Search Results

Search found 26695 results on 1068 pages for 'domain driven design'.

Page 240/1068 | < Previous Page | 236 237 238 239 240 241 242 243 244 245 246 247  | Next Page >

  • Apache mod_rewrite - forward domain root to subdirectory

    - by DuFace
    I have what I originally assumed to be a simple problem. I am using shared hosting for my website (so I don't have access to the Apache configuration) and have only been given a single folder to store all my content in. This is all well and good but it means that all my subdomains must have their virtual document root's inside public_html, meaning they effectively become a folder on my main domain. What I'd like to do is organise my public_html something like this: public_html/ www/ index.php ... sub1/ index.php ... some_library/ ... This way, all my web content is still in public_html but only a small fraction of it will be served to the client. I can easily achieve this for all the subdomains, but it's the primary domain that I'm having issues with. I created a .htaccess file in public_html with the following: Options +SymLinksIfOwnerMatch # I'm not allowed to use FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/www [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /www/$1 [L] This works fairly well, but for some strange reason www.example.com/stuff is translated into a request for www.example.com/www/stuff and hence a 404 error is given. It was my understanding that unless an 'R' flag was specified, mod_rewrite was purely internal so I can't understand why the request is generated as that implies (to me at least) redirection. I assumed this would be a trivial problem to solve as all I actually want to do is forward all requests for the root of www.example.com to a subdirectory, but I've spent hours searching for answers and none are quite correct. I find it difficult to believe I'm the only person to have this issue. I apologise if this question has been answered on here before, I did search and trawl but couldn't find an appropriate answer. Please could someone shed some light on this?

    Read the article

  • RequestBuilder timeouts and browser connection limits per domain.

    - by WesleyJohnson
    This is specifically about GWT's RequestBuilder, but should apply to general XHR as well. My company is having me build a near realtime chat application over HTTP. Yes, I do realize there are better ways to do chat aplications, but this is what they want. Eventually we want it working on the iPad/iPhone as well so flash is out, which rules out websockets and comet as well, I think? Anyway, I'm running into issues were I've set GWT's RequestBuilder timeout to 10 seconds and we get very random and sporadic timeouts. We've got error handling and emailing on the server side and never get any errors, which suggests the underlying XHR request that RequestBuilder is built on, never gets to the server and times out after 10 seconds. We're using these request to poll the server for new messages rather often and also for sending new messages to the server and also polling (less frequently) for other parts of application. What I'm afraid of is that we're running into the browsers limit on concurrent connections to the same domain (2 for IE by default?). Now my question is - If I construct a RequestBuilder and call it's send() method and the browser blocks it from sending until one of the 2 connections per domain is free, does the timeout still start while the request is being blocked or will it not start until the browser actually releases the underlying XHR? I hope that's clear, if not please let me know and I'll try to explain more.

    Read the article

  • Complex SQL design, help/advice needed

    - by eugeneK
    Hi, i have few questions for SQL gurus in here ... Briefly this is ads management system where user can define campaigns for different countries, categories, languages. I have few questions in mind so help me with what you can. Generally i'm using ASP.NET and i want to cache all result set of certain user once he asks for statistics for the first time, this way i will avoid large round-trips to server. any help is welcomed Click here for diagram with all details you need for my questions 1.Main issue of this application is to show to the user how many clicks/impressions were and how much money he spent on campaign. What is the easiest way to get this information for him? I will also include filtering by date, date ranges and few other params in this statistics table. 2.Other issue is what happens when user will try to edit campaign. Old campaign will die this means if user set 0.01$ as campaignPPU (pay-per-unit) and next day updates it to 0.05$ all will be reset to 0.05$. 3.If you could re-design some parts of table design so it would be more flexible and easier to modify, how would you do it? Thanks... sorry for so large job but it may interest some SQL guys in here

    Read the article

  • OOP design issue: Polymorphism

    - by Graham Phillips
    I'm trying to solve a design issue using inheritance based polymorphism and dynamic binding. I have an abstract superclass and two subclasses. The superclass contains common behaviour. SubClassA and SubClassB define some different methods: SubClassA defines a method performTransform(), but SubClassB does not. So the following example 1 var v:SuperClass; 2 var b:SubClassB = new SubClassB(); 3 v = b; 4 v.performTransform(); would cause a compile error on line 4 as performTransform() is not defined in the superclass. We can get it to compile by casting... (v as SubClassA).performTransform(); however, this will cause a runtime exception to be thrown as v is actually an instance of SubClassB, which also does not define performTransform() So we can get around that by testing the type of an object before casting it: if( typeof v == SubClassA) { (cast v to SubClassA).performTransform(); } That will ensure that we only call performTransform() on v's that are instances of SubClassA. That's a pretty inelegant solution to my eyes, but at least its safe. I have used interface based polymorphism (interface meaning a type that can't be instantiated and defines the API of classes that implement it) in the past, but that also feels clunky. For the above case, if SubClassA and SubClassB implemented ISuperClass that defined performTransform, then they would both have to implement performTransform(). If SubClassB had no real need for a performTransform() you would have to implement an empty function. There must be a design pattern out there that addresses the issue.

    Read the article

  • Two references to the same domain/entity model

    - by Sbossb
    Problem I want to save the attributes of a model that have changed when a user edits them. Here's what I want to do ... Retrieve edited view model Get domain model and map back updated value Call the update method on repository Get the "old" domain model and compare values of the fields Store the changed values (in JSON) into a table However I am having trouble with step number 4. It seems that the Entity Framework doesn't want to hit the database again to get the model with the old values. It just returns the same entity I have. Attempted Solutions I have tried using the Find() and the SingleOrDefault() methods, but they just return the model I currently have. Example Code private string ArchiveChanges(T updatedEntity) { //Here is the problem! //oldEntity is the same as updatedEntity T oldEntity = DbSet.SingleOrDefault(x => x.ID == updatedEntity.ID); Dictionary<string, object> changed = new Dictionary<string, object>(); foreach (var propertyInfo in typeof(T).GetProperties()) { var property = typeof(T).GetProperty(propertyInfo.Name); //Get the old value and the new value from the models var newValue = property.GetValue(updatedEntity, null); var oldValue = property.GetValue(oldEntity, null); //Check to see if the values are equal if (!object.Equals(newValue, oldValue)) { //Values have changed ... log it changed.Add(propertyInfo.Name, newValue); } } var ser = new System.Web.Script.Serialization.JavaScriptSerializer(); return ser.Serialize(changed); } public override void Update(T entityToUpdate) { //Do something with this string json = ArchiveChanges(entityToUpdate); entityToUpdate.AuditInfo.Updated = DateTime.Now; entityToUpdate.AuditInfo.UpdatedBy = Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name; base.Update(entityToUpdate); }

    Read the article

  • Problem accessing private variables in jQuery like chainable design pattern

    - by novogeek
    Hi folks, I'm trying to create my custom toolbox which imitates jQuery's design pattern. Basically, the idea is somewhat derived from this post: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2061501/jquery-plugin-design-pattern-common-practice-for-dealing-with-private-function (Check the answer given by "David"). So here is my toolbox function: (function(window){ var mySpace=function(){ return new PrivateSpace(); } var PrivateSpace=function(){ var testCache={}; }; PrivateSpace.prototype={ init:function(){ console.log('init this:', this); return this; }, ajax:function(){ console.log('make ajax calls here'); return this; }, cache:function(key,selector){ console.log('cache selectors here'); testCache[key]=selector; console.log('cached selector: ',testCache); return this; } } window.hmis=window.m$=mySpace(); })(window) Now, if I execute this function like: console.log(m$.cache('firstname','#FirstNameTextbox')); I get an error 'testCache' is not defined. I'm not able to access the variable "testCache" inside my cache function of the prototype. How should I access it? Basically, what I want to do is, I want to cache all my jQuery selectors into an object and use this object in the future.

    Read the article

  • C++ Design Question on template types

    - by user231536
    I have a templated class template <typename T> class MyContainerClass For types to be substituted for T, it has to satisfy many requirements: for example, get_id(), int data(), etc. Obviously none of the fundamental types (PODs) are substitutable. One way I can provide this is via wrappers for the PODs that provide these functions. Is this an acceptable way? Another way would be to change the template to: template < typename T, typename C=traits<T> > class MyContainerClass and inside MyContainerClass, call traits::data() instead of data() on T objects. I will specialize traits<int>, traits<const char *> etc. Is this good design ? How do I design such a traits class (completely static methods or allow for inheritance) ? Or are the wrapper classes a good solution? What other alternatives are there?

    Read the article

  • Flash Builder 4 "includeIn" property causing design view error

    - by Chris
    I am creating a custom TextInput component that will define an "error" state. I have extended the TextInput class to change the state to "error" if the errorString property's length is greater than 0. In the skin class, I have defined an "error" state, and added some logic to detect the size and position of the error icon. However, if I have this code at the same time I use the "includeIn" property in the bitmap image tag, I get a design view error. If I either A) Only include that code with no "includeIn" property set, it works or B) dont include the code to set the icon size and position and only use the "includeIn" property, it works. Any ideas what could be causing the design view problem when I use both the "includeIn" property and the icon size/position code at the same time? TextInput Class: package classes { import spark.components.TextInput; public class TextInput extends spark.components.TextInput { [SkinState("error")]; public function TextInput() { super(); } override public function set errorString( value:String ):void { super.errorString = value; invalidateSkinState(); } override protected function getCurrentSkinState():String { if (errorString.length>0) { return "error"; } return super.getCurrentSkinState(); } } } TextInput Skin File: override protected function updateDisplayList(unscaledWidth:Number, unscaledHeight:Number):void { //THIS IS THE CODE THAT SEEMS TO BE CAUSING THE PROBLEM if(getStyle("iconSize") == "large") { errorIcon.right = -12; errorIcon.source = new errorIconLg(); } else { errorIcon.right = -5; errorIcon.source = new errorIconSm(); } super.updateDisplayList(unscaledWidth, unscaledHeight); } </fx:Script> <s:states> <s:State name="normal"/> <s:State name="disabled"/> <s:State name="error"/> </s:states> //If I remove the problem code above or if I take out the includeIn //property here, it works <s:BitmapImage id="errorIcon" verticalCenter="0" includeIn="error" /> </s:SparkSkin>

    Read the article

  • SQL Table design question

    - by Projapati
    Please ignore this question if it sounds stupid to you. I have SQL table (SQL Server) for photo albums and it has 20+ columns & it will hold millions of albums. I need to designate some albums as Promoted and some as Featured every week. I also need a very efficient way to get these albums (page by page) when I show it to users. How should I design this? option 1: I can create another table just to store the ids of the promoted and featured albums like this and then join the main albums table to get the set of columns I need. table designated_albums: album_id promoted_featured 1 1 5 0 7 1 15 0 The query for promoted will return 1, 7 The query for featured will return 5, 15 Option 2: I can add 1 column store 1 if promoted and 0 if featured. Otherwise it is null I can then query to check for 1 in that column for promoted albums & 0 for featured. Option 3: I can add 2 bit columns: one for promoted (0/1) and one for featured(0/1) Which way would perform better? EDIT: The design should be efficient in SQL 2008 as well. Right now I have SQL 2005.

    Read the article

  • Google chrome is always searching in local google domain instead of Google.com

    - by Pablo
    I have changed in the searched preferences to google.com but still when I do search from the address bar (instant or non-instant) it will go to google.co.kr. Even though I change "Google.com in English", still same... The only way is to open google.com website first, then do search in it. So the question - is there any way to force Chrome to search in Google.com instead of google.co.kr? I understand there is some geolocational checking/redirecting, but there must be some way to force...

    Read the article

  • Lync CMS replication is failing for all Domain Computers

    - by Ravi Kanneganti
    I have Lync Server 2010 and Active Directory installed on 2 different Windows Server 2008 R2 machines. I have added a Windows 7 PC to AD. And I have added this computer to Trusted Application Servers Pool and published the topology. I want to build an UCMA application to extend Lync Server functionality. I have installed UCMA 3.0 SDK in the same computer where Lync Server is residing. But, CMS Replication isn't happening and "Get-CsManagementStoreReplicationStatus" always gives Uptodate as "False" for my Windows 7 PC. I have even tried "Invoke-CSManagementStoreReplication" but nothing changed. Also, this is the error message that I can see in the log file: TL_WARN(TF_COMPONENT) [2]0500.07B8::04/05/2012-14:55:07.296.00000f85 (XDS_Replica_Replicator,FileDistributeTask.Execute:filedistributetask.cs(165))(000000000043B3FA)**Could not distribute the file. Exception: [System.IO.IOException: The process cannot access the file because it is being used by another process.** at System.IO.__Error.WinIOError(Int32 errorCode, String maybeFullPath) at System.IO.File.Move(String sourceFileName, String destFileName) at Microsoft.Rtc.Xds.Replication.Replicator.Common.FileDistributeTask.Execute()]. TL_NOISE(TF_DIAG) [2]0500.07B8::04/05/2012-14:55:07.296.00000f86 (XDS_Replica_Replicator,ReplicaTaskContainer<T>.OnError:replicataskcontainer.cs(166))(00000000005C39D4)Enter. TL_INFO(TF_COMPONENT) [2]0500.07B8::04/05/2012-14:55:07.296.00000f87 (XDS_Replica_Replicator,ReplicaTaskContainer<T>.OnError:replicataskcontainer.cs(171))(00000000005C39D4)Task error callback is about to be called. TL_VERBOSE(TF_DIAG) [2]0500.07B8::04/05/2012-14:55:07.296.00000f88 (XDS_Replica_Replicator,PerReplicaTaskManager<T>.HandleTaskError:perreplicataskmanager.cs(230))(000000000385E79C)Enter. TL_INFO(TF_COMPONENT) [2]0500.07B8::04/05/2012-14:55:07.296.00000f89 (XDS_Replica_Replicator,PerReplicaTaskManager<T>.HandleTaskError:perreplicataskmanager.cs(234))(000000000385E79C)Task encountered an error: [ReplicaTaskContainer<FileDistributeTask>{FileDistributeTask{E:\RtcReplicaRoot\xds-replica\from-master\data.zip, E:\RtcReplicaRoot\xds-replica\working\replication\from-master\data.zip, **Access failed**. (E:\RtcReplicaRoot\xds-replica\from-master\data.zip)}, FileDistributeTask{E:\RtcReplicaRoot\xds-replica\from-master\data.zip, E:\RtcReplicaRoot\xds-replica\working\replication\from-master\data.zip, }}]

    Read the article

  • Redirect request from https domain to https subdomain with only one certificate

    - by Sean K.
    I'm trying to redirect users to a subdomain in server2 if they make an https request to server1. I only have one certificate, and that's installed on server2. So for instance, from (server1) https://www.example.com to (server2) https://ssl.example.com My best guess is that I will need a certificate for https://www.example.com as the hostname is encrypted inside the HTTP header so my server won't know to redirect until it's decrypted. However, I'm curious if this is possible without two certificates?

    Read the article

  • Changing default gateway on workstations connected to Windows Domain SBS server

    - by Gary B2312321321
    We have xp workstations connected onto a small business server acting as active directory/isa firewall/proxy (no dhcp). Is there a reason that after installing a 2nd firewall on the network (same subnet etc), that changing the default gateway on the workstations isnt sufficient to route inet traffic through the new firewall? A freshly setup linux box connects straight on to the alternate firewall with just ip, default gateway. dns settings. Will having ISA still active on the network confuse the process? Are there further config settings deeper down in windows that need attention? Any ideas pointers on this would be appreciated? Other info: Firewalls tried: Smoothwall and Ipcop; small ethernet netwoork 40 pcs; can ping to new firwalls from workstations; activating web proxy on new firewall and reconfiguring workstation browser works fine; Point of 2nd firewall is lack of some necessary features on ISA for a linux app; Would be nice to have some redundancy to though

    Read the article

  • Setting up multiple servers for one domain

    - by Joseph Torraca
    So I am starting up a new website and I was wondering how to set up 5 servers to host the site. I have already purchased 5 Apple XServes, one will be used as a test server and the other 4 will be for the live site. So I have read some website on the internet and they all reference using one server and installing software onto it and have that server do the load balancing. I have also read that you could use a hardware, rack-mounted system and plug the servers into that. The load balancer would then distribute the load. So I have a few questions about each: 1) How do you set up the software version and have the other servers as "slaves" and have one "master" to direct traffic? 2) Which of the two options above are more reliable, and better suited for a startup that doesn't have many users per month, yet(hopefully)? 3) Is there a theoretical max limit of servers that can be connected to a software load balancing system? Note: Obviously this will change from software to software, but in terms of the server being able to handle it? 4) In your own opinion, what are you using for your sites? Have you had any problems setting up that system or operating it once its running? Are there any things you would stay away from if you had to start over? 5) I also purchased a Apple RAID system, so if you are familiar with it, is there any way to connect it to multiple Xserves so they all serve the same data? I'm a little confused on this, so thanks for all your help and being patient with me. Note: Take it easy on me, I am learning this as I go along, so I may have used terms incorrectly or explained things that don't really make sense. Sorry. P.S. If you need me to supply the specs on the servers to determine which system makes the most sense, I can post them for you.

    Read the article

  • Transition domain to new web host without waiting for DNS propagation

    - by jcmoney
    I was considering switching to Amazon EC2 to host my website to handle more traffic. It seems like I would have to update DNS records to point to the new server but I was wondering if there was a way to avoid having to wait for the new DNS record to propagate. Putting the code on both hosts would not work for me since the app writes to a database pretty frequently. I thought about just using a meta redirect or php redirect on the old host to redirect to the new host ip but was wondering if there's a better more accepted way of doing this.

    Read the article

  • Printer Management in AD Domain

    - by Untalented
    Hello, I normally push out all my printers via group policy preferences. However, the new copy machines I have are using some stranger drivers and I can not install x64/x86 drivers on the same machine for my clients to pull drivers from. So now I have two machines setup with the printer so they can pull drivers. Ontop of this there is specific driver configuration settings such as requiring the user to enter an access code to print set. Once the printer is installed via GPP, it puts everything to the default such as color mode, and other custom settings we like. I considered just using a Windows Print Server for this, but I do not know a way to push/delete these from clients like I can with GPP. Does anyone know how I can have a GPP copy the custom configuration I have set in the driver or have any recommendations?

    Read the article

  • Samba Domain Controller corrupts Windows workstations profiles?

    - by MrZombie
    Oooooook, so here's my problem. I have a Mac OS X Server 10.5 to which Windows XP workstations are bound. I happened upon some errors and warnings in my log, from Userenv. Namely, error 1504, 1509. The warning complains that some setting on the share about offline caching. I found some guides to correct this if the problem was referring to a Windows server, but since those are Samba shares, the guide of course doesn't apply. Does anyone know what to do so that my profiles don't corrupt, and I still can use roaming profiles so that they're backed up by the server?

    Read the article

  • Assigning static IP and domain name mapping to local server in LAN

    - by yashbinani
    I have developed a web application which will be deployed in a LAN environemnt. Clients will be Computers/Android Tablets/IPAD In order for communication between client and local server 1) need to assign a static IP to local server. 2) need a domian name mapping for that IP address in Local environment. 3) router should assign the same static IP if it gets restarted etc. I am using a windows XP machine as Local server OS. Do i need to take care of router configurations before buying one, or all routers will have same capability to perform this task. I am not a network specialist, so Sorry if this question sounds stupid. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Have to enter google sites through second-level domain

    - by Anton Geraschenko
    I'm having the same problem as this guy. I own two domains hosted on google sites, mydomain.com and mydomain.net. When I go to mydomain.com, it redirects me to the site located at www.mydomain.com (this is the desired behavior). This used to also work on mydomain.net, but now when I go to mydomain.net, I get a Google 404. To see the content, I have to go to www.mydomain.net. As far as I can tell, the DNS settings and Google apps settings for both domains are identical. Does anybody have any idea about what could be happening?

    Read the article

  • Setup Domain Keys / DKIM on Exchange 2003

    - by Campo
    I need some suggestions for setting up DKIM on my exchange server 2003. We already use SPF but I feel a lot of email providers use this DKIM method. I would like to utilize both systems. This site was the best I could find with step by step instructions. If anyone could get more detailed that would be excellent. Let me know if you need more info.

    Read the article

  • Map a domain to another subdomain - Rackspace

    - by Gorgi Rankovski
    I am using a subdomain as a parameter to an ASP.NET MVC 4 application. It's working well. Now I need to test my approach, so I have the application hosted on appharbor. It works well with subdomains here too. Our DNS registers are on Rackspace, but I have no control over it. Another guy is responsible for that. So, myapp.apphb.com can be accessed through myapp.com. Also abc.myapp.com is working as expected. I use abc as a parameter. So, now I want abc.com to be mapped in those Rackspace DNS registers to abc.myapp.com Is this possible at all? Can you explain to us how to do that? Will I have some problems with it? Anything that I should be aware of? Please have in mind that I am newbie when it comes to DNS. And no experience with Rackspace. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Good infrastructure design questions for software developers?

    - by JakeRobinson
    Building on Jeff's blog post titled Vampires (Programmers) versus Werewolves (Sysadmins) From my perspective, the whole point of the company is to talk about what we're doing. Getting things done is important, of course, but we have to stop occasionally to write up what we're doing, how we're doing it, and why we're even doing it in the first place -- including all our doubts and misgivings and concerns. So, what are some questions you ask your software developers when they request a server?

    Read the article

  • Domino Document data compression and design compression

    - by pipalia
    I was thinking of turning this on some large databases not just mail files - we have around 8 - 10GB of large databases as well as small databases of couple of hundred MB in size. But after reading this post I am not too sure: http://www-10.lotus.com/ldd/nd85forum.nsf/4b9931b774db788c85256bf0006b5e6d/1f4e67b569720e54852576c0003cb8ac?OpenDocument Can anyone confirm whether this is true? Are these any ill effects on performance by turning this feature on and if so what's the difference in performance? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Redirect absolutely anything to new domain with .htaccess

    - by John Hunt
    Ok, so I'm in need a simple redirect: Redirect 301 / http://www.new.com/ Similar to that, except I want it to catch anything, such as: www.old.com/blah/blah/?xyz=123&aaaaabbbb=erewr3ttt#ewtjhirhjerh and send the user to: www.new.com Should be easy right? Finding out how to do this is not so easy. Using the above rule we're still getting 404's for things that aren't there rather than the Redirect rule just getting everything.

    Read the article

  • domain is pointing to default static page on server but settings look correct

    - by Cues
    I have edited my apache vhost file in /etc/apache2/sites-enabled to add the following: <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName www.mysite.cn ServerAlias mysite.cn *.mysite.cn DocumentRoot /home/user/static/mysite/cn </VirtualHost> It still points to the default site on the server when i browse to mysite.cn but when i enter anything along the lines of ww3.mysite.cn it point to the new correct document root any clues of what the problem could be as i am lost.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 236 237 238 239 240 241 242 243 244 245 246 247  | Next Page >