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  • newbie hibernate first level cache confusion

    - by Bruce
    Hi all I'm just geting to grips with hibernate. Little bit confused. I just wanted to watch the operation of the first level cache, which I understood to batch up queries until the end of the session. But if I create an object, hibernate saves it immediately, so that when I later update it in the same transaction, it has to do an update too: Session session = factory.getCurrentSession(); session.beginTransaction(); Test1 test1 = new Test1(); test1.setName("Test 1"); test1.setValue(10); // Touch it session.save(test1); System.out.println("At checkpoint 1"); test1.setValue(20); session.getTransaction().commit(); I see the sql for the save, then 'At checkpoint 1', then the sql for the update. Do I have something set up wrong or am I misunderstanding hibernate's first level cache? Is there a good document on the first level cache - I didn't find anything in the hibernate docs, but I could easily have missed it.. Thanks!

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  • How to retrieve content via .load() or $.get() with this line

    - by Sin
    hello :) I posted a question a day or two ago about how to retrieve php via ajax method in this modal I was using. I kinda found out the right way to go about it, but there's still something I'm not doing right (obviously lol) Here's the section thats giving me the issues: jQuery('div that holds content').fadeIn(200).css({ 'width': Number( popWidth ) }); $('').load('/something/somewhere/this #content'); So, im using safari, and a local server (mamp), when I check activity in my browser, it shows that it is loading the content with every click, AND the pop up pops up, but no content. When I simply retrieve content via hidden div, ofcourse, i get it. This is what I'm trying to avoid. right now I have that div in my footer stashed as hidden. I'd rather just make a call when its needed, instead of loading it every single time a page is accessed. you can go here to see the whole script i posted in my last question: How to use ajax to show php in a modal pop up Anyone have any idea? I read that .load() has the ability to grab specific content from a request, but im not sure the major difference between that and $.get() I've tried both, and I get the same results. Im using wordpress, and wordpress's ajax requests run smooth as ever, so I know its not a local problem, i'ts my coding lol Ok....Im done typing :)

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  • Appended content using jQuery 'append' is not submitted?

    - by YourMomzThaBomb
    I'm new to jQuery so this may be a real simple answer. I have a ASP.NET project that I'm trying to dynamically add content to a span element by typing into a text box and clicking a button. Sounds simple right? Well, I can get the content to added, but when the form is submitted the span element is still empty? Why is the new data not submitted? What step am I missing? Please help. Here's some sample code: < span id="tagContainer" runat="server"< /span < input type="text" name="tag" id="tag" / < input type="button" name="AddTag" value="Add" class="button" onclick="addTag();" / function addTag() {    if ($("#tag").val() != "") {       $("#tagContainer").append('$("#tag").val()');       $("#tag").val("");    } }

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  • Mono Develop 2.4.1 + linq error.

    - by Nev_Rahd
    I just started to learn Mono Develop Installed Mono Develop 2.4.1 and trial version of Mono Touch. my Code: using System; using System.Xml.Linq; using System.Collections.Generic; namespace RSSReader { public static class RSSRepository { public static IList<FeedItem> GetFeeds(string url) { XDocument rssFeed = XDocument.Load(url); Console.Write(rssFeed.ToString()); var feeds = new List<FeedItem>(); try { var query = from item in rssFeed.Descendants("item") select new FeedItem { Title = item.Element("title").Value, Published = DateTime.Parse(item.Element("pubDate").Value), Url = item.Element("link").Value }; feeds = query.ToList(); } catch (Exception ex){ Console.WriteLine(ex.Message); } return feeds; } } } This is throwing an error: An implementation of 'select' query expression pattern could not be found. Are you missing 'System.linq' using directive or 'System.Core.dll' assembly reference? I got both references to System.Xml.Linq and System.Core What am i missing ?

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  • Generics in a bidirectional association

    - by Verhoevenv
    Let's say I have two classes A and B, with B a subtype of A. This is only part of a richer type hierarchy, obviously, but I don't think that's relevant. Assume A is the root of the hierarchy. There is a collection class C that keeps track of a list of A's. However, I want to make C generic, so that it is possible to make an instance that only keeps B's and won't accept A's. class A(val c: C[A]) { c.addEntry(this) } class B(c: C[A]) extends A(c) class C[T <: A]{ val entries = new ArrayBuffer[T]() def addEntry(e: T) { entries += e } } object Generic { def main(args : Array[String]) { val c = new C[B]() new B(c) } } The code above obviously give the error 'type mismatch: found C[B], required C[A]' on the new B(c) line. I'm not sure how this can be fixed. It's not possible to make C covariant in T (like C[+T <: A]) because the ArrayBuffer is non-variantly typed in T. It's not possible to make the constructor of B require a C[B] because C can't be covariant. Am I barking up the wrong tree here? I'm a complete Scala newbie, so any ideas and tips might be helpful. Thank you! EDIT: Basically, what I'd like to have is that the compiler accepts both val c = new C[B]() new B(c) and val c = new C[A]() new B(c) but would reject val c = new C[B]() new A(c) It's probably possible to relax the typing of the ArrayBuffer in C to be A instead of T, and thus in the addEntry method as well, if that helps.

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  • C++ template type deduction problem

    - by hamishmcn
    motivation: I would like to create a utility class so that instead of having to write: if( someVal == val1 || someVal == val2 || someVal == val3 ) I could instead write: if( is(someVal).in(val1, val2, val3) ) which is much closer to the mathematical 'a is an element of (b,c,d)' and also would save on a lot of typing when the variable name 'someVal' is long. Here is the code I have so far (for 2 and 3 values): template<class T> class is { private: T t_; public: is(T t) : t_(t) { } bool in(const T& v1, const T& v2) { return t_ == v1 || t_ == v2; } bool in(const T& v1, const T& v2, const T& v3) { return t_ == v1 || t_ == v2 || t_ == v3; } }; However it fails to compile if I write: is(1).in(3,4,5); instead I have to write is<int>(1).in(3,4,5); Which isn't too bad, but it would be better if somehow the compiler could figure out that the type is int with out me having to explicitly specify it. Is there anyway to do this or I am stuck with specifying it explicitly?

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  • Change clickable TextView's color on focus and click?

    - by Daniel Jonsson
    I have a clickable TextView that I want to give some colors to. But I don't know how. Here are the relevant code snippets from my two files that I'm working with: TextView title = new TextView(this); title.setLayoutParams(new LayoutParams(LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT, LayoutParams.WRAP_CONTENT)); title.setTextColor(R.color.textcolor); title.setText(titleLine); title.setTypeface(null, Typeface.BOLD); title.setClickable(true); title.setId(idLine); title.setFocusable(true); title.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View v) { /* Irrelevant code */ } }); And this is my textcolor.xml file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <selector xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android"> <item android:state_pressed="true" android:color="#000000"/> <!-- pressed --> <item android:state_focused="true" android:color="#000000"/> <!-- focused --> <item android:color="#000000"/> <!-- default --> </selector> When I use the textcolor-file by typing title.setTextColor(R.color.textcolor);, the textcolor just becomes grey, regardless if I press it or so. Which is strange since I have written "#000000" in all color fields. But if I remove the setTextColor code, gets the textView a light grey color, and when I press it, it becomes black. But that aren't the colors that I want. So, can anyone help me with this problem? Just to clarify: I want to be able to specify the colors for the text when it's normal, pressed and focused.

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  • Why do my debugger randomly jump out of debug mode?

    - by Clean
    Hi, I'm experiencing a very annoying behavior with the debugger in Visual Studio 2008 Professional. I'm debugging a ASP.NET web application, and when stepping through the code the debugger randomly "jumps out" of debug mode, but without the debugger stopping. So when I'm stepping through my code like this: step over, step over, step over, step over, ... , step over The debugger continues as If I was pressing Continue, like this: step over, step over, step over, step over, ... , continue Thing is, I never touch continue! So, the debugger is still running, the ASP.NET page renders, but my "stepping" ends. This is of course very annoying. And it happens totally randomly. Before switching to Windows 7 and IIS 7.5, I've never experienced this problem. My colleague who debugs the exact same code, but on a Windows XP machine running IIS 6 have never had this problem either. So my thought is, perhaps this is Windows 7 or IIS 7.5 related? I've already made sure <compilation defaultLanguage="c#" debug="true" /> is set in web.config. Have anyone experienced the same problem, or perhaps have an idea why I'm experiencing this annoying behavior? Thanx! P.S I realize this question might be more Visual Studio 2008 specific rather than programming specific, but I figure my best chance to find somebody that experienced the same problem would be at a forum for programmers (since naturally, programmers are the most frequent users of Visual Studio 2008).

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  • Jquery + Prototype Question

    - by mikeyhill
    I recently inherited a site which is botched in all sorts of ways. I'm more of a php guy and initially the js was working just fine. I made no changes to the javascript or the any of the include files but after making a few content edits I'm getting errors from firebug. a.dispatchEvent is not a function emptyFunction()protot...ects.js (line 2) emptyFunction()protot...ects.js (line 2) fireContentLoadedEvent()protot...ects.js (line 2) [Break on this error] var Prototype={Version:'1.6.0.2',Brows...pe,Enumerable);Element.addMethods(); protot...ects.js (line 2) this.m_eTarget.setStyle is not a function [Break on this error] this.m_eTarget.setStyle( { position: 'relative', overflow:'hidden'} ); protot...ects.js (line 43) uncaught exception: [Exception... "Component returned failure code: 0x80070057 (NS_ERROR_ILLEGAL_VALUE)" nsresult: "0x80070057 (NS_ERROR_ILLEGAL_VALUE)" location: "JS frame :: js/prototype_effects.js :: anonymous :: line 2" data: no] Googling around I found several posts that sometimes jquery+prototype don't play well and rearranging the scripts could fix this issue, however being that I didn't touch these sections I'm not sure where I even need to begin to debug. The previous developer incorporated a head.inc file which loads up prototype, scriptaculous and then many of the pages are in a sub-template loading up jquery for functions like lightbox. The site is temp housed at http://dawn.mikeyhill.com Any help is appreciated.

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  • Confused about std::runtime_error vs. std::logic_error

    - by David Gladfelter
    I recently saw that the boost program_options library throws a logic_error if the command-line input was un-parsable. That challenged my assumptions about logic_error vs. runtime_error. I assumed that logic errors (logic_error and its derived classes) were problems that resulted from internal failures to adhere to program invariants, often in the form of illegal arguments to internal API's. In that sense they are largely equivalent to ASSERT's, but meant to be used in released code (unlike ASSERT's which are not usually compiled into released code.) They are useful in situations where it is infeasible to integrate separate software components in debug/test builds or the consequences of a failure are such that it is important to give runtime feedback about the invalid invariant condition to the user. Similarly, I thought that runtime_errors resulted exclusively from runtime conditions outside of the control of the programmer: I/O errors, invalid user input, etc. However, program_options is obviously heavily (primarily?) used as a means of parsing end-user input, so under my mental model it certainly should throw a runtime_error in the case of bad input. Where am I going wrong? Do you agree with the boost model of exception typing?

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  • ASP.Net MVC and Windows 7 404 error

    - by Paul Rivers
    O.K. Stupid question..... I sepnt nearly a day getting an MVC site working, and then I published it. After that, the hell began. I'm using Windows 7, Visual Studio 2008 and MVC. I published it and first the Default.aspx wouldn't come up. I gave up on playing with that for a few and just did the easy thing a typed in default.aspx. I'll fix that problem later. So, I clicked on one of my navigation buttons which prior to this worked just fine in the internal development IIS, and I get a 404 error. I spent two days surfing the Microsoft support forums and every other support forum I can find. No fix. So, I tried something a little different. Just to see if I screwed up. I created a new TestMVC application. Set the output to a website on the local IIS. Compiled and after typing in the default.aspx (it was set as the startup file in the project) I then clicked on the About button on the base MVC application. And what do I get? 404. I know this is new, folks, but this is crazy. What is it about this process that would take this much effort to get it right, especially since it works on the test server.

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  • Easier way to populate form data and validation data in Code Igniter?

    - by John
    I'm new to code igniter. I'm following the form validation tutorial found at: http://www.codeignitor.com/user_guide/libraries/validation.html I find I am typing too much in the view to get the form to re-populate. For example, here's what one of my INPUT fields look like: <input type="text" name="email" value="<?=$this->validation->email ? $this->validation->email : $array_db_values['email'] ?>" /> Basically, when the form first loads, it should show a value from the database. If the user alters the value and it fails validation, then the form should post the erroneously submitted value. Does code igniter have a "cleaner" way of rendering this kind of output? Otherwise, I'm going to do something like this in my controller: $array_db_values = getdbresults(); if($_POST['submit']) foreach($_POST as $key=>$val) $array_db_values[$key] = $val; That way, if postback data exists, it will always override database values. Then input fields in my view can simply be: <input type="text" name="email" value="<?=$array_db_values['email'] ?>" /> Is there a better/native CI way to handle this scenario?

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  • Slow loading of UITableView. How know why?

    - by mamcx
    I have a UITableView that show a long list of data. Use sections and follow the sugestion of http://stackoverflow.com/questions/695814/how-solve-slow-scrolling-in-uitableview . The flow is load a main UITableView & push a second selecting a row from there. However, with 3000 items take 11 seconds to show. I suspect first from the load of the records from sqlite (I preload the first 200). So I cut it to only 50. However, no matter if I preload only 1 or 500, the time is the same. The view is made from IB and all is opaque. I run out of ideas in how detect the problem. I run the Instruments tool but not know what to look. Also, when the user select a cell from the previous UITable, no visual feedback is show (ie: the cell not turn selected) for a while so he thinks he not select it and try several times. Is related to this problem. What to do? NOTE: The problem is only in the actual device: iPod Touch 2d generation Using fmdb as sqlite api Doing the caching in viewDidLoad Using NSDictionary for the caching Using a NSAutoreleasePool for the caching part. Only caching the row ID & mac 4 fields necesary to show the cell data UIView made with interface builder, SDK 2.2.1 Instruments say I use 2.5 MB in the device

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  • Selenium : Handling Loading screens obscuring the web elements. (Java)

    - by Sheldon Cooper
    I'm writing an automated test case for a web page. Here's my scenario. I have to click and type on various web elements in an html form. But, sometimes while typing on a text field, an ajax loading image appears , fogging all elements i want to interact with. So, I'm using web-driver wait before clicking on the actual elements like below, WebdriverWait innerwait=new WebDriverWait(driver,30); innerwait.until(ExpectedConditions.elementToBeClickable(By.xpath(fieldID))); driver.findelement(By.xpath(fieldID)).click(); But the wait function returns the element even if it is fogged by another image and is not clickable. But the click() throws an exception as Element is not clickable at point (586.5, 278). Other element would receive the click: <div>Loading image</div> Do I have to check every time if the loading image appeared before interacting with any elements?.(I can't predict when the loading image will appear and fog all elements.) Is there any efficient way to handle this? Currently I'm using the following function to wait till the loading image disappears, public void wait_for_ajax_loading() throws Exception { try{ Thread.sleep(2000); if(selenium.isElementPresent("id=loadingPanel")) while(selenium.isElementPresent("id=loadingPanel")&&selenium.isVisible("id=loadingPanel"))//wait till the loading screen disappears { Thread.sleep(2000); System.out.println("Loading...."); }} catch(Exception e){ Logger.logPrint("Exception in wait_for_ajax_loading() "+e); Logger.failedReport(report, e); driver.quit(); System.exit(0); } } But I don't know exactly when to call the above function, calling it at a wrong time will fail. Is there any efficient way to check if an element is actually clickable? or the loading image is present? Thanks..

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  • c++ simple conditional logging

    - by Sunny
    Disclaimer: I'm not a c++ developer, I can only do basic things. (I understand pointers, just my knowledge is so rusty, I haven't touch c/c++ for about 20 years :) ) The setup: I have an Outlook addin, written in C#/.Net 1.1. It uses a c++ shim to load. Usually, this works pretty well, and I use in my c# code nlog for logging purposes. But sometimes, the addin fails to load, i.t. it does not hit the managed code at all for me to be able to investigate the problem from the log files. So, I need to hook some basic logging into the c++ shim - just writing in a file. I need to make it as simple as possible for our users to enable. Actually I would prefer not to ship it by default. I was thinking about something, which will check if a specific dll is present (the logging dll), and if so, to use it. Otherwise, it will just not log anything. That way, when I have a user with such a problems, I can send him only the logging dll, the user will save it in the runtime directory, and I'll have the file. I guess this have to be done with some form a factory solution, which returns either a dummy logger, or if the dll is found, a real one. Another option would be to make some simple logger, and rebuild the shim with or w/o using it, based on directives. This is not the desirable approach, because the shim needs to be signed, and I have to instruct the user to make a backup copy of the "real" one, then restore when done, etc., instead of just saving and deleting a dll. I'd appreciate any good suggestion how to approach it, together with links or sample code how to go after this. Cheers

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  • Why does the VS2005 debugger not report "base." values properly? (was "Why is this if statement fail

    - by Rawling
    I'm working on an existing class that is two steps derived from System.Windows.Forms.Combo box. The class overrides the Text property thus: public override string Text { get { return this.AccessibilityObject.Value; } set { if (base.Text != value) { base.Text = value; } } } The reason given for that "get" is this MS bug: http://support.microsoft.com/kb/814346 However, I'm more interested in the fact that the "if" doesn't work. There are times where "base.Text != value" is true and yet pressing F10 steps straight to the closing } of the "set" and the Text property is not changed. I've seen this both by just checking values in the debugger, and putting a conditional breakpoint on that only breaks when the "if" statement's predicate is true. How on earth can "if" go wrong? The class between this and ComboBox doesn't touch the Text property. The bug above shouldn't really be affecting anything - it says it's fixed in VS2005. Is the debugger showing different values than the program itself sees? Update I think I've found what is happening here. The debugger is reporting value incorrectly (including evaluating conditional breakpoints incorrectly). To see this, try the following pair of classes: class MyBase { virtual public string Text { get { return "BaseText"; } } } class MyDerived : MyBase { public override string Text { get { string test = base.Text; return "DerivedText"; } } } Put a breakpoint on the last return statement, then run the code and access that property. In my VS2005, hovering over base.Text gives the value "DerivedText", but the variable test has been correctly set to "BaseText". So, new question: why does the debugger not handle base properly, and how can I get it to?

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  • Looking for an appropriate design pattern

    - by user1066015
    I have a game that tracks user stats after every match, such as how far they travelled, how many times they attacked, how far they fell, etc, and my current implementations looks somewhat as follows (simplified version): Class Player{ int id; public Player(){ int id = Math.random()*100000; PlayerData.players.put(id,new PlayerData()); } public void jump(){ //Logic to make the user jump //... //call the playerManager PlayerManager.jump(this); } public void attack(Player target){ //logic to attack the player //... //call the player manager PlayerManager.attack(this,target); } } Class PlayerData{ public static HashMap<int, PlayerData> players = new HashMap<int,PlayerData>(); int id; int timesJumped; int timesAttacked; } public void incrementJumped(){ timesJumped++; } public void incrementAttacked(){ timesAttacked++; } } Class PlayerManager{ public static void jump(Player player){ players.get(player.getId()).incrementJumped(); } public void incrementAttacked(Player player, Player target){ players.get(player.getId()).incrementAttacked(); } } So I have a PlayerData class which holds all of the statistics, and brings it out of the player class because it isn't part of the player logic. Then I have PlayerManager, which would be on the server, and that controls the interactions between players (a lot of the logic that does that is excluded so I could keep this simple). I put the calls to the PlayerData class in the Manager class because sometimes you have to do certain checks between players, for instance if the attack actually hits, then you increment "attackHits". The main problem (in my opinion, correct me if I'm wrong) is that this is not very extensible. I will have to touch the PlayerData class if I want to keep track of a new stat, by adding methods and fields, and then I have to potentially add more methods to my PlayerManager, so it isn't very modulized. If there is an improvement to this that you would recommend, I would be very appreciative. Thanks.

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  • Need help on HttpWebrequest

    - by ASPUSER
    HI Guys I have the same issue and I am looking to solve it. Here is detail I have two web sites WebsiteA and WebSiteB (WebsiteB is not in my control, A type of black box for me.). Both websites have seprate login page I have alist of users,password of websiteB which I stored in database. I want a kind of common login page. If user is login to websiteA and he want to go to websiteB, he dont have to enter the login and password information again. I can not touch the code of websiteB. it's alredy deployed and runing. In websiteB in login form they have a Userid textbox and Password textbox and and a login Button. This butoon is not a submit button. It has a click event which calls a function to validate the user. it's not a simple post. WebsiteB has one webpage which has different frames. After login sucessfull. The pages doesnt go to any other page it remain on the same page but load the different frame. According to my knowledge. I can use httpwebrequest class. But faceing the following problem. Can not click the button. Response.Redirect does not work. It seems that WebsiteB is not storing any thing in cookies as cookies always return me a empty string I really appriciate if anyone can help me on it. How Can I use response.Redirect . As when I redirect it shows me the same login page.

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  • Generating HTML Programmatically in C#, Targeting Printed Reports

    - by John Passaniti
    I've taken over a C# (2.0) code base that has the ability to print information. The code to do this is insanely tedious. Elements are drawn onto each page, with magic constants representing positioning. I imagine the programmer sitting with a ruler, designing each page by measuring and typing in the positions. And yes, one could certainly come up with some nice abstractions to make this approach rational. But I am looking at a different method. The idea is that I'll replace the current code that prints with code that generates static HTML pages, saves them to a file, and then launches the web browser on that file. The most obvious benefit is that I don't have to deal with formatting-- I can let the web browser do that for me with tags and CSS. So what I am looking for is a very lightweight set of classes that I can use to help generate HTML. I don't need anything as heavyweight as HTMLTextWriter. What I'm looking for is something to avoid fragments like this: String.Format("<tr><td>{0}</td><td>{1}</td></tr>", foo, bar); And instead take have this kind of feel: ... table(). tr(). td(foo). td(bar) Or something like that. I've seen lightweight classes like that for other languages but can't find the equivalent (or better) for C#. I can certainly write it myself, but I'm a firm believer in not reinventing wheels. Know anything like this? Know anything better than this?

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  • assign characters to key combinations in XP or Visual Studio .Net

    - by cpj
    I'm running Mac OSX on a MacBookPro (UK keyboard). I run windows XP under parallels in a VM. I run Visual Studio .Net 2003 and 2008 in XP in the VM when i need to. I have English United Kingdom and English United states keyboards setup in XP. (they switch sometimes for no apparent reason) There is no hash "#" key on my mac's keyboard. However, in OSX I can get a hash with an alt+3 key combination. But In Windows XP... I can not make a "#" character. I can go to the character map in windows and copy a hash.. switch into OSX and copy a hash.. search in code and copy a hash.. but I can not make a hash in XP using my keyboard without typing U+0023: ... which you can imagine is annoying. coding anything with hash symbols is becoming a choir. Anyone got any advice or key mapping tricks I can use to get hash characters working in XP using my mac UK keyboard?

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  • choose javascript variable based on element id from jquery

    - by phoffer
    I feel like this is a simple question, but I am still relatively new to javascript and jquery. I am developing a site for a touch interface that uses unordered lists and jquery .click functions to take input data. I have a section to input a m:ss time, with 3 divs, each containing a list of digits for time. I need to get the input for each column and set it as a variable. I originally designed the inputs to change form inputs, because I didn't understand javascript very much. It was easy to change the 3 hidden inputs by using div id's, but I can't figure out how to do it now with javascript variables. Here is my original jquery code... $("div#time>div>ul>li").click(function() { var id = $(this).parents(".time").attr("name"); var number = $(this).html(); $("input#"+id).val(number); }); The last line sets one of 3 hidden inputs equal to whatever was clicked. I need to make it so separate variables take the inputs, then I can manipulate those variables however I want. Here's a short snippet of the html, to have an idea of how jquery grabs it. <div id="time"> <h1>Time</h1> <div name="minute" class="time" id="t_minute"> M : <ul> The full time html is here: link text Thanks everyone! I've been using SO to answer many questions I've had, but I couldn't find something for this, so I figured I would join, since I'm sure I will have more questions along the way.

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  • jQuery UI Calendar displays too large, would like the demo size???

    - by Phill Pafford
    So I downloaded a custom themed UI for jQuery and added the calendar control to my sight (Example: link text). In the example it shows/displays the size I would like but on my webpage it's about twice the size. why??? I do have a ton of other CSS but I don't have control over the look and feel of the page (Can't touch current CSS, MEH!!). Is there a way to get the demo look on my site? I think this is the code that jQuery UI has that might be complicating things /* Component containers ----------------------------------*/ .ui-widget { font-family: Arial, Helvetica, Verdana, sans-serif; font-size: 1.1em; } .ui-widget input, .ui-widget select, .ui-widget textarea, .ui-widget button { font-family: Arial, Helvetica, Verdana, sans-serif; font-size: 1em; } .ui-widget-content { border: 1px solid #B9C4CE; background: #ffffff url(../images/ui-bg_flat_75_ffffff_40x100.png) 50% 50% repeat-x; color: #616161; } .ui-widget-content a { color: #616161; } .ui-widget-header { border: 1px solid #467AA7; background: #467AA7 url(../images/ui-bg_highlight-soft_75_467AA7_1x100.png) 50% 50% repeat-x; color: #fff; font-weight: bold; } .ui-widget-header a { color: #fff; } It's part of the Custom UI CSS

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  • Is it possible to access the SMIL timer from javascript?

    - by Will
    I'm trying to use SMIL to animate the typing of text into a field embedded in a SVG. I tried the following code in both Chrome and a SMIL-enable Firefox nightly, but it has no effect: <svg xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2000/svg" xmlns:html="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <foreignObject> <html:input type="text" value=""> <set attributeName="value" to="Hello World" begin="0" dur="10s" fill="freeze" /> </html:input> </foreignObject> </svg> The text field appears, but remains empty. So, I thought I would register for the beginEvent and do the substitution manually. To test the events, I added: <rect id="rect" x="0" y="0" width="10" height="10"> <animate id="dx" attributeName="x" attributeType="XML" begin="0s" dur="1s" fill="freeze" from="0" to="-10" /> </rect> As well as the javascript that made sense from the event model: window.addEventListener( 'load', function() { function listen( id ) { var elem = document.getElementById( id ) elem.addEventListener( 'beginEvent', function() { console.log( 'begin ' + id ) }, false ) elem.addEventListener( 'endEvent', function() { console.log( 'end ' + id ) }, false ) } listen( 'rect' ) listen( 'dx' ) }) But there's no events fired on either the rect or the animate in either browser. The next logical step seems to be to simulate the animation (ala. FakeSmile), but I want to use the browser's animation timer if at all possible.

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  • Optimize jQuery code

    - by Dannemannen
    Greetings, Just built some stuff with jQuery, everything works perfect(!), but I would like it to be as optimzed as possible.. what small changes can I do to my code? $(document).ready(function() { // hide the indicator, we use it later $(".indicator").hide(); // start the animation of the progressbar $(".fill").animate({ width: "50px",}, 4000, function() { $(".indicator").effect("pulsate", { times:999 }, 2000);}); // notify-me ajax function $(".btn-submit").click(function() { // get the variable email and put it in a new variable var email = $("input#mail").val(); var dataString = 'mail='+email; $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "/mail.php", data: dataString, dataType: "json", success: function(msg){ // JSON return, lets do some magic if(msg.status == "ok") { $("#response-box").fadeIn("slow").delay(2000).fadeOut("slow"); $("#fade").fadeIn("slow").delay(2000).fadeOut("slow"); $("#response-box .inner").html("<h1>Thank you.</h1>We'll keep in touch!"); $("#mail").val("e.g. [email protected]"); } else { $("#response-box").fadeIn("slow").delay(2000).fadeOut("slow"); $("#fade").fadeIn("slow").delay(2000).fadeOut("slow"); $("#response-box .inner").html("<h1>Oops.</h1>Please try again!"); } } }); //make sure the form doesn't post return false; }); });

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  • mod_rewrite failing on uppercase dir

    - by user1855277
    I have a very basic mod_rewrite in a .htaccess file which I'm sure worked last time I looked at it, but now it is doing strange things with the case of the REQUEST_URI. It's intended purpose is to rewrite sub-domains to a given file, passing the subdomain as a php var of bnurl. Here is my code: RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI}= "RSDEV/location/" [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} . RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^www\. [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^([^.]+)\.mydomain\.co\.uk(:80)? [NC] RewriteRule ^RSDEV/location/$ RSDEV/newmain.php?bnurl=%1&accesstype=new [NC,L] Now, typing joebloggs.mydomain.co.uk/RSDEV/location/ into my web browser comes back with the response "The requested URL /RSDEV/location/ was not found on this server" which is a correct statement because /RSDEV/location/ is not a real directory, but why did it not rewrite to RSDEV/newmain.php?bnurl=joebloggs&accesstype=new as expected? Now, the really strange thing here is that if I enter joebloggs.mydomain.co.uk/rsdev/location/ into my browser (note rsdev is now lowercase), it correctly rewrites as expected. The script newmain.php is in dir RSDEV (uppercase) so if it was going to fail, I would have expected it to fail the other way round with the lowercase rsdev. As you can see, I have [NC] on each line. Is this my mod_rewrite code failing or some other mystical server force keeping me up all night?

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