC1), then the proxy server crashes with an "unknown message id" error. Another variation is when I run the proxy server on PC1 (again, the dev machine), the game server and the clients simulator on PC2, then the game server on PC2 gets crashed. As for the IOCP config: The servers' internal connections use the default receive/send buffer sizes. Tried even with setting them to 1MB, but no luck. I have three PCs in total; 2 x Vista 64bit <<-- one of those is the dev machine. The other is connected through WiFi. 1 x WinXP 32bit They're all connected in a "full duplex" manner. What could be the reason? Tried about everything; Stack tracing, recording some actions (like read/write logging).. I want to stress that only the PC I'm not using to code the apps crashes (actually the server app "role" which is running on it - sometimes the game server and sometimes the proxy server). At first I thought that maybe the wireless PC has problems (it's wireless..) but: TCP has it's own mechanisms to make sure the packet is delivered properly. Also, a crash also happens when trying it with the two PCs that are physically connected (Vista vs. XP). Another option is that the Windows DLLs versions might have problems, but then again, one of the tests is Vista vs. Vista, and the other is Vista vs. XP. Any idea?

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  • Why don't I just build the whole web app in Javascript and Javascript HTML Templates?

    - by viatropos
    I'm getting to the point on an app where I need to start caching things, and it got me thinking... In some parts of the app, I render table rows (jqGrid, slickgrid, etc.) or fancy div rows (like in the New Twitter) by grabbing pure JSON and running it through something like Mustache, jquery.tmpl, etc. In other parts of the app, I just render the info in pure HTML (server-side HAML templates), and if there's searching/paginating, I just go to a new URL and load a new HTML page. Now the problem is in caching and maintainability. On one hand I'm thinking, if everything was built using Javascript HTML Templates, then my app would serve just an HTML layout/shell, and a bunch of JSON. If you look at the Facebook and Twitter HTML source, that's basically what they're doing (95% json/javascript, 5% html). This would make it so my app only needed to cache JSON (pages, actions, and/or records). Which means you'd hit the cache no matter if you were some remote api developer accessing a JSON api, or the strait web app. That is, I don't need 2 caches, one for the JSON, one for the HTML. That seems like it'd cut my cache store down in half, and streamline things a little bit. On the other hand, I'm thinking, from what I've seen/experienced, generating static HTML server-side, and caching that, seems to be much better performance wise cross-browser; you get the graphics instantly and don't have to wait that split-second for javascript to render it. StackOverflow seems to do everything in plain HTML, and you can tell... everything appears at once. Notice how though on twitter.com, the page is blank for .5-1 seconds, and the page chunks in: the javascript has to render the json. The downside with this is that, for anything dynamic (like endless scrolling, or grids), I'd have to create javascript templates anyway... so now I have server-side HAML templates, client-side javascript templates, and a lot more to cache. My question is, is there any consensus on how to approach this? What are the benefits and drawbacks from your experience of mixing the two versus going 100% with one over the other? Update: Some reasons that factor into why I haven't yet made the decision to go with 100% javascript templating are: Performance. Haven't formally tested, but from what I've seen, raw html renders faster and more fluidly than javascript-generated html cross-browser. Plus, I'm not sure how mobile devices handle dynamic html performance-wise. Testing. I have a lot of integration tests that work well with static HTML, so switching to javascript-only would require 1) more focused pure-javascript testing (jasmine), and 2) integrating javascript into capybara integration tests. This is just a matter of time and work, but it's probably significant. Maintenance. Getting rid of HAML. I love HAML, it's so easy to write, it prints pretty HTML... It makes code clean, it makes maintenance easy. Going with javascript, there's nothing as concise. SEO. I know google handles the ajax /#!/path, but haven't grasped how this will affect other search engines and how older browsers handle it. Seems like it'd require a significant setup.

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  • How can I tell the size of my app during development?

    - by Newbyman
    My programming decissions are directly related to how much room I have left, or worse perhaps how much I need to shave off in order to get up the 10mb limit. I have read that Apple has quietly increased the 3G & Edge download limit from 10mb up to 20mb in preparation for the iPad in April. Either way, my real question is how can I gauge a rough estimate of how large my app will end while I'm still in the development phase? Is the file size of my development folder roughly 1 to 1 ratio? Is the compressed file size of my development a better approximation? My .xcodeproj file is only a couple hundred kB, but the size of my folder is 11.8 MB. I have a .sqlite database, less than 20 small png images and a Settings.Bundle. The rest are unknown Xcode files related to build, build for iphoneOS, simulator etc.... My source code is rather large with around 1000 lines in most of the major controllers, all in all around 48 .h&.m files. But my classes folder inside my development folder is less than 800kb. Digging around inside my Build file, there is lots of iphone simulator files and debugging files which I don't think will contribute to the final product. The Application file states that it is around 2.3 MB. However, this is such a large difference from the 11.8 MB, I have to wonder if this is just another piece of the equation. I have the app on the my device, I'm in the testing phase. Therefore, I though that I would try to see how large the working version was on the device by checking in iTunes, however my development app is visible on the right-hand the application's iphone screen, but no information about the app most importantly its size. I also checked in Organizer, I used the lower portion of the screen-(Applications), found my application and selected the drop down arrow which gave my "Application Data" and a download arrow button to the right to save a file on my desktop, named with the unique AppleID. Inside the folder it had three folders-(documents, library, tmp) the documents had a copy of my .sqlite database, the library a few more files but not anything obvious or of size, and the tmp was empty. All in all the entire folder was only 164kb-which tells me that this is not the right place to find the size either. I understand that the size is considered to be the size of my binary plus all the additional files and images that I have add. Does anyone have a effective way of guaging how large the binary is or the relating the development folder size to what the final App Store application size will end up. I know that questions have been posted with similar aspects, but I could not find any answered post that really described...what files, or how to determine size specifically. I know that this question looks like a book, but I just wanted to be specific in conveying exactly what I'm looking for and the attempts thus far. *Note all files are unzipped and still in regular working Xcode order of a single app with no brought-in builds or referenced projects. I'm sure that this is straight forward, I just don't know where to look?

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  • Unit testing authorization in a Pylons app fails; cookies aren't been correctly set or recorded

    - by Ian Stevens
    I'm having an issue running unit tests for authorization in a Pylons app. It appears as though certain cookies set in the test case may not be correctly written or parsed. Cookies work fine when hitting the app with a browser. Here is my test case inside a paste-generated TestController: def test_good_login(self): r = self.app.post('/dologin', params={'login': self.user['username'], 'password': self.password}) r = r.follow() # Should only be one redirect to root assert 'http://localhost/' == r.request.url assert 'Dashboard' in r This is supposed to test that a login of an existing account forwards the user to the dashboard page. Instead, what happens is that the user is redirected back to the login. The first POST works, sets the user in the session and returns cookies. Although those cookies are sent in the follow request, they don't seem to be correctly parsed. I start by setting a breakpoint at the beginning of the above method and see what the login response returns: > nosetests --pdb --pdb-failure -s foo.tests.functional.test_account:TestMainController.test_good_login Running setup_config() from foo.websetup > /Users/istevens/dev/foo/foo/tests/functional/test_account.py(33)test_good_login() -> r = self.app.post('/dologin', params={'login': self.user['username'], 'password': self.password}) (Pdb) n > /Users/istevens/dev/foo/foo/tests/functional/test_account.py(34)test_good_login() -> r = r.follow() # Should only be one redirect to root (Pdb) p r.cookies_set {'auth_tkt': '"4c898eb72f7ad38551eb11e1936303374bd871934bd871833d19ad8a79000000!"'} (Pdb) p r.request.environ['REMOTE_USER'] '4bd871833d19ad8a79000000' (Pdb) p r.headers['Location'] 'http://localhost/?__logins=0' A session appears to be created and a cookie sent back. The browser is redirected to the root, not the login, which also indicates a successful login. If I step past the follow(), I get: > /Users/istevens/dev/foo/foo/tests/functional/test_account.py(35)test_good_login() -> assert 'http://localhost/' == r.request.url (Pdb) p r.request.headers {'Host': 'localhost:80', 'Cookie': 'auth_tkt=""\\"4c898eb72f7ad38551eb11e1936303374bd871934bd871833d19ad8a79000000!\\"""; '} (Pdb) p r.request.environ['REMOTE_USER'] *** KeyError: KeyError('REMOTE_USER',) (Pdb) p r.request.environ['HTTP_COOKIE'] 'auth_tkt=""\\"4c898eb72f7ad38551eb11e1936303374bd871934bd871833d19ad8a79000000!\\"""; ' (Pdb) p r.request.cookies {'auth_tkt': ''} (Pdb) p r <302 Found text/html location: http://localhost/login?__logins=1&came_from=http%3A%2F%2Flocalhost%2F body='302 Found...y. '/149> This indicates to me that the cookie was passed in on the request, although with dubious escaping. The environ appears to be without the session created on the prior request. The cookie has been copied to the environ from the headers, but the cookies in the request seems incorrectly set. Lastly, the user is redirected to the login page, indicating that the user isn't logged in. Authorization in the app is done via repoze.who and repoze.who.plugins.ldap with repoze.who_friendlyform performing the challenge. I'm using the stock tests.TestController created by paste: class TestController(TestCase): def __init__(self, *args, **kwargs): if pylons.test.pylonsapp: wsgiapp = pylons.test.pylonsapp else: wsgiapp = loadapp('config:%s' % config['__file__']) self.app = TestApp(wsgiapp) url._push_object(URLGenerator(config['routes.map'], environ)) TestCase.__init__(self, *args, **kwargs) That's a webtest.TestApp, by the way. The encoding of the cookie is done in webtest.TestApp using Cookie: >>> from Cookie import _quote >>> _quote('"84533cf9f661f97239208fb844a09a6d4bd8552d4bd8550c3d19ad8339000000!"') '"\\"84533cf9f661f97239208fb844a09a6d4bd8552d4bd8550c3d19ad8339000000!\\""' I trust that that's correct. My guess is that something on the response side is incorrectly parsing the cookie data into cookies in the server-side request. But what? Any ideas?

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  • Windows 2008 and wrong BPL loading [SOLVED]

    - by Beto Neto
    I have an application builded with Run-time Packages. When the executable starts it auto loads the required packages (.bpl). Recently we has installed an Windows 2008 R2 server to use as Terminal Services. We maintain some old compiled versions of our application in different paths, like this: c:\app\version_1\common.bpl c:\app\version_1\app.exe c:\app\version_2\common.bpl c:\app\version_2\app.exe Common.bpl is the a run-time package what app.exe depends on. THE PROBLEM: I start "c:\app\version_2\app.exe" and it loads "c:\app\version_2\common.bpl". When I start the "c:\app\version_1\app.exe" it loads the WRONG bpl (from version_2). The path "c:\app\version_2\" isn't at the system search path. At Windows2003 server this problem doesn't occurs. What can I do to solve this? Thanks! I have downloaded the Process Explorer (microsoft sysinternals), and checked the loaded modules of each executable, all they are correct! But I noticed another problem. After start the second version, an entry-not-found-error occurs, telling me what a initialization entry point, of an unit what only exists in one of the versions, could not be found. Something is very strange. The ProcessExplorer is telling me that the process is loading the correct modoles, but when they are running this seems not be happening. Seems the applications are sharing the loaded modules. SOLVED There was a MouseHook using FindVCLWindow, this was generating the AV. Sorry about inconvenience guys, and thanks!

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  • Facebook Developer ToolKit: How should I construct this app?

    - by j0nscalet
    I have created a simple desktop application that I want to use to post status updates for the users of my app. Here's the kicker though that I am having trouble figuring out, the desktop application runs as part of a batch process every night, in which I update the status of certain users. I use the following code to accomplish this: (comes directly from the FDK samples) public FriendViewer() { InitializeComponent(); facebookService1.ApplicationKey = "Key"; facebookService1.Secret = "Secret"; facebookService1.SessionKey = "Session key"; facebookService1.IsDesktopApplication = true; } private void TestService_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { if (!facebookService1.API.users.hasAppPermission(facebook.Types.Enums.Extended_Permissions.status_update)) facebookService1.GetExtendedPermission(facebook.Types.Enums.Extended_Permissions.status_update); if (!facebookService1.API.users.hasAppPermission(facebook.Types.Enums.Extended_Permissions.offline_access)) facebookService1.GetExtendedPermission(facebook.Types.Enums.Extended_Permissions.offline_access); long uid = facebookService1.users.getLoggedInUser(); facebook.Schema.user user = facebookService1.users.getInfo(uid); facebookService1.users.setStatus("Facebook Syndicator rules!"); MessageBox.Show(String.Format("Status set for {0} {1}", user.first_name, user.last_name)); } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show(ex.Message); Close(); } } My user's day to day activity is done a website front end. Since I dont have any user interaction in a nightly batch process, I cannot use the ConnectToFaceBook method on the FaceBookService to obtain a sessionKey for the user. Ideally I would like to prompt for authorization and extended permissions for my desktop app when a user logins into the web front end then save the sessionKey and uid in the database. At night when my process runs, I would reference the sessionKey and uid in order and update the user's status. I am finding myself fumbling between whether or not my app should be a web or desktop app. Having both a web and desktop app would be confusing to my users, because they would have to grant/manage permissions for both apps. And I looking at this the wrong way? Any help would be greatly appreciated! Thanks.

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  • Not sure what happens to my apps objects when using NSURLSession in background - what state is my app in?

    - by Avner Barr
    More of a general question - I don't understand the workings of NSURLSession when using it in "background session mode". I will supply some simple contrived example code. I have a database which holds objects - such that portions of this data can be uploaded to a remote server. It is important to know which data/objects were uploaded in order to accurately display information to the user. It is also important to be able to upload to the server in a background task because the app can be killed at any point. for instance a simple profile picture object: @interface ProfilePicture : NSObject @property int userId; @property UIImage *profilePicture; @property BOOL successfullyUploaded; // we want to know if the image was uploaded to out server - this could also be a property that is queryable but lets assume this is attached to this object @end Now Lets say I want to upload the profile picture to a remote server - I could do something like: @implementation ProfilePictureUploader -(void)uploadProfilePicture:(ProfilePicture *)profilePicture completion:(void(^)(BOOL successInUploading))completion { NSUrlSession *uploadImageSession = ..... // code to setup uploading the image - and calling the completion handler; [uploadImageSession resume]; } @end Now somewhere else in my code I want to upload the profile picture - and if it was successful update the UI and the database that this action happened: ProfilePicture *aNewProfilePicture = ...; aNewProfilePicture.profilePicture = aImage; aNewProfilePicture.userId = 123; aNewProfilePicture.successfullyUploaded = NO; // write the change to disk [MyDatabase write:aNewProfilePicture]; // upload the image to the server ProfilePictureUploader *uploader = [ProfilePictureUploader ....]; [uploader uploadProfilePicture:aNewProfilePicture completion:^(BOOL successInUploading) { if (successInUploading) { // persist the change to my db. aNewProfilePicture.successfullyUploaded = YES; [Mydase update:aNewProfilePicture]; // persist the change } }]; Now obviously if my app is running then this "ProfilePicture" object is successfully uploaded and all is well - the database object has its own internal workings with data structures/caches and what not. All callbacks that may exist are maintained and the app state is straightforward. But I'm not clear what happens if the app "dies" at some point during the upload. It seems that any callbacks/notifications are dead. According to the API documentation- the uploading is handled by a separate process. Therefor the upload will continue and my app will be awakened at some point in the future to handle completion. But the object "aNewProfilePicture" is non existant at that point and all callbacks/objects are gone. I don't understand what context exists at this point. How am I supposed to ensure consistency in my DB and UI (For instance update the "successfullyUploaded" property for that user)? Do I need to re-work everything touching the DB or UI to correspond with the new API and work in a context free environment?

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  • Windows: Running an AutoIt script to launch a GUI app - on a server, when no one is logged in

    - by mrled
    I want to run an AutoIt script every day at 1:00 AM on a Windows 2003 Server Standard Edition. Since this is a server, obviously there is rarely someone sitting there logged in at the console, so the procedure needs to account for this. The AutoIt script in question launches and sends keypresses to a GUI app, so the process needs to include creating some sort of session for the user running the schedule task. Is there a way to do this? I can't just use scheduled tasks run the AutoIt script when no one is logged in - if I do, it fails to launch at all. I thought that I might be able to create an RDP session and run the scheduled task as that user, inside that session, but I haven't found a way to create an RDP session without launching mstsc.exe -- which is itself a GUI app, and I have the same problem again.

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  • Where are the Microsoft downloaded app compat updates stored?

    - by Ian Boyd
    Where are the Microsoft application compatibility update settings stored on a Windows XP, Windows Vista, and Windows 7 computer? Microsoft periodically release application compatibility updates (e.g. KB929427), where they list the shims that should be applied to a program in order to workaround known bugs in the software. Where are these app compat flags stored, and how can i see what shims are being applied? i have a feeling that a recent app compat update included a flag to force a particular piece of software, that we use, to require administrator. Because the task is scheduled to run nightly, and the running user does not have administrative privelages, the task is failing to start. The application is requiring to be elevated. It has the UAC shield overlay. The application has no RT_MANIFEST resource, and the compatibility option Run this program as administrator is disabled (per-user and all users). So all that's left is some secret global setting. i know user-specified compat flags are stored in: HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE \SOFTWARE \Microsoft \Windows NT \CurrentVersion \AppCompatFlags \Layers

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  • Is there a simple Load Balancer app for development environment on Windows?

    - by djangofan
    Does there exist a simple Load Balancer app for development on Windows? I am running a pair of JBoss 5.x instances in a cluster on a single machine. Normally , this configuration is load balanced by a nice hardware load balancer but I am wondering if there is a simple piece of software to enable load balancing in my Eclipse dev environment. Basically, for example, I want a load balancer running on port 11111 that round-robins between the 2 clustered JBoss instances on ssl ports 8443 and 8543 . (or http port if thats not possible) I know that Glassfish has a built-in load balancer but I can't use Glassfish. One idea I have is to try to setup a separate instance of Tomcat with the "balancer" web app. Im trying that now... not sure if it will work... and its a complicated setup and I wish there was something really easy.

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  • How can I send an email from Mail.app to Outlook with an attachment that does not embed into the email body?

    - by JAG2007
    I'm using Mail.app (on Mac OS X 10.6) and when I send an email to users on PC Outlook, with an attached image, they get the email as an image embedded into the body, not as an attachement. I even tried clicking "view as icon" before sending the attachment from Macmail, but that made no difference. I also tried this myself, sending from Mail.app over to my PC's Outlook, and I do get that same problem. In Outlook the image is not coming through as an attachment, but as an image embedded into the body of the email. The reason this is an issue primarily is because the user is then unable to click "save as" and has to actually copy and paste it into some other program, which means the file is converted from jpg or png to the bmp format. But beyond that, most of my recipients don't even know how to copy and paste it into another program to save it that way anyway. They need the "save attachment as" functionality.

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  • Recycle remote IIS app pool from the command line?

    - by Ken
    Is it possible to recycle an IIS7 app pool from the command line, on a different machine? I've found APPCMD (appcmd recycle apppool my-app-pool), but it only operates on the host it's run on, AFAICT. I heard a rumor there might be a way to do it with Powershell, but I know nothing about that, and I'm apparently not very good at googling for it. I'm using Vista / Server 2008, if that matters. EDIT: I found something called WinRM that somebody claims is able to run APPCMD itself, but I'm not sure exactly how, yet.

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  • Recycle remote IIS app pool from the command line?

    - by Ken
    Is it possible to recycle an IIS7 app pool from the command line, on a different machine? I've found APPCMD (appcmd recycle apppool my-app-pool), but it only operates on the host it's run on, AFAICT. I heard a rumor there might be a way to do it with Powershell, but I know nothing about that, and I'm apparently not very good at googling for it. I'm using Vista / Server 2008, if that matters. EDIT: I found something called WinRM that somebody claims is able to run APPCMD itself, but I'm not sure exactly how, yet.

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