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  • Multiset container appears to stop sorting

    - by Sarah
    I would appreciate help debugging some strange behavior by a multiset container. Occasionally, the container appears to stop sorting. This is an infrequent error, apparent in only some simulations after a long time, and I'm short on ideas. (I'm an amateur programmer--suggestions of all kinds are welcome.) My container is a std::multiset that holds Event structs: typedef std::multiset< Event, std::less< Event > > EventPQ; with the Event structs sorted by their double time members: struct Event { public: explicit Event(double t) : time(t), eventID(), hostID(), s() {} Event(double t, int eid, int hid, int stype) : time(t), eventID( eid ), hostID( hid ), s(stype) {} bool operator < ( const Event & rhs ) const { return ( time < rhs.time ); } double time; ... }; The program iterates through periods of adding events with unordered times to EventPQ currentEvents and then pulling off events in order. Rarely, after some events have been added (with perfectly 'legal' times), events start getting executed out of order. What could make the events ever not get ordered properly? (Or what could mess up the iterator?) I have checked that all the added event times are legitimate (i.e., all exceed the current simulation time), and I have also confirmed that the error does not occur because two events happen to get scheduled for the same time. I'd love suggestions on how to work through this. The code for executing and adding events is below for the curious: double t = 0.0; double nextTimeStep = t + EPID_DELTA_T; EventPQ::iterator eventIter = currentEvents.begin(); while ( t < EPID_SIM_LENGTH ) { // Add some events to currentEvents while ( ( *eventIter ).time < nextTimeStep ) { Event thisEvent = *eventIter; t = thisEvent.time; executeEvent( thisEvent ); eventCtr++; currentEvents.erase( eventIter ); eventIter = currentEvents.begin(); } t = nextTimeStep; nextTimeStep += EPID_DELTA_T; } void Simulation::addEvent( double et, int eid, int hid, int s ) { assert( currentEvents.find( Event(et) ) == currentEvents.end() ); Event thisEvent( et, eid, hid, s ); currentEvents.insert( thisEvent ); }

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  • How do I write object classes effectively when dealing with table joins?

    - by Chris
    I should start by saying I'm not now, nor do I have any delusions I'll ever be a professional programmer so most of my skills have been learned from experience very much as a hobby. I learned PHP as it seemed a good simple introduction in certain areas and it allowed me to design simple web applications. When I learned about objects, classes etc the tutor's basic examnples covered the idea that as a rule of thumb each database table should have its own class. While that worked well for the photo gallery project we wrote, as it had very simple mysql queries, it's not working so well now my projects are getting more complex. If I require data from two separate tables which require a table join I've instead been ignoring the class altogether and handling it on a case by case basis, OR, even worse been combining some of the data into the class and the rest as a separate entity and doing two queries, which to me seems inefficient. As an example, when viewing content on a forum I wrote, if you view a thread, I retrieve data from the threads table, the posts table and the user table. The queries from the user and posts table are retrieved via a join and not instantiated as an object, whereas the thread data is called using my Threads class. So how do I get from my current state of affairs to something a little less 'stupid', for want of a better word. Right now I have a DB class that deals with connection and escaping values etc, a parent db query class that deals with the common queries and methods, and all of the other classes (Thread, Upload, Session, Photo and ones thats aren't used Post, User etc ) are children of that. Do I make a big posts class that has the relevant extra attributes that I retrieve from the users (and potentially threads) table? Do I have separate classes that populate each of their relevant attributes with a single query? If so how do I do that? Because of the way my classes are written, based on what I was taught, my db update row method, or insert method both just take the attributes as an array and update all of that, if I have extra attributes from other db tables in each class then how do I rewrite those methods as obbiously updating automatically like that would result in errors? In short I think my understanding is limited right now and I'd like some pointers when it comes to the fundamentals of how to write more complex classes.

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  • A program where user enters a string and the program counts the instances of the letters

    - by user1865183
    This is the first C++ program I have ever written and I'm having trouble understanding the order in which operands must be put in. This is for a class, but it looks like I'm not supposed to use the homework tag. Sorry if I'm doing this wrong. This is my input // Get DNA string string st; cout << "Enter the DNA sequence to be analysed: "; cin >> st; This seems to work ok, but I thought I would include it incase this is what I'm doing wrong. This is what I have so far to check that the input is exclusively C,T,A, or G. It runs through the program and simply prints "Please enter a valid sequnce1, please enter a valid sequence2, ... ect. I'm sure I'm doing something very stupid, I just can't figure it out. // Check that the sequence is all C, T, A, G while (i <= st.size()){ if (st[i] != 'c' && st[i] != 'C' && st[i] != 'g' && st[i] != 'G' && st[i] != 't' && st[i] != 'T' && st[i] != 'a' && st[i] != 'A'); cout << "Please enter a valid sequence" << i++; else if (st[i] == c,C,G,t,T,a,A) i++; The second half of my program is to count the number of Cs and Gs in the sequence for (i < st.size() ; i++ ;); for (loop <= st.size() ; loop++;) if (st[loop] == 'c') { count_c++; } else if (st[loop] == C) { count_c++; } else if (st[loop] == g) { count_g++; } else if (st[loop] == G); { count_g++; } cout << "Number of instances of C = " << count_c; cout << "Number of instances of G = " << count_g; It seems like it's not looping, it will count 1 of one of the letters. How do I make it loop? I can't seem to put in endl; anywhere without getting an error back, although I know I'll need it somewhere. Any help or tips to point me in the right direction would be greatly appreciated - I've been working on this code for two days (this is embarrassing to admit).

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  • How to create multiple Repository object inside a Repository class using Unit Of Work?

    - by Santosh
    I am newbie to MVC3 application development, currently, we need following Application technologies as requirement MVC3 framework IOC framework – Autofac to manage object creation dynamically Moq – Unit testing Entity Framework Repository and Unit Of Work Pattern of Model class I have gone through many article to explore an basic idea about the above points but still I am little bit confused on the “Repository and Unit Of Work Pattern “. Basically what I understand Unit Of Work is a pattern which will be followed along with Repository Pattern in order to share the single DB Context among all Repository object, So here is my design : IUnitOfWork.cs public interface IUnitOfWork : IDisposable { IPermitRepository Permit_Repository{ get; } IRebateRepository Rebate_Repository { get; } IBuildingTypeRepository BuildingType_Repository { get; } IEEProjectRepository EEProject_Repository { get; } IRebateLookupRepository RebateLookup_Repository { get; } IEEProjectTypeRepository EEProjectType_Repository { get; } void Save(); } UnitOfWork.cs public class UnitOfWork : IUnitOfWork { #region Private Members private readonly CEEPMSEntities context = new CEEPMSEntities(); private IPermitRepository permit_Repository; private IRebateRepository rebate_Repository; private IBuildingTypeRepository buildingType_Repository; private IEEProjectRepository eeProject_Repository; private IRebateLookupRepository rebateLookup_Repository; private IEEProjectTypeRepository eeProjectType_Repository; #endregion #region IUnitOfWork Implemenation public IPermitRepository Permit_Repository { get { if (this.permit_Repository == null) { this.permit_Repository = new PermitRepository(context); } return permit_Repository; } } public IRebateRepository Rebate_Repository { get { if (this.rebate_Repository == null) { this.rebate_Repository = new RebateRepository(context); } return rebate_Repository; } } } PermitRepository .cs public class PermitRepository : IPermitRepository { #region Private Members private CEEPMSEntities objectContext = null; private IObjectSet<Permit> objectSet = null; #endregion #region Constructors public PermitRepository() { } public PermitRepository(CEEPMSEntities _objectContext) { this.objectContext = _objectContext; this.objectSet = objectContext.CreateObjectSet<Permit>(); } #endregion public IEnumerable<RebateViewModel> GetRebatesByPermitId(int _permitId) { // need to implment } } PermitController .cs public class PermitController : Controller { #region Private Members IUnitOfWork CEEPMSContext = null; #endregion #region Constructors public PermitController(IUnitOfWork _CEEPMSContext) { if (_CEEPMSContext == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("Object can not be null"); } CEEPMSContext = _CEEPMSContext; } #endregion } So here I am wondering how to generate a new Repository for example “TestRepository.cs” using same pattern where I can create more then one Repository object like RebateRepository rebateRepo = new RebateRepository () AddressRepository addressRepo = new AddressRepository() because , what ever Repository object I want to create I need an object of UnitOfWork first as implmented in the PermitController class. So if I would follow the same in each individual Repository class that would again break the priciple of Unit Of Work and create multiple instance of object context. So any idea or suggestion will be highly appreciated. Thank you

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  • How can I fix this touch event / draw loop "deadlock"?

    - by Josh
    Just want to start out by saying this seems like a great site, hope you guys can help! I'm trying to use the structure laid out in LunarLander to create a simple game in which the user can drag some bitmaps around on the screen (the actual game is more complex, but that's not important). I ripped out the irrelevant parts of LanderLander, and set up my own bitmap drawing, something like BoardThread (an inner class of BoardView): run() { while(mRun) { canvas = lockSurfaceHolder... syncronized(mSurfaceHolder) { /* drawStuff using member position fields in BoardView */ } unlockSurfaceHolder } } My drawStuff simply walks through some arrays and throws bitmaps onto the canvas. All that works fine. Then I wanted to start handling touch events so that when the user presses a bitmap, it is selected, when the user unpresses a bitmap, it is deselected, and if a bitmap is selected during a touch move event, the bitmap is dragged. I did this stuff by listening for touch events in the BoardView's parent, BoardActivity, and passing them down into the BoardView. Something like In BoardView handleTouchEvent(MotionEvent e) { synchronized(mSurfaceHolder) { /* Modify shared member fields in BoardView so BoardThread can render the bitmaps */ } } This ALSO works fine. I can drag my tiles around the screen no problem. However, every once in a while, when the app first starts up and I trigger my first touch event, the handleTouchEvent stops executing at the synchronized line (as viewed in DDMS). The drawing loop is active during this time (I can tell because a timer changes onscreen), and it usually takes several seconds or more before a bunch of touch events come through the pipeline and everything is fine again. This doesn't seem like deadlock to me, since the draw loop is constantly going in and out of its syncronized block. Shouldn't this allow the event handling thread to grab a lock on mSurfaceHolder? What's going on here? Anyone have suggestions for improving how I've structured this? Some other info. This "hang" only ever occurs on first touch event after activity start. This includes on orientation change after restoreState has been called. Also, I can remove EVERYTHING within the syncronized block in the event handler, and it will still get hung up at the syncronized call. Thanks!

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  • Is there a way for a user to disable an AlertDialog completely?

    - by NewGuyChris
    In the app I'm making, I have an "if" statement where if two strings are saved to a certain string, an AlertDialog pops up. These strings will stay the same for some users, thus having this AlertDialog constantly pop up whenever they launch the activity where the ALertDialog is set to appear. Code (I have no setNegativeButton as of yet): private void SetWarning() { AlertDialog.Builder alert = new AlertDialog.Builder(this); alert.setTitle("Warning!"); alert.setMessage(R.string.Warning); alert.setPositiveButton("Ok", new DialogInterface.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(DialogInterface dialog, int whichButton) { //No action needed; just close the AlertDialog. } }); alert.show(); } Here is a segment of my code that makes this AlertDialog appear: SharedPreferences sharedPreferences = getSharedPreferences("MY_PREF", MODE_PRIVATE); String s = sharedPreferences2.getString("MEM1", ""); String s2 = sharedPreferences2.getString("MEM2", ""); if(s.equals("String1") && s2.equals("String2")) SetWarning(); Is there a way to make an "alert.setNegativeButton" method where if the user clicks it, the AlertDialog will NEVER appear again? I'm thinking of maybe somehow implementing another SavedPreferences somehow so it saves the users selection and will then prevent the AlertDialog from ever appearing again. So far, to no luck. I've searched to find nothing, other than people asking how to disable buttons in an AlertDialog. Thank you! New updated code: alert.setNegativeButton("Cancel", new DialogInterface.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(DialogInterface dialog, int whichButton) { //set sharedpreferences boolean called DONTSHOWAGAIN to true; SharedPreferences sharedPreferences2 = getSharedPreferences("MY_PREF", MODE_PRIVATE); Boolean dontShowAgain = sharedPreferences2.getBoolean("dontShowAgain ", false); SharedPreferences.Editor ed = sharedPreferences2.edit(); ed.putBoolean("dontShowAgain", true); ed.commit(); } }); alert.show(); } private void StringWarning() { SharedPreferences sharedPreferences2 = getSharedPreferences("MY_PREF", MODE_PRIVATE); String s = sharedPreferences2.getString("MEM1", ""); String s2 = sharedPreferences2.getString("MEM2", ""); if(s.equals("String1") && s2.equals("String2")){ if(!dontShowAgain){ SetWarningExamConflict(); } }

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  • Visual studio 2010 colourizers, intellisense and the rest. Where to start!!

    - by Owen
    Ok, before I begin I realize that there is a lot of documentation on this subject but I have thus far failed to get even basic colourization working for VS2010. My goal is to simply get to a point where I can open a document and everything is coloured red, from here I can implement the relevant parsing logic. Here's what I have tried/found: 1) Downloaded all the relevent SDK's and such- Found the ook sample (http://code.msdn.microsoft.com/ookLanguage) - didn't build, didn't work. 2) Knowing almost nothing about MEF read through "Implementing a Language Service By Using the Managed Package Framework" - http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb166533(v=VS.100).aspx This was pretty much a copy and paste of all the basic stuff here, and also updating some references which were out of date with the sample see: http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/vsx/thread/a310fe67-afd2-4592-b295-3fc86fec7996 Now, I have got to a point where when running the package MEF appears to have hooked up correctly (I know this because with the debugger open I can see that the packages initialize and FDoIdle methods are being hit). When I open a file of the extension I have registered with the ProvideLanguageExtensionAttribute everything dies as if in an endless loop, yet no debug symbols hit (though they are loaded). Looking at the ook sample and the MEF examples they seem to be totally different approaches to the same problem. In the ook sample there are notions of Clasifications and Completion controllers which aren't mentioned in the MEF example. Also, they don't seem to create a Package or Language service, so I have no idea how it should work? With the MEF example, my assumption is that I need to hook into the "IScanner.ScanTokenAndProvideInfoAboutIt" to provide syntax highlighting? Which would be fine if I could ever hit this method. So my first question I guess is which approach should I be taking here? Or do they both somehow tie together? My second questions is, where can I find a basic fully working project that implements bog standard basic syntax highlighting and intellisense or VS2010? Thirdly, in the MEF example when I created a Package there were a bunch of test projects created for me. I appears that the integration tests launch the VS2010 test rig somehow, but the test fails. It would be good to write my service with tests but I have no idea what/how I can test each interaction so any references to testing Language services would be helpful. Finally, please throw any resource/book links my way that I may find useful. Cheers, Chris. N.B. Sorry I realize this is part question part rant, but I have never been so confused.

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  • A two player game over the intranet..

    - by Santwana
    Hi everybody.. I am a student of 3rd year engineering and only a novice in my programming skills. I need some help with my project.. I wish to develop a two player game to be played over the network (Intranet). I want to develop a simple website with a few html pages for this.My ideas for the project run as follows: 1.People can log in from different systems and check who ever is online on the network currently. the page also shows who is playing with whom. 2.If a person is interested in playing with a player who is currently online, he sends a request of which the other player is somehow notified( using a message or an alert on his profile page..) 3.If the player accepts the request, a game is started. This is exactly where I am clueless.. How can I make them play the game? I need to develop a turn based game with two players, eg chessboard.. how can I do this? The game has to be played live.. and it is time tracked. i need your help with coding the above.. the other features i wish to include are: 4.The game could not be abruptly terminated by any one if the users.The request to terminate the game should be sent to the other player first and only if he accepts can the game be terminated. Whoever wins the game would get a plus 10 on their credit and if he terminated he gets a minus 10. The credits remains constant even if he loses but the success percentage is reduced. 6.The player with highest winning percentage is projected as the player of the week on the home page and he can post a challenge to all others.. I only have an intermediate knowledge of core java and know the basics of Swing and Awt. I am not at all familiar with networking in java right now. I have 5 to 6 weeks of time for developing the project but I hope to learn the things before I start my project. i would prefer to use a lan to illustrate the project and I know only java,jsp,oracle,html and bit of xml to develop my proj. Also I wish to know if I can code this within 6 weeks, would it be too difficult or complicated? Please spare some time to tell me. Please.. please.. I need your suggestions and help.. thank you so much..

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  • SQL Server 2005: Update rows in a specified order (like ORDER BY)?

    - by JMTyler
    I want to update rows of a table in a specific order, like one would expect if including an ORDER BY clause, but SQL Server does not support the ORDER BY clause in UPDATE queries. I have checked out this question which supplied a nice solution, but my query is a bit more complicated than the one specified there. UPDATE TableA AS Parent SET Parent.ColA = Parent.ColA + (SELECT TOP 1 Child.ColA FROM TableA AS Child WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB ORDER BY Child.Priority) ORDER BY Parent.Depth DESC; So, what I'm hoping that you'll notice is that a single table (TableA) contains a hierarchy of rows, wherein one row can be the parent or child of any other row. The rows need to be updated in order from the deepest child up to the root parent. This is because TableA.ColA must contain an up-to-date concatenation of its own current value with the values of its children (I realize this query only concats with one child, but that is for the sake of simplicity - the purpose of the example in this question does not necessitate any more verbosity), therefore the query must update from the bottom up. The solution suggested in the question I noted above is as follows: UPDATE messages SET status=10 WHERE ID in (SELECT TOP (10) Id FROM Table WHERE status=0 ORDER BY priority DESC ); The reason that I don't think I can use this solution is because I am referencing column values from the parent table inside my subquery (see WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB), and I don't think two sibling subqueries would have access to each others' data. So far I have only determined one way to merge that suggested solution with my current problem, and I don't think it works. UPDATE TableA AS Parent SET Parent.ColA = Parent.ColA + (SELECT TOP 1 Child.ColA FROM TableA AS Child WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB ORDER BY Child.Priority) WHERE Parent.Id IN (SELECT Id FROM TableA ORDER BY Parent.Depth DESC); The WHERE..IN subquery will not actually return a subset of the rows, it will just return the full list of IDs in the order that I want. However (I don't know for sure - please tell me if I'm wrong) I think that the WHERE..IN clause will not care about the order of IDs within the parentheses - it will just check the ID of the row it currently wants to update to see if it's in that list (which, they all are) in whatever order it is already trying to update... Which would just be a total waste of cycles, because it wouldn't change anything. So, in conclusion, I have looked around and can't seem to figure out a way to update in a specified order (and included the reason I need to update in that order, because I am sure I would otherwise get the ever-so-useful "why?" answers) and I am now hitting up Stack Overflow to see if any of you gurus out there who know more about SQL than I do (which isn't saying much) know of an efficient way to do this. It's particularly important that I only use a single query to complete this action. A long question, but I wanted to cover my bases and give you guys as much info to feed off of as possible. :) Any thoughts?

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  • Cocoa's newbie question: is it possible to bind a NSTableView's selection to another tableview's selection?

    - by cocoaOverloaded
    http://img651.imageshack.us/img651/6999/modelsf.jpg Let'say, I've 2 entities in the Core Data's Model file, one being all "transactions" ever done by X company. The "transactions" entity has among other properties, a "DATE" property and a to-one relationship "COMPANY"(specifying the company with which X company has done that particular transaction). The other entity:"companies" of course contains all the companies' info ,with which X company has done transaction. The "companies" entity has a to-many relationships "TRANSACTIONS" which is an inverse relationship to "transactions" entity's "COMPANY" relationship. So within IB, I created a NSTableView(with its own NSArrayController) showing all the transactions on a particular Date (with the help of NSPredicate). Then I create another table view showing the to-many relationship "TRANSACTIONS" of the company of the selected transaction in the first table view(which shows transactions on a particular date). The 2nd table view's NSArrayController binding is like this: ** bind to: "name of the first tableview's controller", Controller Key: selection, Model Key Path:COMPANY.TRANSACTIONS(the to-many relationship in the "companies" entity)** Everythings work fine up to this moment, the 2nd tableview shows all the transactions X company has done with the company of the selected transactions in the 1st table view. But I have a group of textfields showing details of a particular transactions. Binding the these textfields with the controller of the 1st table view(the one showing transactions on a particular date) is pretty straightforward. But what I want to do are: 1/ Look up the transactions on a particular date in the first table view, select any one of them 2/ Then, check all previous transactions of the company of that transaction( selected in the first table view) from the 2nd table view 3/ Select any previous transactions and check the details of the transaction from that group of textfields So naturally I should have bind the textfields' gp to the 2nd table view's controller. But I found the default selected row in the 2nd table view(the one show all previous transactions of a company) wasn't the transaction I've selected in the 1st tableView for a particular date. Of course, i can manually select that transaction in the 2nd table view again.... So I just want to know if it's possible to have the 2nd table view automatically select the transaction according to the transaction I've selected in the 1st table view thr binding?? After hours of googling, I solved the problem by implementing the tableview Delegate protocol: - (void)tableViewSelectionDidChange:(NSNotification *)aNotification { if (["nameOf1stTableView" selectedRow] > -1) { NSArray *objsArray = ["nameOf2ndTableView'sController" arrangedObjects]; for (id obj in objsArray) { if ([[obj valueForKey:@"DATE"] isEqualToDate: ["nameOf1stTableView'sController".selection valueForKey:@"DATE"]]) { ["nameOf2ndTableView" selectRowIndexes:[NSIndexSet indexSetWithIndex:[objsArray indexOfObject:obj]] byExtendingSelection:NO]; } } } } But,this just look too cumbersome... can it be done with binding alone? Thanks in Advance,

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  • Are there any modern GUI toolkits which implement a heirarchical menu buffer zone?

    - by scomar
    In Bruce Tognazzini's quiz on Fitt's Law, the question discussing the bottleneck in the hierarchical menu (as used in almost every modern desktop UI), talks about his design for the original Mac: The bottleneck is the passage between the first-level menu and the second-level menu. Users first slide the mouse pointer down to the category menu item. Then, they must carefully slide the mouse directly across (horizontally) in order to move the pointer into the secondary menu. The engineer who originally designed hierarchicals apparently had his forearm mounted on a track so that he could move it perfectly in a horizontal direction without any vertical component. Most of us, however, have our forarms mounted on a pivot we like to call our elbow. That means that moving our hand describes an arc, rather than a straight line. Demanding that pivoted people move a mouse pointer along in a straight line horizontally is just wrong. We are naturally going to slip downward even as we try to slide sideways. When we are not allowed to slip downward, the menu we're after is going to slam shut just before we get there. The Windows folks tried to overcome the pivot problem with a hack: If they see the user move down into range of the next item on the primary menu, they don't instantly close the second-level menu. Instead, they leave it open for around a half second, so, if users are really quick, they can be inaccurate but still get into the second-level menu before it slams shut. Unfortunately, people's reactions to heightened chance of error is to slow down, rather than speed up, a well-established phenomenon. Therefore, few users will ever figure out that moving faster could solve their problem. Microsoft's solution is exactly wrong. When I specified the Mac hierarchical menu algorthm in the mid-'80s, I called for a buffer zone shaped like a <, so that users could make an increasingly-greater error as they neared the hierarchical without fear of jumping to an unwanted menu. As long as the user's pointer was moving a few pixels over for every one down, on average, the menu stayed open, no matter how slow they moved. (Cancelling was still really easy; just deliberately move up or down.) This just blew me away! Such a simple idea which would result in a huge improvement in usability. I'm sure I'm not the only one who regularly has the next level of a menu slam shut because I don't move the mouse pointer in a perfectly horizontal line. So my question is: Are there any modern UI toolkits which implement this brilliant idea of a < shaped buffer zone in hierarchical menus? And if not, why not?!

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  • sys.path() and PYTHONPATH issues

    - by Justin
    I've been learning Python, I'm working in 2.7.3, and I'm trying to understand import statements. The documentation says that when you attempt to import a module, the interpreter will first search for one of the built-in modules. What is meant by a built-in module? Then, the documentation says that the interpreter searches in the directories listed by sys.path, and that sys.path is initialized from these sources: the directory containing the input script (or the current directory). PYTHONPATH (a list of directory names, with the same syntax as the shell variable PATH). the installation-dependent default. Here is a sample output of a sys.path command from my computer using python in command-line mode: (I deleted a few so that it wouldn't be huge) ['', '/usr/lib/python2.7', '/usr/lib/python2.7/lib-old', '/usr/lib/python2.7/lib-dynload', '/usr/local/lib/python2.7/dist-packages', '/usr/lib/python2.7/dist-packages', '/usr/lib/python2.7/dist-packages/PIL', '/usr/lib/python2.7/dist-packages/gst-0.10', '/usr/lib/python2.7/dist-packages/gtk-2.0', '/usr/lib/pymodules/python2.7', '/usr/lib/python2.7/dist-packages/ubuntuone-couch', '/usr/lib/python2.7/dist-packages/ubuntuone-storage-protocol'] Now, I'm assuming that the '' path refers to the directory containing the 'script', and so I figured the rest of them would be coming from my PYTHONPATH environmental variable. However, when I go to the terminal and type env, PYTHONPATH doesn't exist as an environmental variable. I also tried import os then os.environ, but I get the same output. Do I really not have a PYTHONPATH environmental variable? I don't believe I ever specifically defined a PYTHONPATH environmental variable, but I assumed that when I installed new packages they automatically altered that environment variable. If I don't have a PYTHONPATH, how is my sys.path getting populated? If I download new packages, how does Python know where to look for them if I don't have this PYTHONPATH variable? How do environment variables work? From what I understand, environment variables are specific to the process for which they are set, however, if I open multiple terminal windows and run env, they all display a number of identical variables, for example, PATH. I know there file locations for persistent environment variables, for example /etc/environment, which contains my PATH variable. Is it possible to tell where a persistent environment variable is stored? What is the recommended location for storing new persistent environment variables? How do environment variables actually work with say, the Python interpreter? The Python interpreter looks for PYTHONPATH, but how does it work at the nitty-gritty level?

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  • Undefined template methods trick ?

    - by Matthieu M.
    A colleague of mine told me about a little piece of design he has used with his team that sent my mind boiling. It's a kind of traits class that they can specialize in an extremely decoupled way. I've had a hard time understanding how it could possibly work, and I am still unsure of the idea I have, so I thought I would ask for help here. We are talking g++ here, specifically the versions 3.4.2 and 4.3.2 (it seems to work with both). The idea is quite simple: 1- Define the interface // interface.h template <class T> struct Interface { void foo(); // the method is not implemented, it could not work if it was }; // // I do not think it is necessary // but they prefer free-standing methods with templates // because of the automatic argument deduction // template <class T> void foo(Interface<T>& interface) { interface.foo(); } 2- Define a class, and in the source file specialize the interface for this class (defining its methods) // special.h class Special {}; // special.cpp #include "interface.h" #include "special.h" // // Note that this specialization is not visible outside of this translation unit // template <> struct Interface<Special> { void foo() { std::cout << "Special" << std::endl; } }; 3- To use, it's simple too: // main.cpp #include "interface.h" class Special; // yes, it only costs a forward declaration // which helps much in term of dependencies int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { Interface<Special> special; foo(special); return 0; }; It's an undefined symbol if no translation unit defined a specialization of Interface for Special. Now, I would have thought this would require the export keyword, which to my knowledge has never been implemented in g++ (and only implemented once in a C++ compiler, with its authors advising anyone not to, given the time and effort it took them). I suspect it's got something to do with the linker resolving the templates methods... Do you have ever met anything like this before ? Does it conform to the standard or do you think it's a fortunate coincidence it works ? I must admit I am quite puzzled by the construct...

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  • Suggest an alternative way to organize/build a database solution.

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    We are using Visual Studio 2010, but this was first conceived with VS2003. I will forward the best suggestions to my team. The current setup almost makes me vomit. It is a C# solution with most projects containing .sql files. Because we support Microsoft, Oracle, and Sybase, and so home-brewed a pre-processor, much like C preprocessor, except that substitutions are performed by a home-brewed C# program without using yacc and tools like that. #ifdefs are used for conditional macro definitions, and yeah - macros are the way this is done. A macro can expand to another macro or two, but this should eventually terminate. Only macros have #ifdef in them - the rest of the SQL-like code just uses these macros. Now, the various configurations: Debug, MNDebug, MNRelease, Release, SQL_APPLY_ALL, SQL_APPLY_MSFT, SQL_APPLY_ORACLE, SQL_APPLY_SYBASE, SQL_BUILD_OUTPUT_ALL, SQL_COMPILE, as well as 2 more. Also: Any CPU, Mixed Platforms, Win32. What drives me nuts is having to configure it correctly as well as choosing the right one out of 12 x 3 = 36 configurations as well as having to substitute database name depending on the type of database: config, main, or gateway. I am thinking that configuration should be reduced to just Debug, Release, and SQL_APPLY. Also, using 0, 1, and 2 seems so 80s ... Finally, I think my intention to build or not to build 3 types of databases for 3 types of vendors should be configured with just a tic tac toe board like: XOX OOX XXX In this case it would mean build MSFT+CONFIG, all SYBASE, and all GATEWAY. Still, the overall thing which uses a text file and a pre-processor and many configurations seems incredibly clunky. It is year 2010 now and someone out there is bound to have a very clean and/or creative tool/solution. The only pro would be that the existing collection of macros has been well tested. Have you ever had to write SQL that would work for several vendors? How did you do it? SqlVars.txt (Every one of 30 users makes a copy of a template and modifies this to suit their needs): // This is the default parameters file and should not be changed. // You can overwrite any of these parameters by copying the appropriate // section to override into SqlVars.txt and providing your own information. //Build types are 0-Config, 1-Main, 2-Gateway BUILD_TYPE=1 REMOVE_COMMENTS=1 // Login information used when applying to a Microsoft SQL server database SQL_APPLY_MSFT_version=SQL2005 SQL_APPLY_MSFT_database=msftdb SQL_APPLY_MSFT_server=ABC SQL_APPLY_MSFT_user=msftusr SQL_APPLY_MSFT_password=msftpwd // Login information used when applying to an Oracle database SQL_APPLY_ORACLE_version=ORACLE10g SQL_APPLY_ORACLE_server=oradb SQL_APPLY_ORACLE_user=orausr SQL_APPLY_ORACLE_password=orapwd // Login information used when applying to a Sybase database SQL_APPLY_SYBASE_version=SYBASE125 SQL_APPLY_SYBASE_database=sybdb SQL_APPLY_SYBASE_server=sybdb SQL_APPLY_SYBASE_user=sybusr SQL_APPLY_SYBASE_password=sybpwd ... (THIS GOES ON)

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  • jQuery Sales Tax

    - by CKallemeres
    Hello everyone! I have created a function (see below) that calculates a 7.5% sales tax. Now I need help doing the following: Have totalTax() take in 2 arguments one for the price and one for the tax. On submit (use the onSubmit event handler to call this function) have the function process the price and the tax by manipulating the arguments you passed in. Have the sales tax on the page update dynamically with what ever the sales tax is that you defined for the function 7.5 percent sales tax: Instead of using .innerHTML use jQuery to access these document elements and write to them: document.getElementById('requestedAmount' ).innerHTML = priceInput; document.getElementById('requestedTax' ).innerHTML = salesTax; document.getElementById('requestedTotal' ).innerHTML = totalAmount; Original Code: <script type="text/javascript"> $().ready(function() { // validate the comment form when it is submitted $("#inputForm").validate(); $("#priceInput").priceFormat({ prefix: '', limit: 5, centsLimit: 2 }); }); function totalTax(){ var priceInput = document.getElementById( 'priceInput' ).value; var salesTax = Math.round(((priceInput / 100) * 7.5)*100)/100; var totalAmount = (priceInput*1) + (salesTax * 1); document.getElementById( 'requestedAmount' ).innerHTML = priceInput; document.getElementById( 'requestedTax' ).innerHTML = salesTax; document.getElementById( 'requestedTotal' ).innerHTML = totalAmount; } </script> <body> <form class="cmxform" id="inputForm" method="get" action=""> <p> <label for="priceInput">Enter the price: </label> <input id="priceInput" name="name" class="required"/> </p> <p> <input class="submit" type="submit" value="Submit" onclick="totalTax();"/> </p> </form> <div>Entered price: <p id="requestedAmount"></p> </div> <div>7.5 percent sales tax: <p id="requestedTax"></p> </div> <div>Total: <p id="requestedTotal"> </p> </div>

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  • Why does OpenGL's glDrawArrays() fail with GL_INVALID_OPERATION under Core Profile 3.2, but not 3.3 or 4.2?

    - by metaleap
    I have OpenGL rendering code calling glDrawArrays that works flawlessly when the OpenGL context is (automatically / implicitly obtained) 4.2 but fails consistently (GL_INVALID_OPERATION) with an explicitly requested OpenGL core context 3.2. (Shaders are always set to #version 150 in both cases but that's beside the point here I suspect.) According to specs, there are only two instances when glDrawArrays() fails with GL_INVALID_OPERATION: "if a non-zero buffer object name is bound to an enabled array and the buffer object's data store is currently mapped" -- I'm not doing any buffer mapping at this point "if a geometry shader is active and mode? is incompatible with [...]" -- nope, no geometry shaders as of now. Furthermore: I have verified & double-checked that it's only the glDrawArrays() calls failing. Also double-checked that all arguments passed to glDrawArrays() are identical under both GL versions, buffer bindings too. This happens across 3 different nvidia GPUs and 2 different OSes (Win7 and OSX, both 64-bit -- of course, in OSX we have only the 3.2 context, no 4.2 anyway). It does not happen with an integrated "Intel HD" GPU but for that one, I only get an automatic implicit 3.3 context (trying to explicitly force a 3.2 core profile with this GPU via GLFW here fails the window creation but that's an entirely different issue...) For what it's worth, here's the relevant routine excerpted from the render loop, in Golang: func (me *TMesh) render () { curMesh = me curTechnique.OnRenderMesh() gl.BindBuffer(gl.ARRAY_BUFFER, me.glVertBuf) if me.glElemBuf > 0 { gl.BindBuffer(gl.ELEMENT_ARRAY_BUFFER, me.glElemBuf) gl.VertexAttribPointer(curProg.AttrLocs["aPos"], 3, gl.FLOAT, gl.FALSE, 0, gl.Pointer(nil)) gl.DrawElements(me.glMode, me.glNumIndices, gl.UNSIGNED_INT, gl.Pointer(nil)) gl.BindBuffer(gl.ELEMENT_ARRAY_BUFFER, 0) } else { gl.VertexAttribPointer(curProg.AttrLocs["aPos"], 3, gl.FLOAT, gl.FALSE, 0, gl.Pointer(nil)) /* BOOM! */ gl.DrawArrays(me.glMode, 0, me.glNumVerts) } gl.BindBuffer(gl.ARRAY_BUFFER, 0) } So of course this is part of a bigger render-loop, though the whole "*TMesh" construction for now is just two instances, one a simple cube and the other a simple pyramid. What matters is that the entire drawing loop works flawlessly with no errors reported when GL is queried for errors under both 3.3 and 4.2, yet on 3 nvidia GPUs with an explicit 3.2 core profile fails with an error code that according to spec is only invoked in two specific situations, none of which as far as I can tell apply here. What could be wrong here? Have you ever run into this? Any ideas what I have been missing?

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  • Is it OK to put a standard, pure C header #include directive inside a namespace?

    - by mic_e
    I've got a project with a class log in the global namespace (::log). So, naturally, after #include <cmath>, the compiler gives an error message each time I try to instantiate an object of my log class, because <cmath> pollutes the global namespace with lots of three-letter methods, one of them being the logarithm function log(). So there are three possible solutions, each having their unique ugly side-effects. Move the log class to it's own namespace and always access it with it's fully qualified name. I really want to avoid this because the logger should be as convenient as possible to use. Write a mathwrapper.cpp file which is the only file in the project that includes <cmath>, and makes all the required <cmath> functions available through wrappers in a namespace math. I don't want to use this approach because I have to write a wrapper for every single required math function, and it would add additional call penalty (cancelled out partially by the -flto compiler flag) The solution I'm currently considering: Replace #include <cmath> by namespace math { #include "math.h" } and then calculating the logarithm function via math::log(). I have tried it out and it does, indeed, compile, link and run as expected. It does, however, have multiple downsides: It's (obviously) impossible to use <cmath>, because the <cmath> code accesses the functions by their fully qualified names, and it's deprecated to use in C++. I've got a really, really bad feeling about it, like I'm gonna get attacked and eaten alive by raptors. So my question is: Is there any recommendation/convention/etc that forbid putting include directives in namespaces? Could anything go wrong with diferent C standard library implementations (I use glibc), different compilers (I use g++ 4.7, -std=c++11), linking? Have you ever tried doing this? Are there any alternate ways to banish the math functions from the global namespace? I've found several similar questions on stackoverflow, but most were about including other C++ headers, which obviously is a bad idea, and those that weren't made contradictory statements about linking behaviour for C libraries. Also, would it be beneficial to additionally put the #include <math.h> inside extern "C" {}?

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  • C# Different class objects in one list

    - by jeah_wicer
    I have looked around some now to find a solution to this problem. I found several ways that could solve it but to be honest I didn't realize which of the ways that would be considered the "right" C# or OOP way of solving it. My goal is not only to solve the problems but also to develop a good set of code standards and I'm fairly sure there's a standard way to handle this problem. Let's say I have 2 types of printer hardwares with their respective classes and ways of communicating: PrinterType1, PrinterType2. I would also like to be able to later on add another type if neccessary. One step up in abstraction those have much in common. It should be possible to send a string to each one of them as an example. They both have variables in common and variables unique to each class. (One for instance communicates via COM-port and has such an object, while the other one communicates via TCP and has such an object). I would however like to just implement a List of all those printers and be able to go through the list and perform things as "Send(string message)" on all Printers regardless of type. I would also like to access variables like "PrinterList[0].Name" that are the same for both objects, however I would also at some places like to access data that is specific to the object itself (For instance in the settings window of the application where the COM-port name is set for one object and the IP/port number for another). So, in short something like: In common: Name Send() Specific to PrinterType1: Port Specific to PrinterType2: IP And I wish to, for instance, do Send() on all objects regardless of type and the number of objects present. I've read about polymorphism, Generics, interfaces and such, but I would like to know how this, in my eyes basic, problem typically would be dealt with in C# (and/or OOP in general). I actually did try to make a base class, but it didn't quite seem right to me. For instance I have no use of a "string Send(string Message)" function in the base class itself. So why would I define one there that needs to be overridden in the derived classes when I would never use the function in the base class ever in the first place? I'm really thankful for any answers. People around here seem very knowledgeable and this place has provided me with many solutions earlier. Now I finally have an account to answer and vote with too. EDIT: To additionally explain, I would also like to be able to access the objects of the actual printertype. For instance the Port variable in PrinterType1 which is a SerialPort object. I would like to access it like: PrinterList[0].Port.Open() and have access to the full range of functionality of the underlaying port. At the same time I would like to call generic functions that work in the same way for the different objects (but with different implementations): foreach (printer in Printers) printer.Send(message)

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  • Can't get jQuery to get focus on cloned input fields

    - by Rebel1Moon
    I have a page that needs to create dynamic form fields as often as the user needs, and I am trying to use Ajax to tie it in to my database for faster form entry and to prevent user typos. So, I have put my Ajax returned data into popup div, the user selects, then the form field is filled in. The problem comes on the cloned fields. They don't seem to want to bring up the popup div when focused. I am thinking it is something to do with when they get created/added to the DOM. Here is my JS that creates the clones: $(document).ready(function() { var regex = /^(.*)(\d)+$/i; var cloneIndex = $(".clonedInput").length; $("button.clone").live("click", function(){ $(this).parents(".clonedInput").clone() .appendTo("#course_container") .attr("id", "clonedInput" + cloneIndex) .find("*").each(function() { var id = this.id || ""; var match = id.match(regex) || []; if (match.length == 3) { this.id = match[1] + (cloneIndex); } }); cloneIndex++; numClones=cloneIndex-1; //alert("numClones "+numClones); }); Here is where I expect to be able to get focus on the correct cloned field and call the popup. The baker_equiv0 id is original code, whereas baker_equiv1 is the first clone. $('#baker_equiv0').focus(function() { \\ THIS CODE WORKS $('.popup').fadeIn(500); $('#results').empty(); // document.enter_data.baker_equiv1.value="test"; THIS LINE WORKS //alert("numClones "+numClones); }); $('#baker_equiv1').focus(function() { // THIS DOESN'T EVER FIRE alert("numClones "+numClones); $('.popup').fadeIn(500); $('#results').empty(); }); Here is the HTML with the form: <label for="baker_equiv" class="">Baker Equivalent: <span class="requiredField">*</span></label> <input type="text" class="cinputsa" name="baker_equiv[]" id="baker_equiv0" size="8" ONKEYUP="get_equiv(this.value);"> If I put this in the HTML code above, it works fine: onfocus="alert(this.id)" I'd also be interested in how to adjust the JS code to work based on the id array created rather than having to copy code for each potential set of fields clones, i.e., baker_equiv[] rather than baker_equiv0, baker_equiv1, etc. Thanks all!

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  • Learning C, would appreciate input on why this solution works.

    - by Keifer
    This is literally the first thing I've ever written in C, so please feel free to point out all it's flaws. :) My issue, however is this: if I write the program the way I feel is cleanest, I get a broken program: #include <sys/queue.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <stdio.h> #include <string.h> /* Removed prototypes and non related code for brevity */ int main() { char *cmd = NULL; unsigned int acct = 0; int amount = 0; int done = 0; while (done==0) { scanf ("%s %u %i", cmd, &acct, &amount); if (strcmp (cmd, "exit") == 0) done = 1; else if ((strcmp (cmd, "dep") == 0) || (strcmp (cmd, "deb") == 0)) debit (acct, amount); else if ((strcmp (cmd, "wd") == 0) || (strcmp (cmd, "cred") == 0)) credit (acct, amount); else if (strcmp (cmd, "fee") == 0) service_fee(acct, amount); else printf("Invalid input!\n"); } return(0); } void credit(unsigned int acct, int amount) { } void debit(unsigned int acct, int amount) { } void service_fee(unsigned int acct, int amount) { } As it stands, the above generates no errors at compile, but gives me a segfault when ran. I can fix this by changing the program to pass cmd by reference when calling scanf and strcmp. The segfault goes away and is replaced by warnings for each use of strcmp at compile time. Despite the warnings, the affected code works. warning: passing arg 1 of 'strcmp' from incompatible pointer type As an added bonus, modifying the scanf and strcmp calls allows the program to progress far enough to execute return(0), at which point the thing crashes with an Abort trap. If I swap out return(0) for exit(0) then everything works as expected. This leaves me with two questions: why was the original program wrong? How can I fix it better than I have? The bit about needing to use exit instead of return has me especially baffled.

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  • Javascript problem when setting src for img element in FireFox - string parsing error?

    - by Kevin
    I'm having problems with image's on the page. I'm using Javascript to create the elements, and in FireFox it seems the string that I'm using to set the innerHTML is not being parsed correctly. I'll see this when the server page is requested with invalid GET variables. They look like this (from the PHP script's error handler): GET[] = Array ( [shrink] => true [file_id] => \' file_id \' [refresh] => \' now.getTime() \' ) This only happens for about 5% of requests, which is making it difficult to solve. I have been able to reproduce this myself in FireFox, and Firebug will show that the URL it is trying to fetch is: https://www.domain.com/secure/%27%20+%20image_src%20+%20%27 I read somewhere that it might be related to FireFox prefetching content (can't find it googling now), since it seems to only happen on FireFox. Disabling prefetching in about:config does prevent the problem from occurring, but I'm looking for another solution or workaround that doesn't involve end users changing their configurations. Here's the specifics and code: I have an empty table cell on an HTML page. In JQuery's $(document).ready() function for the page, I used JQuery's $.ajax() method to get some data from the server about what should be in that cell. It returns the file_id variable, which for simplicity I just set below. It then sets the empty table cell to have an image with src that points to a page that will serve the image file depending on what file_id is passed. This part of the code was JQuery originally, so I changed it to straight Javascript but that didn't help anything. //get data about image from server //this is actually done through JQuery's $.ajax() but you get the idea var file_id = 12; //create the src for the img //the refresh is to prevent the image from being cached ever, since the page's //javascript will be it changes //during the course of the page's life var now = new Date(); var image_src = 'serve_image.php?shrink=true&file_id=' + file_id + '&refresh=' + now.getTime(); //create document.getElementById('image_cell').innerHTML = '<A target="_blank" href="serve_image.php?file_id=' + file_id + '">' + '<IMG id=image_element src="' + image_src + '" alt="Loading...">' + '</A>';` Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks!

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  • C++ Euler-Problem 14 Program Freezing

    - by Tim
    I'm working on Euler Problem 14: http://projecteuler.net/index.php?section=problems&id=14 I figured the best way would be to create a vector of numbers that kept track of how big the series was for that number... for example from 5 there are 6 steps to 1, so if ever reach the number 5 in a series, I know I have 6 steps to go and I have no need to calculate those steps. With this idea I coded up the following: #include <iostream> #include <vector> #include <iomanip> using namespace std; int main() { vector<int> sizes(1); sizes.push_back(1); sizes.push_back(2); int series, largest = 0, j; for (int i = 3; i <= 1000000; i++) { series = 0; j = i; while (j > (sizes.size()-1)) { if (j%2) { j=(3*j+1)/2; series+=2; } else { j=j/2; series++; } } series+=sizes[j]; sizes.push_back(series); if (series>largest) largest=series; cout << setw(7) << right << i << "::" << setw(5) << right << series << endl; } cout << largest << endl; return 0; } It seems to work relatively well for smaller numbers but this specific program stalls at the number 113382. Can anyone explain to me how I would go about figuring out why it freezes at this number? Is there some way I could modify my algorithim to be better? I realize that I am creating duplicates with the current way I'm doing it: for example, the series of 3 is 3,10,5,16,8,4,2,1. So I already figured out the sizes for 10,5,16,8,4,2,1 but I will duplicate those solutions later. Thanks for your help!

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  • Advice needed: stay with Java team or move to C++ team?

    - by user68759
    Some background - I have been programming in Java as a professional for the last few years. This is mainly using Java SE. I have also touched bits and pieces of other various Java technologies and have some basic knowledge about them. I consider my self as an intermediate Java programmer. I like Java very much. I think it is only going to get bigger. Recently, my manager asked my opinion on whether I would like to be transferred to another team within the company that is developing a product in C++. This is mainly because my current Java team simply didn't make enough money due to poor sales and the economic downturn. Now, I have never had any experience with C++ nor have I ever coded a single line of code in C++. I have always wanted to learn it and now is my chance. But I really want to make sure I get benefit out of it in the future, in the sense that I will have the skills that will still be on-demand in the future. So, what do you experts think? Is C++ still the language to learn these days to secure yourself for the future? What will I learn more in C++ but not in Java? And are they worthy to learn considering the current and possible future demands in IT industry? (Apart from the obvious more control over memory management and something along that line.) What is a good excuse to refuse the offer in order to stay with the Java team? I don't want to blatantly refuse it because you can never predict the future and I could possibly come back to my manager in the future and ask him to transfer me to the C++ team. How do I say it nicely that I am taking the offer but I would like to still be involved with Java one way or another, such as when there is a new Java project I would like to be considered. I have to admit that I am kind of 50-50 at the moment. I want to learn C++ for the sake of improving my skills and also helping my company to reduce the fund required for the Java team. But it is also hard for me to leave Java because I know Java is going to get bigger, so I am afraid of getting behind when I start concentrating on C++. I could, of course, decide to just join the C++ team, and then spend my free time reading about Java to keep in touch with it, but I thought I would ask anyway in case some people can point out the strong points of either over the other given the current and possibly future circumstances.

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  • IntentService android download and return file to Activity

    - by Andrew G
    I have a fairly tricky situation that I'm trying to determine the best design for. The basics are this: I'm designing a messaging system with a similar interface to email. When a user clicks a message that has an attachment, an activity is spawned that shows the text of that message along with a paper clip signaling that there is an additional attachment. At this point, I begin preloading the attachment so that when the user clicks on it - it loads more quickly. currently, when the user clicks the attachment, it prompts with a loading dialog until the download is complete at which point it loads a separate attachment viewer activity, passing in the bmp byte array. I don't ever want to save attachments to persistent storage. The difficulty I have is in supporting rotation as well as home button presses etc. The download is currently done with a thread and handler setup. Instead of this, I'd like the flow to be the following: User loads message as before, preloading begins of attachment as before (invisible to user). When the user clicks on the attachment link, the attachment viewer activity is spawned right away. If the download was done, the image is displayed. If not, a dialog is shown in THIS activity until it is done and can be displayed. Note that ideally the download never restarts or else I've wasted cycles on the preload. Obviously I need some persistent background process that is able to keep downloading and is able to call back to arbitrarily bonded Activities. It seems like the IntentService almost fits my needs as it does its work in a background thread and has the Service (non UI) lifecycle. However, will it work for my other needs? I notice that common implementations for what I want to do get a Messenger from the caller Activity so that a Message object can be sent back to a Handler in the caller's thread. This is all well and good but what happens in my case when the caller Activity is Stopped or Destroyed and the currently active Activity (the attachment viewer) is showing? Is there some way to dynamically bind a new Activity to a running IntentService so that I can send a Message back to the new Activity? The other question is on the Message object. Can I send arbitrarily large data back in this package? For instance, rather than send back that "The file was downloaded", I need to send back the byte array of the downloaded file itself since I never want to write it to disk (and yes this needs to be the case). Any advice on achieving the behavior I want is greatly appreciated. I've not been working with Android for that long and I often get confused with how to best handle asynchronous processes over the course of the Activity lifecycle especially when it comes to orientation changes and home button presses...

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  • Chrome is creating duplicate sessions with the same id

    - by dlwiest
    I encountered an issue while I was revising my session library today, and this might be the first time I've ever seen a browser-specific problem on a back end script. I hope somebody can shed some light. Basically how the session library works is: when instantiated, it checks for a cookie called 'id' (in the form of a uniqid result) on the client machine. If a cookie is found, the script checks that and a hashed copy of the user agent string against entries in a session table. If a matching entry is found, the script resumes the session. If no cookie named 'id' is found, or if no matching entry exists in the sessions table, the script creates both. Fairly standard, I think. Now here's the weird part: in Firefox, everything works as predicted. The user gets one session, which he'll always resume upon connection, as long as 24 hours of inactivity has not elapsed. But when I visit the page in Chrome, even though it looks the same and appears to be executing queries in the same order, I see two entries in the session table. The sessions share an agent string, but the ids are different, and timestamp logs indicate that the ghost session is being created shortly (within a second) after the one created for the user. For debugging purposes, I've been printing queries to the screen as they're executed, and this is an example of what I'm seeing when Chrome should be opening one session and is somehow opening two instead: // Attempting to resume a session SELECT id FROM sessions WHERE id = '4fd24a5cd8df12.62439982' AND agent = '9bcd5c6aac911f8bcd938a9563bc4eca' // No result, so it creates a new one INSERT INTO sessions (id, agent, start, last) VALUES ('4fd24ef0347f26.72354606', '9bcd5c6aac911f8bcd938a9563bc4eca', '1339182832', '1339182832') // Clear old sessions DELETE FROM sessions WHERE last < 1339096432 And here's what I'm seeing in the database afterward: id, agent, start, last 4fd24ef0347f26.72354606, 9bcd5c6aac911f8bcd938a9563bc4eca, 1339182832, 1339182832 4fd24ef0857f94.72251285, 9bcd5c6aac911f8bcd938a9563bc4eca, 1339182833, 1339182833 Am I missing something obvious? The only thing I can think of is that Chrome might be creating a hidden session in the background, possibly to crawl the page. If that's the case though, it could become a problem later, when I begin associating active sessions with entries in the users table. I've been looking for possible bugs in my script, but I haven't found anything so far, and everything works as expected in Firefox.

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