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  • C# Taking a element off each time (stack)

    - by Sef
    Greetings, Have a question considering a program that stimulates a stack.(not using any build in stack features or any such) stack2= 1 2 3 4 5 //single dimension array of 5 elements By calling up a method "pop" the stack should look like the following: Basically taking a element off each time the stack is being "called" up again. stack2= 1 2 3 4 0 stack2= 1 2 3 0 0 stack2= 1 2 0 0 0 stack2= 1 0 0 0 0 stack2= 0 0 0 0 0 - for (int i = 1; i <= 6; i++) { number= TryPop(s2); //use number ShowStack(s2, "s2"); } Basically I already have code that fills my array with values (trough a push method). The pop method should basically take the last value and place it on 0. Then calls up the next stack and place the following on 0 (like shown above in stack2). The current pop method that keeps track of the top index (0 elements = 0 top, 1 element = 1 top etc..). Already includes a underflow warning if this goes on 0 or below (which is correct). public int Pop() { if(top <= 0) { throw new Exception("Stack underflow..."); } else { for (int j = tabel.Length - 1; j >= 0; j--) { //...Really not sure what to do here. } } return number; }/*Pop*/ Since in the other class I already have a loop (for loop shown above) that simulates 6 times the s2 stack. (first stack: 1 2 3 4 0, second stack 1 2 3 0 0 and so on.) How exactly do I take a element off each time? Either I have the entire display on 0 or the 0 in the wrong places / out of index errors. Thanks in advance!

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  • mysql: Average over multiple columns in one row, ignoring nulls

    - by Sai Emrys
    I have a large table (of sites) with several numeric columns - say a through f. (These are site rankings from different organizations, like alexa, google, quantcast, etc. Each has a different range and format; they're straight dumps from the outside DBs.) For many of the records, one or more of these columns is null, because the outside DB doesn't have data for it. They all cover different subsets of my DB. I want column t to be their weighted average (each of a..f have static weights which I assign), ignoring null values (which can occur in any of them), except being null if they're all null. I would prefer to do this with a simple SQL calculation, rather than doing it in app code or using some huge ugly nested if block to handle every permutation of nulls. (Given that I have an increasing number of columns to average over as I add in more outside DB sources, this would be exponentially more ugly and bug-prone.) I'd use AVG but that's only for group by, and this is w/in one record. The data is semantically nullable, and I don't want to average in some "average" value in place of the nulls; I want to only be counting the columns for which data is there. Is there a good way to do this? Ideally, what I want is something like UPDATE sites SET t = AVG(a*a_weight,b*b_weight,...) where any null values are just ignored and no grouping is happening.

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  • adding one time options to items

    - by rap-uvic
    Hello, I'm building an Event Registration site. For any given event, we'll have a handful of items to choose from. I have a table for these items. For each event we might have special options for users. For example, for one of the events new users get to buy an item which is not available to other users. This may not apply to all the events. For other events we might have some other restriction on items. I will obviously be checking this programmatically on application side. I would like to though, set up a column containing flag in the items table. But I don't find it feasible because this condition may only apply to one particular event. I don't want all the future items to have this column. What is a good approach to take in such a situation? Should I create a special "restrictions" table and just do a join? How would I handle this on the application side?

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  • Marquee in various TextView at the same time?

    - by YaW
    Hi, I have a dinamic layout wich has one to six TextViews. All the TextViews are created in the Activity (programatically) and all are created equally. I want to marquee the text in the TextViews, but I don't know how to do it. Apparently, the TextView needs to be focused for the marquee works fine, but how i focus six TextViews at the same time? I think that's not possible, so, is there any workaround? Is it possible to get the marquee working without having the focus? This is the code of the TextViews: //TextView TextView tvTitulo = new TextView(this); tvTitulo.setText("Some loooooooooooooooooooooong text"); tvTitulo.setTypeface(null, Typeface.BOLD); //Marquee tvTitulo.setSingleLine(); tvTitulo.setEllipsize(TruncateAt.MARQUEE); tvTitulo.setHorizontallyScrolling(true); tvTitulo.setFocusableInTouchMode(true); If I remove the line tvTitulo.setFocusableInTouchMode(true); the marquee is not working at all. If I don't remove the line, only one of the TextViews is getting the marquee working. Greetings

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  • JS encodeURIComponent result different from the one created by FORM

    - by Marco Demaio
    I thought values entered in forms are properly encoded by browsers. But this simple test shows it's not true: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html><head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=windows-1252"> <title></title> </head><body> <form id="test" action="test_get_vs_encodeuri.html" method="GET" onsubmit="alert(encodeURIComponent(this.one.value));"> <input name="one" type="text" value="Euro-€"> <input type="submit" value="SUBMIT"> </form> </body></html> When hitting submit button: encodeURICompenent encodes input value into "Euro-%E2%82%AC" while browser into the GET query writes only a simple "Euro-%80" Could somone explain? Or is encodeURIComponent doing unnecessary conversions?

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  • Help with php code - need to add condition to make one link https

    - by Kaskade
    Hi, I have a wordpress blog and I need to make one of the pages secure. I have been told to make the link to that page point to https://claimpage.html as opposed to http://claimpage.html. The problem is I don't actually create the menu that links the user to the individual pages. This is done automatically by the code in the background. I think I need to put in some sort of an IF statement, saying, if the title of the page is "claim now" then use https otherwise use http. I found this code in the header.php so I think my changes need to go in here but I'm not really sure what to do. <div id="navbar"> <ul class="menu"> <li class="<?php if ( is_home() ) { ?>current_page_item<?php } else { ?>page_item<?php } ?>"><a href="<?php echo get_settings('home'); ?>"><?php _e('Home'); ?></a></li> <?php wp_list_pages('sort_column=id&depth=1&title_li='); ?> <?php wp_register('<li>','</li>'); ?> </ul> </div> <!-- end of #navbar --> Any suggestions as to how I can make one page that I know the title and url or https while the others are kept using normal http? The site is hosted on a secure server so I do have an ssl certificate.

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  • Spring Security 3.0 - Intercept-URL - All pages require authentication but one

    - by gav
    Hi All, I want any user to be able to submit their name to a volunteer form but only administrators to be able to view any other URL. Unfortunately I don't seem to be able to get this correct. My resources.xml are as follows; <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <beans:beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/security" xmlns:beans="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/security http://www.springframework.org/schema/security/spring-security-3.0.xsd"> <http realm = "BumBumTrain Personnel list requires you to login" auto-config="true" use-expressions="true"> <http-basic/> <intercept-url pattern="/person/volunteer*" access=""/> <intercept-url pattern="/**" access="isAuthenticated()" /> </http> <authentication-manager alias="authenticationManager"> <authentication-provider> <user-service> <user name="admin" password="admin" authorities="ROLE_ADMIN"/> </user-service> </authentication-provider> </authentication-manager> </beans:beans> Specifically I am trying to achieve the access settings I described via; <intercept-url pattern="/person/volunteer*" access=""/> <intercept-url pattern="/**" access="isAuthenticated()" /> Could someone please describe how to use intercept-url to achieve the outcome I've described? Thanks Gav

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  • setInterval works only the first time

    - by Neil
    Hi, I am trying to use setTimer to animate a slide show using straightforward jQuery. I provide the user with a button (in the form of a "DIV" with a button background image) that he clicks to start the show and which then turns into a pause button. The slides are supposed to change every 3 seconds. Here is the relevant code: playLink = $('<div id="lbPlayLink" />').click(function(){ $(playLink).hide(); $(pauseLink).show(); slideInterval = setInterval(function(){next()}, 3000) })[0]; pauseLink = $('<div id="lbPauseLink" />').click(function(){ $(playLink).show(); $(pauseLink).hide(); clearInterval(slideInterval); }).hide()[0]; The next() function call does the work of replacing the slide with the next one. I have checked out this function and it works perfectly if I call it directly (synchronously), however, when it gets called asonchronously by the "setInterval", it works fine the first time (3 seconds after I click on the button), but is never called again, even though it should be called 3 seconds later. I know it's never called as I put an "alert" call at the beginning and end of the function. If I replace the "next()" call in the "setInterval" by "alert('test')" then I can see the setInterval is doing what it is supposed to. I can't for the life of me see why "alert()" is OK but "next()" isn't, unless it has something to do with "scope" of functions, but in that case why does it work the first time? I've tried debugging the code with firebug, but it can't really help with timeout functions like this. Neither Firefox nor IE8 show any error messages. I've looked through the various posts here and elsewhere on setInterval, but can't see anything relevant that I haven't tried already. I've been experimenting now for about 3 hours and it's doing my head in. Can anyone suggest what I can try next? Thanks in advance Neil

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  • Date difference in Javascript (ignoring time of day)

    - by Alan
    I'm writing an equipment rental application where clients are charged a fee for renting equipment based on the duration (in days) of the rental. So, basically, (daily fee * number of days) = total charge. For instant feedback on the client side, I'm trying to use Javascript to figure out the difference in two calendar dates. I've searched around, but nothing I've found is quite what I'm looking for. Most solutions I've seen are of the form: function dateDiff1(startDate, endDate) { return ((endDate.getTime() - startDate.getTime()) / 1000*60*60*24); } My problem is that equipment can be checked out and returned at any time of day during those two dates with no additional charge. The above code is calculating the number of 24 hour periods between the two dates, when I'm really interested in the number of calendar days. For example, if someone checked out equipment at 6am on July 6th and returned it at 10pm on July 7th, the above code would calculate that more than one 24 hour period had passed, and would return 2. The desired result is 1, since only one calendar date has elapsed (i.e. the 6th to the 7th). The closest solution I've found is this function: function dateDiff2(startDate, endDate) { return endDate.getDate() - startDate.getDate(); } which does exactly what I want, as long as the two dates are within the same month. However, since getDate() only returns the day of month (i.e. 1-31), it doesn't work when the dates span multiple months (e.g. July 31 to August 1 is 1 day, but the above calcuates 1 - 31, or -29). On the backend, in PHP, I'm using gregoriantojd(), which seems to work just fine (see this post for an example). I just can't find an equivalent solution in Javascript. Anyone have any ideas?

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  • Adding changes from one Mercurial repository to another

    - by Patrik Hägne
    When changing the VCS for my project FakeItEasy from SVN to Mercurial on Google Code I was a bit too eager (I'm funny like that). What I did was just checking the latest version out of SVN and then commiting that checkout as the first revision of the new Mercurial repo. This obviously has the effect that all history is lost. Later when getting a bit better acustomed to Mercurial I realized that there is such a thing as a "convert extension" that allows you to convert a SVN repo into a Mercurial repo. Now what I want to do is to convert the old SVN repo and then have all change sets from the currently existing Mercurial repo imported into this converted repo except the very first commit to Mercurial. I've converted the SVN repo to a local Mercurial repo but now is when I'm stuck. I thought I'd be able to use the convert extension to bring the current Mercurial repository into the converted one and having a splice map remove the first commit but I can not seem to get this to work. I've also tried to just use convert without splice map to get all change sets from the current Mercurial repo into the converted one and the rebase the second version in the current to the last commit from the old SVN repository but I can't get that to work either. To make this clearer lets say I have these two repositories: A: revA1-revA2 B: revB1-revB2-revB3 (Where revB1 is actually a copy of revA2) Now I want to combine these two into the new repository containing this: C: revA1-revA2-revB2-revB3

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  • Mapping self-table one-to-many using non-PK clolumns

    - by Harel Moshe
    Hey, i have a legacy DB to which a Person object is mapped, having a collection of family-members, like this: class Person { ... string Id; /* 9-digits string */ IList<Person> Family; ... } The PERSON table seems like: Id: CHAR(9), PK FamilyId: INT, NOT NULL and several other non-relevant columns. I'm trying to map the Family collection to the PERSON table using the FamilyId column, which is not the PK as mentioned above. So, i actually have a one-to-many which is self-table-referential. I'm getting an error saying 'Cast is not valid' when my mapping looks like this: ... <set name="Family" table="Person" lazy="false"> <key column="FamilyId" /> <one-to-many class="Person" /> </set> ... because obviously, the join NHibernate is trying to make is between the PK column, Id, and the 'secondary' column, FamilyId, instead of joining the FamilyId column to itself. Any ideas please?

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  • Design suggestion for expression tree evaluation with time-series data

    - by Lirik
    I have a (C#) genetic program that uses financial time-series data and it's currently working but I want to re-design the architecture to be more robust. My main goals are: sequentially present the time-series data to the expression trees. allow expression trees to access previous data rows when needed. to optimize performance of the data access while evaluating the expression trees. keep a common interface so various types of data can be used. Here are the possible approaches I've thought about: I can evaluate the expression tree by passing in a data row into the root node and let each child node use the same data row. I can evaluate the expression tree by passing in the data row index and letting each node get the data row from a shared DataSet (currently I'm passing the row index and going to multiple synchronized arrays to get the data). Hybrid: an immutable data set is accessible by all of the expression trees and each expression tree is evaluated by passing in a data row. The benefit of the first approach is that the data row is being passed into the expression tree and there is no further query done on the data set (which should increase performance in a multithreaded environment). The drawback is that the expression tree does not have access to the rest of the data (in case some of the functions need to do calculations using previous data rows). The benefit of the second approach is that the expression trees can access any data up to the latest data row, but unless I specify what that row is, I'll have to iterate through the rows and figure out which one is the last one. The benefit of the hybrid is that it should generally perform better and still provide access to the earlier data. It supports two basic "views" of data: the latest row and the previous rows. Do you guys know of any design patterns or do you have any tips that can help me build this type of system? Should I use a DataSet to hold and present the data, or are there more efficient ways to present rows of data while maintaining a simple interface? FYI: All of my code is written in C#.

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  • i want to search in sql server with must have parameter in one colunm

    - by sherif4csharp
    hello i am usning c# and ms SQL server 2008 i have table like this id | propertyTypeId | FinishingQualityId | title | Description | features 1 1 2 prop1 propDEsc1 1,3,5,7 2 2 3 prop2 propDEsc2 1,3 3 6 5 prop3 propDEsc3 1 4 5 4 prop4 propDEsc4 3,5 5 4 6 prop5 propDEsc5 5,7 6 4 6 prop6 propDEsc6 and here is my stored code (search in the same table) create stored procdures propertySearch as @Id int = null, @pageSize float , @pageIndex int, @totalpageCount int output, @title nvarchar(150) =null , @propertyTypeid int = null , @finishingqualityid int = null , @features nvarchar(max) = null , -- this parameter send like 1,3 ( for example) begin select row_number () as TempId over( order by id) , id,title,description,propertyTypeId,propertyType.name,finishingQualityId,finishingQuality.Name,freatures into #TempTable from property join propertyType on propertyType.id= property.propertyTypeId join finishingQuality on finishingQuality.id = property.finishingQualityId where property.id = isnull(@id,property.id ) and proprty.PropertyTypeId= isnull(@propertyTypeid,property.propertyTypeId) select totalpageconunt = ((select count(*) from #TempTable )/@pageSize ) select * from #TempTable where tempid between (@pageindex-1)*@pagesize +1 and (@pageindex*@pageSize) end go i can't here filter the table by feature i sent. this table has to many rows i want to add to this stored code to filter data for example when i send 1,3 in features parameter i want to return row number one and two in the example table i write in this post (want to get the data from table must have the feature I send) many thanks for every one helped me and will help

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  • IO operation taking long time for files in remote server

    - by user841311
    I have files of size 150 MB each in a remote server in a different domain in the network. I am accessing them thorugh UNC path. I want to read the file content and perform a basic string search. When I try reading the files line by line, the operation just don't finish and takes long time, more than 30 minutes. However when I copy those files to my local machine, the same code reads and performs the string search in less than 5 seconds. I don't have .NET framework installed in the server so I have to do this from my machine. I want to perform all this through C# code in .NET framework 3.5 so I don't want to explictly ftp all the files to my machine before performing this operation. Sample Code DirectoryInfo dir = new DirectoryInfo(@strFilePath); FileInfo[] fiArray = dir.getFiles("*.txt"); foreach (FileInfo fi in fiArray) { //reading file content from server takes long time but fast in local machine //perform string search } Let me know if my requirement is not clear. Thanks in advance!

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  • Toggle row visibility one at a time

    - by kuswantin
    I have a couple of tables with similar structures like this: <table> <tbody> <tr>content</tr> <tr>content</tr> <tr>content</tr> <tr>content</tr> <tr>content</tr> <tr>content</tr> <tr>content</tr> <tr>content</tr> ..etc --- The fake button is added here <div class="addrow">Add another</div> </tbody> </table> Since this is a long list, I have a need to toggle the rows one at a time. I just need to show the first row, of course, the rest should be toggled. The action is when I click a dynamic fake button, it will show row no. 2, and clicking again will show another next row. This is what I have done so far: $("table#field_fruit_values tr.draggable").not(':first').hide(); $("table#field_vegetables_values tr.draggable").not(':first').hide(); $("body.form table.content-multiple-table tbody").append('<div class="addrow">Add</div>'); $(".addrow").click(function() { var hiddenRow = $(this).prev('tr.draggable'); $(this).prev(hiddenRow + 1).show(); //if (hiddenRow + ':last').length) { // <= silly logic // $(this).hide(); //} }); The button only works for one row. I must have done something wrong :) When the final is reached, I also want the button to disappear. Sorry if this question sound silly. Any help would be very much appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Where is my python script spending time? Is there "missing time" in my cprofile / pstats trace?

    - by fmark
    I am attempting to profile a long running python script. The script does some spatial analysis on raster GIS data set using the gdal module. The script currently uses three files, the main script which loops over the raster pixels called find_pixel_pairs.py, a simple cache in lrucache.py and some misc classes in utils.py. I have profiled the code on a moderate sized dataset. pstats returns: p.sort_stats('cumulative').print_stats(20) Thu May 6 19:16:50 2010 phes.profile 355483738 function calls in 11644.421 CPU seconds Ordered by: cumulative time List reduced from 86 to 20 due to restriction <20> ncalls tottime percall cumtime percall filename:lineno(function) 1 0.008 0.008 11644.421 11644.421 <string>:1(<module>) 1 11064.926 11064.926 11644.413 11644.413 find_pixel_pairs.py:49(phes) 340135349 544.143 0.000 572.481 0.000 utils.py:173(extent_iterator) 8831020 18.492 0.000 18.492 0.000 {range} 231922 3.414 0.000 8.128 0.000 utils.py:152(get_block_in_bands) 142739 1.303 0.000 4.173 0.000 utils.py:97(search_extent_rect) 745181 1.936 0.000 2.500 0.000 find_pixel_pairs.py:40(is_no_data) 285478 1.801 0.000 2.271 0.000 utils.py:98(intify) 231922 1.198 0.000 2.013 0.000 utils.py:116(block_to_pixel_extent) 695766 1.990 0.000 1.990 0.000 lrucache.py:42(get) 1213166 1.265 0.000 1.265 0.000 {min} 1031737 1.034 0.000 1.034 0.000 {isinstance} 142740 0.563 0.000 0.909 0.000 utils.py:122(find_block_extent) 463844 0.611 0.000 0.611 0.000 utils.py:112(block_to_pixel_coord) 745274 0.565 0.000 0.565 0.000 {method 'append' of 'list' objects} 285478 0.346 0.000 0.346 0.000 {max} 285480 0.346 0.000 0.346 0.000 utils.py:109(pixel_coord_to_block_coord) 324 0.002 0.000 0.188 0.001 utils.py:27(__init__) 324 0.016 0.000 0.186 0.001 gdal.py:848(ReadAsArray) 1 0.000 0.000 0.160 0.160 utils.py:50(__init__) The top two calls contain the main loop - the entire analyis. The remaining calls sum to less than 625 of the 11644 seconds. Where are the remaining 11,000 seconds spent? Is it all within the main loop of find_pixel_pairs.py? If so, can I find out which lines of code are taking most of the time?

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  • MySql Query lag time / deadlock?

    - by Click Upvote
    When there are multiple PHP scripts running in parallel, each making an UPDATE query to the same record in the same table repeatedly, is it possible for there to be a 'lag time' before the table is updated with each query? I have basically 5-6 instances of a PHP script running in parallel, having been launched via cron. Each script gets all the records in the items table, and then loops through them and processes them. However, to avoid processing the same item more than once, I store the id of the last item being processed in a seperate table. So this is how my code works: function getCurrentItem() { $sql = "SELECT currentItemId from settings"; $result = $this->db->query($sql); return $result->get('currentItemId'); } function setCurrentItem($id) { $sql = "UPDATE settings SET currentItemId='$id'"; $this->db->query($sql); } $currentItem = $this->getCurrentItem(); $sql = "SELECT * FROM items WHERE status='pending' AND id > $currentItem'"; $result = $this->db->query($sql); $items = $result->getAll(); foreach ($items as $i) { //Check if $i has been processed by a different instance of the script, and if so, //leave it untouched. if ($this->getCurrentItem() > $i->id) continue; $this->setCurrentItem($i->id); // Process the item here } But despite of all the precautions, most items are being processed more than once. Which makes me think that there is some lag time between the update queries being run by the PHP script, and when the database actually updates the record. Is it true? And if so, what other mechanism should I use to ensure that the PHP scripts always get only the latest currentItemId even when there are multiple scripts running in parrallel? Would using a text file instead of the db help?

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  • How to create a log file in the folder which will be created at run time

    - by swati
    Hello Everyone, I new to apache logger.I am using apache log4j for my application. I am using the following configuration file configure the root logger log4j.rootLogger=INFO, STDOUT, DAILY configure the console appender log4j.appender.STDOUT=org.apache.log4j.ConsoleAppender log4j.appender.STDOUT.Target=System.out log4j.appender.STDOUT.layout=org.apache.log4j.PatternLayout log4j.appender.STDOUT.layout.conversionPattern=%d{yyyy-MM-dd HH:mm:ss.SSS} [%p] %c:%L - %m%n configure the daily rolling file appender log4j.appender.DAILY=org.apache.log4j.DailyRollingFileAppender log4j.appender.DAILY.File=log4jtest.log log4j.appender.DAILY.DatePattern='.'yyyy-MM-dd-HH-mm log4j.appender.DAILY.layout=org.apache.log4j.PatternLayout log4j.appender.DAILY.layout.conversionPattern=%d{yyyy-MM-dd HH:mm:ss.SSS} [%p] %c:%L - %m%n So when my application runs it creates a folder called somename_2010-04-09-23-09 . My log file has to be created inside of this somename_2010-04-09-23-09 folder.(Which created at run time..). Is there anyway to do that.. Is there anyway we can specify in the configuration file so that it will create at run time the log file inside of the folder somename_2010-04-09-23-03 folder..? I would really appreciate if some one can answer to my questions. Thanks, Swati

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  • Simplest way to automatically alter "const" value in Java during compile time

    - by Michael Mao
    Hi all: This is a question corresponds to my uni assignment so I am very sorry to say I cannot adopt any one of the following best practices in a short time -- you know -- assignment is due tomorrow :( link to Best way to alter const in Java on StackOverflow Basically the only task (I hope so) left for me is the performance tuning. I've got a bunch of predefined "const" values in my single-class agent source code like this: //static final values private static final long FT_THRESHOLD = 400; private static final long FT_THRESHOLD_MARGIN = 50; private static final long FT_SMOOTH_PRICE_IDICATOR = 20; private static final long FT_BUY_PRICE_MODIFIER = 0; private static final long FT_LAST_ROUNDS_STARTTIME = 90; private static final long FT_AMOUNT_ADJUST_MODIFIER = 5; private static final long FT_HISTORY_PIRCES_LENGTH = 10; private static final long FT_TRACK_DURATION = 5; private static final int MAX_BED_BID_NUM_PER_AUC = 12; I can definitely alter the values manually and then compile the code to give it another go around. But the execution time for a thorough "statistic analysis" usually requires over 2000 times of execution, which will typically lasts more than half an hour on my own laptop... So I hope there is a way to alter values using other ways than dig into the source code to change the "const" values there, so I can automatically distributed compiled code to other people's PC and let them run the statistic analysis instead. One other reason for a automatically value adjustment is that I can try using my own agent to defeat itself by choosing different "const" values. Although my values are derived from previous history and statistical results, they are far from the most optimized values. I hope there is a easy way so I can quickly adopt that so to have a good sleep tonight while the computer does everything for me... :) Any hints on this sort of stuff? Any suggestion is welcomed and much appreciated.

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  • Copy vector of values to vector of pairs in one line

    - by Kirill V. Lyadvinsky
    I have the following types: struct X { int x; X( int val ) : x(val) {} }; struct X2 { int x2; X2() : x2() {} }; typedef std::pair<X, X2> pair_t; typedef std::vector<pair_t> pairs_vec_t; typedef std::vector<X> X_vec_t; I need to initialize instance of pairs_vec_t with values from X_vec_t. I use the following code and it works as expected: int main() { pairs_vec_t ps; X_vec_t xs; // this is not empty in the production code ps.reserve( xs.size() ); { // I want to change this block to one line code. struct get_pair { pair_t operator()( const X& value ) { return std::make_pair( value, X2() ); } }; std::transform( xs.begin(), xs.end(), back_inserter(ps), get_pair() ); } return 0; } What I'm trying to do is to reduce my copying block to one line with using boost::bind. This code is not working: for_each( xs.begin(), xs.end(), boost::bind( &pairs_vec_t::push_back, ps, boost::bind( &std::make_pair, _1, X2() ) ) ); I know why it is not working, but I want to know how to make it working without declaring extra functions and structs?

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  • .net real time stream processing - needed huge and fast RAM buffer

    - by mack369
    The application I'm developing communicates with an digital audio device, which is capable of sending 24 different voice streams at the same time. The device is connected via USB, using FTDI device (serial port emulator) and D2XX Drivers (basic COM driver is to slow to handle transfer of 4.5Mbit). Basically the application consist of 3 threads: Main thread - GUI, control, ect. Bus reader - in this thread data is continuously read from the device and saved to a file buffer (there is no logic in this thread) Data interpreter - this thread reads the data from file buffer, converts to samples, does simple sample processing and saves the samples to separate wav files. The reason why I used file buffer is that I wanted to be sure that I won't loose any samples. The application doesn't use recording all the time, so I've chosen this solution because it was safe. The application works fine, except that buffered wave file generator is pretty slow. For 24 parallel records of 1 minute, it takes about 4 minutes to complete the recording. I'm pretty sure that eliminating the use of hard drive in this process will increase the speed much. The second problem is that the file buffer is really heavy for long records and I can't clean this up until the end of data processing (it would slow down the process even more). For RAM buffer I need at lest 1GB to make it work properly. What is the best way to allocate such a big amount of memory in .NET? I'm going to use this memory in 2 threads so a fast synchronization mechanism needed. I'm thinking about a cycle buffer: one big array, the Bus Reader saves the data, the Data Interpreter reads it. What do you think about it? [edit] Now for buffering I'm using classes BinaryReader and BinaryWriter based on a file.

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  • JW Player playlist only loads randomly in IE, works fine in FF every time

    - by meow
    The playlist loads every time in FF but only the first time in IE (6-8), after that only randomly. If I alert the error that's thrown I get "TypeError: playerReady is undefined". My code looks good and obviously works since FF displays the playlist perfectly. I've got no idea how to solve this. Anyone? <script type='text/javascript'> var so = new SWFObject('/UI/Flash/player.swf', 'ply', '<%=FlashWidth %>', '<%=FlashHeight %>', '9', '#ffffff'), playlistURL = '<%=PlaylistURL %>', imageURL = '<%=GetBackgroundImageUrl() %>'; so.addParam('allowfullscreen', 'true'); so.addParam('allowscriptaccess', 'always'); if (playlistURL !== '') { so.addVariable('playlistfile', playlistURL); so.addVariable('playlist', 'none'); so.addVariable('enablejs', 'true'); } else { so.addVariable('file', '<%=FlashURL %>'); } if (imageURL.length > 0) { so.addVariable('image', imageURL); } so.write('preview<%=PlayerID %>'); </script>

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  • Perl: how to pretty-print time duration

    - by sds
    How do I pretty print time duration in perl? The only thing I could come up with so far is my $interval = 1351521657387 - 1351515910623; # milliseconds my $duration = DateTime::Duration->new( seconds => POSIX::floor($interval/1000) , nanoseconds => 1000000 * ($interval % 1000), ); my $df = DateTime::Format::Duration->new( pattern => '%Y years, %m months, %e days, ' . '%H hours, %M minutes, %S seconds, %N nanoseconds', normalize => 1, ); print $df->format_duration($duration); which results in 0 years, 00 months, 0 days, 01 hours, 35 minutes, 46 seconds, 764000000 nanoseconds This is no good for me for the following reasons: I don't want to see "0 years" (space waste) &c and I don't want to remove "%Y years" from the pattern (what if I do need years next time?) I know in advance that my precision is only milliseconds, I don't want to see the 6 zeros in the nanoseconds part. I care about prettiness/compactness/human readability much more than about precision/machine readability. I.e., I want to see something like "1.2 years" or "3.22 months" or "7.88 days" or "5.7 hours" or "75.5 minutes" (or "1.26 hours, whatever looks better to you) or "24.7 seconds" or "133.7 milliseconds" &c (similar to how R prints difftime)

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  • How to use VC++ intrinsic functions w/o run-time library

    - by Adrian McCarthy
    I'm involved in one of those challenges where you try to produce the smallest possible binary, so I'm building my program without the C or C++ run-time libraries (RTL). I don't link to the DLL version or the static version. I don't even #include the header files. I have this working fine. For some code constructs, the compiler generates calls to memset(). For example: struct MyStruct { int foo; int bar; }; MyStruct blah = {}; // calls memset() Since I don't include the RTL, this results in a missing symbol at link time. I've been getting around this by avoiding those constructs. For the given example, I'll explicitly initialize the struct. MyStruct blah; blah.foo = 0; blah.bar = 0; But memset() can be useful, so I tried adding my own implementation. It works fine in Debug builds, even for those places where the compiler generates an implicit call to memset(). But in Release builds, I get an error saying that I cannot define an intrinsic function. You see, in Release builds, intrinsic functions are enabled, and memset() is an intrinsic. I would love to use the intrinsic for memset() in my release builds, since it's probably inlined and smaller and faster than my implementation. But I seem to be a in catch-22. If I don't define memset(), the linker complains that it's undefined. If I do define it, the compiler complains that I cannot define an intrinsic function. I've tried adding #pragma intrinsic(memset) with and without declarations of memset, but no luck. Does anyone know the right combination of definition, declaration, #pragma, and compiler and linker flags to get an intrinsic function without pulling in RTL overhead? Visual Studio 2008, x86, Windows XP+.

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  • Serializing a DataType="time" field using XmlSerializer

    - by CraftyFella
    Hi, I'm getting an odd result when serializing a DateTime field using XmlSerializer. I have the following class: public class RecordExample { [XmlElement("TheTime", DataType = "time")] public DateTime TheTime { get; set; } [XmlElement("TheDate", DataType = "date")] public DateTime TheDate { get; set; } public static bool Serialize(Stream stream, object obj, Type objType, Encoding encoding) { try { using (var writer = XmlWriter.Create(stream, new XmlWriterSettings { Encoding = encoding })) { var xmlSerializer = new XmlSerializer(objType); if (writer != null) xmlSerializer.Serialize(writer, obj); } return true; } catch (Exception) { return false; } } } When i call the use the XmlSerializer with the following testing code: var obj = new RecordExample {TheDate = DateTime.Now.Date, TheTime = new DateTime(0001, 1, 1, 12, 00, 00)}; var ms = new MemoryStream(); RecordExample.Serialize(ms, obj, typeof (RecordExample), Encoding.UTF8); txtSource2.Text = Encoding.UTF8.GetString(ms.ToArray()); I get some strange results, here's the xml that is produced: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <RecordExample xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <TheTime>12:00:00.0000000+00:00</TheTime> <TheDate>2010-03-08</TheDate> </RecordExample> Any idea's how i can get the "TheTime" element to contain a time which looks more like this: <TheTime>12:00:00.0Z</TheTime> ...as that's what i was expecting? Thanks Dave

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