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  • Implementing coroutines in Java

    - by JUST MY correct OPINION
    This question is related to my question on existing coroutine implementations in Java. If, as I suspect, it turns out that there is no full implementation of coroutines currently available in Java, what would be required to implement them? As I said in that question, I know about the following: You can implement "coroutines" as threads/thread pools behind the scenes. You can do tricksy things with JVM bytecode behind the scenes to make coroutines possible. The so-called "Da Vinci Machine" JVM implementation has primitives that make coroutines doable without bytecode manipulation. There are various JNI-based approaches to coroutines also possible. I'll address each one's deficiencies in turn. Thread-based coroutines This "solution" is pathological. The whole point of coroutines is to avoid the overhead of threading, locking, kernel scheduling, etc. Coroutines are supposed to be light and fast and to execute only in user space. Implementing them in terms of full-tilt threads with tight restrictions gets rid of all the advantages. JVM bytecode manipulation This solution is more practical, albeit a bit difficult to pull off. This is roughly the same as jumping down into assembly language for coroutine libraries in C (which is how many of them work) with the advantage that you have only one architecture to worry about and get right. It also ties you down to only running your code on fully-compliant JVM stacks (which means, for example, no Android) unless you can find a way to do the same thing on the non-compliant stack. If you do find a way to do this, however, you have now doubled your system complexity and testing needs. The Da Vinci Machine The Da Vinci Machine is cool for experimentation, but since it is not a standard JVM its features aren't going to be available everywhere. Indeed I suspect most production environments would specifically forbid the use of the Da Vinci Machine. Thus I could use this to make cool experiments but not for any code I expect to release to the real world. This also has the added problem similar to the JVM bytecode manipulation solution above: won't work on alternative stacks (like Android's). JNI implementation This solution renders the point of doing this in Java at all moot. Each combination of CPU and operating system requires independent testing and each is a point of potentially frustrating subtle failure. Alternatively, of course, I could tie myself down to one platform entirely but this, too, makes the point of doing things in Java entirely moot. So... Is there any way to implement coroutines in Java without using one of these four techniques? Or will I be forced to use the one of those four that smells the least (JVM manipulation) instead?

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  • My mental block - struggling to learn Objective C

    - by iqessar
    Hello people, this would be my first question after signing up! Anyway heres my question, I did Java at university and I was always told I am a good programmer. However I never pursued it as a career - I went into support and management instead. Im pretty much bored with my job, I have therefore started to learn Objective C so that I can develop apps for the iphone. I am currently watching several different Videos / Books. My problem is that when I go through the Apple documentation, although I understand most of it, sometimes I stumble. I believe that because you/we have the Apple documentation (i.e. Framework references) , everything should be clear, and therefore you should have no need to refer to a book or video (in order to learn how to use a particular class). But I alway do refer to a book and video and subsequently feel guilty as I believe the framework reference should be enough. (I therefore feel I am not up to being a programmer) I also believe that you shouldn't need example code in order to learn how to use a particular class because Apple provides documentation for each class, but AGAIN I find my self googling example code and I find my answer like that - again I feel guilty for doing this. Am I right in saying that Apple documentation is simply not clear? and that its ok to refer to a video/book or google? or forums for that matter? I have proffesional programmers who tell me that I am worrying too much and that I should get on with it and use all the resources that I have. I just cant seem to get round this mental block that I have in my head. When I start a programming project I am able to use the excellent search skills that I have to find the code I need, copy and paste it (yes I do understand it) BUT then I feel guilty telling myself that why didn't you think up the code yourself???? Therefore your not a real programmer, your just good at googling. Currently I am going through 20+ books so that I can learn most of the frameworks, syntax etc to develop iphone apps. I believe if I do this, then when I think of a project I can make it quickly. Should I read a few books, like 2-3 and then just start a project /app , and if I get stuck just google it and get the code I need? Can anybody please answer my questions?

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  • Check my anagram code from a job interview in the past.

    - by Michael Dorgan
    Had the following as an interview question a while ago and choked so bad on basic syntax that I failed to advance (once the adrenalin kicks in, coding goes out the window.) Given a list of string, return a list of sets of strings that are anagrams of the input set. i.e. "dog","god", "foo" should return {"dog","god"}. Afterward, I created the code on my own as a sanity check and it's been around now for a bit. I'd welcome input on it to see if I missed anything or if I could have done it much more efficiently. Take it as a chance to improve myself and learn other techniques: void Anagram::doWork(list input, list &output) { typedef list SortType; SortType sortedInput; // sort each string and pair it with the original for(list<string>::iterator i = input.begin(); i != input.end(); ++i) { string tempString(*i); std::sort(tempString.begin(), tempString.end()); sortedInput.push_back(make_pair(*i, tempString)); } // Now step through the new sorted list for(SortType::iterator i = sortedInput.begin(); i != sortedInput.end();) { set<string> newSet; // Assume (hope) we have a match and pre-add the first. newSet.insert(i->first); // Set the secondary iterator one past the outside to prevent // matching the original SortType::iterator j = i; ++j; while(j != sortedInput.end()) { if(i->second == j->second) { // If the string matches, add it to the set and remove it // so that future searches need not worry about it newSet.insert(j->first); j = sortedInput.erase(j); } else { // else, next element ++j; } } // If size is bigger than our original push, we have a match - save it to the output if(newSet.size() > 1) { output.push_back(newSet); } // erase this element and update the iterator i = sortedInput.erase(i); } }

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  • DRY-ing very similar specs for ASP.NET MVC controller action with MSpec (BDD guidelines)

    - by spapaseit
    Hi all, I have two very similar specs for two very similar controller actions: VoteUp(int id) and VoteDown(int id). These methods allow a user to vote a post up or down; kinda like the vote up/down functionality for StackOverflow questions. The specs are: VoteDown: [Subject(typeof(SomeController))] public class When_user_clicks_the_vote_down_button_on_a_post : SomeControllerContext { Establish context = () => { post = PostFakes.VanillaPost(); post.Votes = 10; session.Setup(s => s.Single(Moq.It.IsAny<Expression<Func<Post, bool>>>())).Returns(post); session.Setup(s => s.CommitChanges()); }; Because of = () => result = controller.VoteDown(1); It should_decrement_the_votes_of_the_post_by_1 = () => suggestion.Votes.ShouldEqual(9); It should_not_let_the_user_vote_more_than_once; } VoteUp: [Subject(typeof(SomeController))] public class When_user_clicks_the_vote_down_button_on_a_post : SomeControllerContext { Establish context = () => { post = PostFakes.VanillaPost(); post.Votes = 0; session.Setup(s => s.Single(Moq.It.IsAny<Expression<Func<Post, bool>>>())).Returns(post); session.Setup(s => s.CommitChanges()); }; Because of = () => result = controller.VoteUp(1); It should_increment_the_votes_of_the_post_by_1 = () => suggestion.Votes.ShouldEqual(1); It should_not_let_the_user_vote_more_than_once; } So I have two questions: How should I go about DRY-ing these two specs? Is it even advisable or should I actually have one spec per controller action? I know I Normally should, but this feels like repeating myself a lot. Is there any way to implement the second It within the same spec? Note that the It should_not_let_the_user_vote_more_than_once; requires me the spec to call controller.VoteDown(1) twice. I know the easiest would be to create a separate spec for it too, but it'd be copying and pasting the same code yet again... I'm still getting the hang of BDD (and MSpec) and many times it is not clear which way I should go, or what the best practices or guidelines for BDD are. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • Why an object declared in method is subject to garbage collection before the method returns?

    - by SiLent SoNG
    Consider an object declared in a method: public void foo() { final Object obj = new Object(); // A long run job that consumes tons of memory and // triggers garbage collection } Will obj be subject to garbage collection before foo() returns? UPDATE: Previously I thought obj is not subject to garbage collection until foo() returns. However, today I find myself wrong. I have spend several hours in fixing a bug and finally found the problem is caused by obj garbage collected! Can anyone explain why this happens? And if I want obj to be pinned how to achieve it? Here is the code that has problem. public class Program { public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { String connectionString = "jdbc:mysql://<whatever>"; // I find wrap is gc-ed somewhere SqlConnection wrap = new SqlConnection(connectionString); Connection con = wrap.currentConnection(); Statement stmt = con.createStatement(ResultSet.TYPE_FORWARD_ONLY, ResultSet.CONCUR_READ_ONLY); stmt.setFetchSize(Integer.MIN_VALUE); ResultSet rs = stmt.executeQuery("select instance_id, doc_id from crawler_archive.documents"); while (rs.next()) { int instanceID = rs.getInt(1); int docID = rs.getInt(2); if (docID % 1000 == 0) { System.out.println(docID); } } rs.close(); //wrap.close(); } } After running the Java program, it will print the following message before it crashes: 161000 161000 ******************************** Finalizer CALLED!! ******************************** ******************************** Close CALLED!! ******************************** 162000 Exception in thread "main" com.mysql.jdbc.exceptions.jdbc4.CommunicationsException: And here is the code of class SqlConnection: class SqlConnection { private final String connectionString; private Connection connection; public SqlConnection(String connectionString) { this.connectionString = connectionString; } public synchronized Connection currentConnection() throws SQLException { if (this.connection == null || this.connection.isClosed()) { this.closeConnection(); this.connection = DriverManager.getConnection(connectionString); } return this.connection; } protected void finalize() throws Throwable { try { System.out.println("********************************"); System.out.println("Finalizer CALLED!!"); System.out.println("********************************"); this.close(); } finally { super.finalize(); } } public void close() { System.out.println("********************************"); System.out.println("Close CALLED!!"); System.out.println("********************************"); this.closeConnection(); } protected void closeConnection() { if (this.connection != null) { try { connection.close(); } catch (Throwable e) { } finally { this.connection = null; } } } }

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  • Opening Macro definitions: tdfx_span.c: lvalue required as left operand of assignment

    - by anttir
    Hi, I'm trying to compile X11R6-7.0 under Ubuntu maverick and got some weird compilation errors I'm unable to resolve myself. I needed X11R6-7.0 as ati catalyst drivers don't support newer xorg and oss drivers don't support 3d acceleration of my hardware. Anyone know what this error message means? I know some C but I got a bit confused. Does it mean GET_FB_DATA macro returned NULL or some method/property not set? Any further insight how to "debug" preprocessor definitions at this point would be great. I don't think I can print anything useful with #error. The error I get: tdfx_span.c: In function ‘tdfxDDWriteDepthPixels’: tdfx_span.c:976: error: lvalue required as left operand of assignment tdfx_span.c:1008: error: lvalue required as left operand of assignment tdfx_span.c: In function ‘write_stencil_pixels’: tdfx_span.c:1242: error: lvalue required as left operand of assignment the Code: 958- switch (depth_size) { 959- case 16: 960- GetBackBufferInfo(fxMesa, &backBufferInfo); 961- /* 962- * Note that the _LOCK macro adds a curly brace, 963- * and the UNLOCK macro removes it. 964- */ 965- WRITE_FB_SPAN_LOCK(fxMesa, info, 966- GR_BUFFER_AUXBUFFER, GR_LFBWRITEMODE_ANY); 967- { 968- LFBParameters ReadParams; 969- GetFbParams(fxMesa, &info, &backBufferInfo, 970- &ReadParams, sizeof(GLushort)); 971- for (i = 0; i < n; i++) { 972- if (mask[i] && visible_pixel(fxMesa, x[i], y[i])) { 973- xpos = x[i] + fxMesa->x_offset; 974- ypos = bottom - y[i]; 975- d16 = depth[i]; 976: PUT_FB_DATA(&ReadParams, GLushort, xpos, ypos, d16); 977- } 978- } 979- } 980- WRITE_FB_SPAN_UNLOCK(fxMesa, GR_BUFFER_AUXBUFFER); 981- break; 982- case 24: And relative macros: #define GET_FB_DATA(ReadParamsp, type, x, y) \ (((x) < (ReadParamsp)->firstWrappedX) \ ? (((type *)((ReadParamsp)->lfbPtr)) \ [(y) * ((ReadParamsp)->LFBStrideInElts) \ + (x)]) \ : (((type *)((ReadParamsp)->lfbWrapPtr)) \ [((y)) * ((ReadParamsp)->LFBStrideInElts) \ + ((x) - (ReadParamsp)->firstWrappedX)])) #define GET_ORDINARY_FB_DATA(ReadParamsp, type, x, y) \ (((type *)((ReadParamsp)->lfbPtr)) \ [(y) * ((ReadParamsp)->LFBStrideInElts) \ + (x)]) #define GET_WRAPPED_FB_DATA(ReadParamsp, type, x, y) \ (((type *)((ReadParamsp)->lfbWrapPtr)) \ [((y)) * ((ReadParamsp)->LFBStrideInElts) \ + ((x) - (ReadParamsp)->firstWrappedX)]) #define PUT_FB_DATA(ReadParamsp, type, x, y, value) \ (GET_FB_DATA(ReadParamsp, type, x, y) = (type)(value)) #define PUT_ORDINARY_FB_DATA(ReadParamsp, type, x, y, value) \ (GET_ORDINARY_FB_DATA(ReadParamsp, type, x, y) = (type)(value)) #define PUT_WRAPPED_FB_DATA(ReadParamsp, type, x, y, value) \ (GET_WRAPPED_FB_DATA(ReadParamsp, type, x, y) = (type)(value)) The LFBParameters Struct 483-typedef struct 484-{ 485- void *lfbPtr; 486- void *lfbWrapPtr; 487- FxU32 LFBStrideInElts; 488- GLint firstWrappedX; 489-} 490:LFBParameters; Thanks for looking.

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  • How do I call the methods in a model via controller? Zend Framework

    - by Joel
    Hi guys, I've been searching for tutorials to better understand this, but I'm having no luck. Please forgive the lengthy explination, but I want make sure I explain myself well. First, I'm quite new to the MVC structure, though I have been doing tutorials and learning as best I can. I have been moving over a live site into the Zend Framework model. So far, I have all the views within views/scripts/index/example.phtml. So therefore I'm using one IndexController and I have the code in each Action method for each page: IE public function exampleAction() Because I didn't know how to interact with a model, I put all the methods at the bottom of the controller (a fat controller). So basically, I had a working site by using a View and Controller and no model. ... Now I'm trying to learn how to incorporate the Model. So I created a View at: view/scripts/calendar/index.phtml I created a new Controller at: controller/CalendarControllers.php and a new model at: model/Calendar.php The problem is I think I'm not correctly communication with the model (I'm still new to OOP). Can you look over my controller and model and tell me if you see a problem. I'm needing to return an array from runCalendarScript(), but I'm not sure if I can return an array into the object like I'm trying to? I don't really understand how to "run" the runCalendarScript() from the controller? Thanks for any help! I'm stripping out most of the guts of the methods for the sake of brevity: controller: <?php class CalendarController extends Zend_Controller_Action { public function indexAction() { $finishedFeedArray = new Application_Model_Calendar(); $this->view->googleArray = $finishedFeedArray; } } model: <?php class Application_Model_Calendar { public function _runCalendarScript(){ $gcal = $this->_validateCalendarConnection(); $uncleanedFeedArray = $this->_getCalendarFeed($gcal); $finishedFeedArray = $this->_cleanFeed($uncleanedFeedArray); return $finishedFeedArray; } //Validate Google Calendar connection public function _validateCalendarConnection() { ... return $gcal; } //extracts googles calendar object into the $feed object public function _getCalendarFeed($gcal) { ... return $feed; } //cleans the feed to just text, etc protected function _cleanFeed($uncleanedFeedArray) { $contentText = $this->_cleanupText($event); $eventData = $this->_filterEventDetails($contentText); return $cleanedArray; } //Cleans up all formatting of text from Calendar feed public function _cleanupText($event) { ... return $contentText; } //filterEventDetails protected function _filterEventDetails($contentText) { ... return $data; } }

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  • Does this incorporate JavaScript closures?

    - by alex
    In trying to learn JavaScript closures, I've confused myself a bit. From what I've gathered over the web, a closure is... Declaring a function within another function, and that inner function has access to its parent function's variables, even after that parent function has returned. Here is a small sample of script from a recent project. It allows text in a div to be scrolled up and down by buttons. var pageScroll = (function() { var $page, $next, $prev, canScroll = true, textHeight, scrollHeight; var init = function() { $page = $('#secondary-page'); // reset text $page.scrollTop(0); textHeight = $page.outerHeight(); scrollHeight = $page.attr('scrollHeight'); if (textHeight === scrollHeight) { // not enough text to scroll return false; }; $page.after('<div id="page-controls"><button id="page-prev">prev</button><button id="page-next">next</button></div>'); $next = $('#page-next'); $prev = $('#page-prev'); $prev.hide(); $next.click(scrollDown); $prev.click(scrollUp); }; var scrollDown = function() { if ( ! canScroll) return; canScroll = false; var scrollTop = $page.scrollTop(); $prev.fadeIn(500); if (scrollTop == textHeight) { // can we scroll any lower? $next.fadeOut(500); } $page.animate({ scrollTop: '+=' + textHeight + 'px'}, 500, function() { canScroll = true; }); }; var scrollUp = function() { $next.fadeIn(500); $prev.fadeOut(500); $page.animate({ scrollTop: 0}, 500); }; $(document).ready(init); }()); Does this example use closures? I know it has functions within functions, but is there a case where the outer variables being preserved is being used? Am I using them without knowing it? Thanks Update Would this make a closure if I placed this beneath the $(document).ready(init); statement? return { scrollDown: scrollDown }; Could it then be, if I wanted to make the text scroll down from anywhere else in JavaScript, I could do pageScroll.scrollDown(); I'm going to have a play around on http://www.jsbin.com and report back

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  • Linq query challenge - can this be done?

    - by vdh_ant
    My table structure is as follows: Person 1-M PesonAddress Person 1-M PesonPhone Person 1-M PesonEmail Person 1-M Contract Contract M-M Program Contract M-1 Organization At the end of this query I need a populated object graph where each person has their: PesonAddress's PesonPhone's PesonEmail's PesonPhone's Contract's - and this has its respective Program's Now I had the following query and I thought that it was working great, but it has a couple of problems: from people in ctx.People.Include("PersonAddress") .Include("PersonLandline") .Include("PersonMobile") .Include("PersonEmail") .Include("Contract") .Include("Contract.Program") where people.Contract.Any( contract => (param.OrganizationId == contract.OrganizationId) && contract.Program.Any( contractProgram => (param.ProgramId == contractProgram.ProgramId))) select people; The problem is that it filters the person to the criteria but not the Contracts or the Contract's Programs. It brings back all Contracts that each person has not just the ones that have an OrganizationId of x and the same goes for each of those Contract's Programs respectively. What I want is only the people that have at least one contract with an OrgId of x with and where that contract has a Program with the Id of y... and for the object graph that is returned to have only the contracts that match and programs within that contract that match. I kinda understand why its not working, but I don't know how to change it so it is working... This is my attempt thus far: from people in ctx.People.Include("PersonAddress") .Include("PersonLandline") .Include("PersonMobile") .Include("PersonEmail") .Include("Contract") .Include("Contract.Program") let currentContracts = from contract in people.Contract where (param.OrganizationId == contract.OrganizationId) select contract let currentContractPrograms = from contractProgram in currentContracts let temp = from x in contractProgram.Program where (param.ProgramId == contractProgram.ProgramId) select x where temp.Any() select temp where currentContracts.Any() && currentContractPrograms.Any() select new Person { PersonId = people.PersonId, FirstName = people.FirstName, ..., ...., MiddleName = people.MiddleName, Surname = people.Surname, ..., ...., Gender = people.Gender, DateOfBirth = people.DateOfBirth, ..., ...., Contract = currentContracts, ... }; //This doesn't work But this has several problems (where the Person type is an EF object): I am left to do the mapping by myself, which in this case there is quite a lot to map When ever I try to map a list to a property (i.e. Scholarship = currentScholarships) it says I can't because IEnumerable is trying to be cast to EntityCollection Include doesn't work Hence how do I get this to work. Keeping in mind that I am trying to do this as a compiled query so I think that means anonymous types are out.

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  • MySQL LEFT OUTER JOIN virtual table

    - by user1707323
    I am working on a pretty complicated query let me try to explain it to you. Here is the tables that I have in my MySQL database: students Table --- `students` --- student_id first_name last_name current_status status_change_date ------------ ------------ ----------- ---------------- -------------------- 1 John Doe Active NULL 2 Jane Doe Retread 2012-02-01 students_have_courses Table --- `students_have_courses` --- students_student_id courses_course_id s_date e_date int_date --------------------- ------------------- ---------- ---------- ----------- 1 1 2012-01-01 2012-01-04 2012-01-05 1 2 2012-01-05 NULL NULL 2 1 2012-01-10 2012-01-11 NULL students_have_optional_courses Table --- `students_have_optional_courses` --- students_student_id optional_courses_opcourse_id s_date e_date --------------------- ------------------------------ ---------- ---------- 1 1 2012-01-02 2012-01-03 1 1 2012-01-06 NULL 1 5 2012-01-07 NULL Here is my query so far SELECT `students_and_courses`.student_id, `students_and_courses`.first_name, `students_and_courses`.last_name, `students_and_courses`.courses_course_id, `students_and_courses`.s_date, `students_and_courses`.e_date, `students_and_courses`.int_date, `students_have_optional_courses`.optional_courses_opcourse_id, `students_have_optional_courses`.s_date, `students_have_optional_courses`.e_date FROM ( SELECT `c_s_a_s`.student_id, `c_s_a_s`.first_name, `c_s_a_s`.last_name, `c_s_a_s`.courses_course_id, `c_s_a_s`.s_date, `c_s_a_s`.e_date, `c_s_a_s`.int_date FROM ( SELECT `students`.student_id, `students`.first_name, `students`.last_name, `students_have_courses`.courses_course_id, `students_have_courses`.s_date, `students_have_courses`.e_date, `students_have_courses`.int_date FROM `students` LEFT OUTER JOIN `students_have_courses` ON ( `students_have_courses`.`students_student_id` = `students`.`student_id` AND (( `students_have_courses`.`s_date` >= `students`.`status_change_date` AND `students`.current_status = 'Retread' ) OR `students`.current_status = 'Active') ) WHERE `students`.current_status = 'Active' OR `students`.current_status = 'Retread' ) `c_s_a_s` ORDER BY `c_s_a_s`.`courses_course_id` DESC ) `students_and_courses` LEFT OUTER JOIN `students_have_optional_courses` ON ( `students_have_optional_courses`.students_student_id = `students_and_courses`.student_id AND `students_have_optional_courses`.s_date >= `students_and_courses`.s_date AND `students_have_optional_courses`.e_date IS NULL ) GROUP BY `students_and_courses`.student_id; What I want to be returned is the student_id, first_name, and last_name for all Active or Retread students and then LEFT JOIN the highest course_id, s_date, e_date, and int_date for the those students where the s_date is since the status_change_date if status is 'Retread'. Then LEFT JOIN the highest optional_courses_opcourse_id, s_date, and e_date from the students_have_optional_courses TABLE where the students_have_optional_courses.s_date is greater or equal to the students_have_courses.s_date and the students_have_optional_courses.e_date IS NULL Here is what is being returned: student_id first_name last_name courses_course_id s_date e_date int_date optional_courses_opcourse_id s_date_1 e_date_1 ------------ ------------ ----------- ------------------- ---------- ---------- ------------ ------------------------------ ---------- ---------- 1 John Doe 2 2012-01-05 NULL NULL 1 2012-01-06 NULL 2 Jane Doe NULL NULL NULL NULL NULL NULL NULL Here is what I want being returned: student_id first_name last_name courses_course_id s_date e_date int_date optional_courses_opcourse_id s_date_1 e_date_1 ------------ ------------ ----------- ------------------- ---------- ---------- ------------ ------------------------------ ---------- ---------- 1 John Doe 2 2012-01-05 NULL NULL 5 2012-01-07 NULL 2 Jane Doe NULL NULL NULL NULL NULL NULL NULL Everything is working except one thing, I cannot seem to get the highest students_have_optional_courses.optional_courses_opcourse_id no matter how I form the query Sorry, I just solved this myself after writing this all out I think it helped me think of the solution. Here is the solution query: SELECT `students_and_courses`.student_id, `students_and_courses`.first_name, `students_and_courses`.last_name, `students_and_courses`.courses_course_id, `students_and_courses`.s_date, `students_and_courses`.e_date, `students_and_courses`.int_date, `students_optional_courses`.optional_courses_opcourse_id, `students_optional_courses`.s_date, `students_optional_courses`.e_date FROM ( SELECT `c_s_a_s`.student_id, `c_s_a_s`.first_name, `c_s_a_s`.last_name, `c_s_a_s`.courses_course_id, `c_s_a_s`.s_date, `c_s_a_s`.e_date, `c_s_a_s`.int_date FROM ( SELECT `students`.student_id, `students`.first_name, `students`.last_name, `students_have_courses`.courses_course_id, `students_have_courses`.s_date, `students_have_courses`.e_date, `students_have_courses`.int_date FROM `students` LEFT OUTER JOIN `students_have_courses` ON ( `students_have_courses`.`students_student_id` = `students`.`student_id` AND (( `students_have_courses`.`s_date` >= `students`.`status_change_date` AND `students`.current_status = 'Retread' ) OR `students`.current_status = 'Active') ) WHERE `students`.current_status = 'Active' OR `students`.current_status = 'Retread' ) `c_s_a_s` ORDER BY `c_s_a_s`.`courses_course_id` DESC ) `students_and_courses` LEFT OUTER JOIN ( SELECT * FROM `students_have_optional_courses` ORDER BY `students_have_optional_courses`.optional_courses_opcourse_id DESC ) `students_optional_courses` ON ( `students_optional_courses`.students_student_id = `students_and_courses`.student_id AND `students_optional_courses`.s_date >= `students_and_courses`.s_date AND `students_optional_courses`.e_date IS NULL ) GROUP BY `students_and_courses`.student_id;

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  • Strategies for "Always-Connected" Windows Client Data Architecture

    - by magz2010
    Hi. Let me start by saying: this is my 1st post here, this is a bit lenghty, and I havent done Windows Forms development in years....with that in mind please excuse me if this isn't directly a programming question and please bear with me as I really need the help!! I have been asked to develop a Windows Forms app for our company that talks to a central (local area network) Linux Server hosting a PostgreSQL database. The app is to allow users to authenticate themselves into the system and thereafter conduct the usual transactions with the PG database. Ordinarily, I would propose writing a webforms app against Mono, but the clients need to utilise local resources such as USB peripheral devices, so that is out of the question. While it might not seem clear, my questions are italised below: Dilemma #1: The application is meant to be always connected. How should I structure my DAL/BLL - Should this reside on the server or with the client? Dilemma #2: I have been reading up on Client Application Services (CAS), and it seems like a great fit for authentication, as everything is exposed via URIs. I know that a .NET Data Provider exists for PostgreSQL, but not too sure if CAS will all work on a Linux (Debian) server? Believe me, I would get my hands dirty and try myself, but I need to come up with a logical design first before resources are allocated to me for "trial purposes"! Dilemma #3: If the DAL/BLL is to reside on the server, is there any way I can create data services, and expose only these services to authenticated clients. There is a (security) requirement whereby a connection string with username and password to the database cannot be present on any client machines...even if security on the database side is quite rigid. I'm guessing that the only way for this to work would be to create the various CRUD data service methods that are exposed by an ASP.NET app, and have the WindowsForms make a request for data or persist data to the ASP.NET app (thru a URI) and have that return a resultset or value. Would I be correct in assuming this? Should I be looking into WCF Data Services? and will WCF work with a non-SQL Server database? Thank you for taking the time out to read this, but know that I am desperately seeking any advice on this! THANKS A MILLION!!!!

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  • Web SITE publishing, dynamic compilation, smoke & mirrors

    - by tbehunin
    When you publish a web SITE in Visual Studio, in the dialog box that follows, you are given an option to "Allow this precompiled site to be updatable". According to MSDN, checking this option "specifies that all program code is compiled into assemblies, but that .aspx files (including single-file ASP.NET Web pages) are copied as-is to the target folder". With this option checked, you can update existing .aspx files as well as add new ones without any issue. When a page, that has either been updated or newly created, is requested, the page gets dynamically compiled at run-time and is then processed and returned to the user. If, on the other hand, you didn't check that checkbox during the publish phase, the .aspx files get compiled, along with the code-behind and App_Code files in separate assemblies. The .aspx files are then completely overwritten with a line of text that says: This is a marker file generated by the precompilation tool, and should not be deleted! You obviously can't edit an existing page in this scenario. If you were to ADD a new .aspx file to this site, you would get a .Net run-time error saying that the file hasn't been precompiled. With that background, my questions are these: Something must be able to determine that this website was published to be updatable (allow dynamic compilation) or not. If it was published as updatable, it must also be able to determine whether a file was changed or added, so it can do a dynamic compile. Who makes those determinations? IIS? ASP.NET worker process? HOW does it make those determinations? If I had the same website published in both of those scenarios, could I make a visual determination that one is updatable and the other is not? Is there some bit I can look at in the assemblies using Reflector to make that determination myself? In addition to answering those questions, what also might be helpful would be information on the process flow from when a resource is requested to when it starts being processed, not necessarily the ASP.NET Page Lifecycle, but what happens BEFORE ASP.Net worker process starts processing the page and firing off events. The dynamic compilation appears to be smoke and mirrors. Can someone demystify this for me?

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  • Trying to run multiple HTTP requests in parallel, but being limited by Windows (registry)

    - by Nailuj
    I'm developing an application (winforms C# .NET 4.0) where I access a lookup functionality from a 3rd party through a simple HTTP request. I call an url with a parameter, and in return I get a small string with the result of the lookup. Simple enough. The challenge is however, that I have to do lots of these lookups (a couple of thousands), and I would like to limit the time needed. Therefore I would like to run requests in parallel (say 10-20). I use a ThreadPool to do this, and the short version of my code looks like this: public void startAsyncLookup(Action<LookupResult> returnLookupResult) { this.returnLookupResult = returnLookupResult; foreach (string number in numbersToLookup) { ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem(lookupNumber, number); } } public void lookupNumber(Object threadContext) { string numberToLookup = (string)threadContext; string url = @"http://some.url.com/?number=" + numberToLookup; WebClient webClient = new WebClient(); Stream responseData = webClient.OpenRead(url); LookupResult lookupResult = parseLookupResult(responseData); returnLookupResult(lookupResult); } I fill up numbersToLookup (a List<String>) from another place, call startAsyncLookup and provide it with a call-back function returnLookupResult to return each result. This works, but I found that I'm not getting the throughput I want. Initially I thought it might be the 3rd party having a poor system on their end, but I excluded this by trying to run the same code from two different machines at the same time. Each of the two took as long as one did alone, so I could rule out that one. A colleague then tipped me that this might be a limitation in Windows. I googled a bit, and found amongst others this post saying that by default Windows limits the number of simultaneous request to the same web server to 4 for HTTP 1.0 and to 2 for HTTP 1.1 (for HTTP 1.1 this is actually according to the specification (RFC2068)). The same post referred to above also provided a way to increase these limits. By adding two registry values to [HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Internet Settings] (MaxConnectionsPerServer and MaxConnectionsPer1_0Server), I could control this myself. So, I tried this (sat both to 20), restarted my computer, and tried to run my program again. Sadly though, it didn't seem to help any. I also kept an eye on the Resource Monitor (see screen shot) while running my batch lookup, and I noticed that my application (the one with the title blacked out) still only was using two TCP connections. So, the question is, why isn't this working? Is the post I linked to using the wrong registry values? Is this perhaps not possible to "hack" in Windows any longer (I'm on Windows 7)? Any ideas would be highly appreciated :) And just in case anyone should wonder, I have also tried with different settings for MaxThreads on ThreadPool (everyting from 10 to 100), and this didn't seem to affect my throughput at all, so the problem shouldn't be there either.

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  • C strange array behaviour

    - by LukeN
    After learning that both strncmp is not what it seems to be and strlcpy not being available on my operating system (Linux), I figured I could try and write it myself. I found a quote from Ulrich Drepper, the libc maintainer, who posted an alternative to strlcpy using mempcpy. I don't have mempcpy either, but it's behaviour was easy to replicate. First of, this is the testcase I have #include <stdio.h> #include <string.h> #define BSIZE 10 void insp(const char* s, int n) { int i; for (i = 0; i < n; i++) printf("%c ", s[i]); printf("\n"); for (i = 0; i < n; i++) printf("%02X ", s[i]); printf("\n"); return; } int copy_string(char *dest, const char *src, int n) { int r = strlen(memcpy(dest, src, n-1)); dest[r] = 0; return r; } int main() { char b[BSIZE]; memset(b, 0, BSIZE); printf("Buffer size is %d", BSIZE); insp(b, BSIZE); printf("\nFirst copy:\n"); copy_string(b, "First", BSIZE); insp(b, BSIZE); printf("b = '%s'\n", b); printf("\nSecond copy:\n"); copy_string(b, "Second", BSIZE); insp(b, BSIZE); printf("b = '%s'\n", b); return 0; } And this is its result: Buffer size is 10 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 First copy: F i r s t b = 46 69 72 73 74 00 62 20 3D 00 b = 'First' Second copy: S e c o n d 53 65 63 6F 6E 64 00 00 01 00 b = 'Second' You can see in the internal representation (the lines insp() created) that there's some noise mixed in, like the printf() format string in the inspection after the first copy, and a foreign 0x01 in the second copy. The strings are copied intact and it correctly handles too long source strings (let's ignore the possible issue with passing 0 as length to copy_string for now, I'll fix that later). But why are there foreign array contents (from the format string) inside my destination? It's as if the destination was actually RESIZED to match the new length.

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  • Good design of mapping Java Domain objects to Tables (using Hibernate)

    - by M. McKenzie
    Hey guys, I have a question that is more in the realm of design, than implementation. I'm also happy for anyone to point out resources for the answer and I'll gladly, research for myself. Highly simplified Java and SQL: Say I have a business domain POJO called 'Picture' with three attributes. class Picture int idPicture String fileName long size Say I have another business domain POJO called "Item" with 3 attributes Class Item int idItem String itemName ArrayList itemPictures These would be a normal simple relationship. You could say that 'Picture' object, will never exist outside an 'Item' object. Assume a picture belongs only to a specific item, but that an item can have multiple pictures Now - using good database design (3rd Normal Form), we know that we should put items and pictures in their own tables. Here is what I assume would be correct. table Item int idItem (primary key) String itemName table Picture int idPicture (primary key) varchar(45) fileName long size int idItem (foreign key) Here is my question: If you are making Hibernate mapping files for these objects. In the data design, your Picture table needs a column to refer to the Item, so that a foreign key relation can be maintained. However,in your business domain objects - your Picture does not hold a reference/attribute to the idItem - and does not need to know it. A java Picture instance is always instantiated inside an Item instance. If you want to know the Item that the Picture belongs to you are already in the correct scope. Call myItem.getIdItem() and myItem.getItemPictures(),and you have the two pieces of information you need. I know that Hibernate tools have a generator that can auto make your POJO's from looking at your database. My problem stems from the fact that I planned out the data design for this experiment/project first. Then when I went to make the domain java objects, I realized that good design dictated that the objects hold other objects in a nested way. This is obviously different from the way that a database schema is - where all objects(tables) are flat and hold no other complex types within them. What is a good way to reconcile this? Would you: (A) Make the hibernate mapping files so that Picture.hbm.xml has a mapping to the POJO parent's idItem Field (if it's even possible) (B) Add an int attribute in the Picture class to refer to the idItem and set it at instantiation, thus simplifying the hbm.xml mapping file by having all table fields as local attributes in the class (C) Fix the database design because it is wrong, dork. I'd truly appreciate any feedback

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  • Wordpress installed in root folder, subdomain now not working, GoDaddy host

    - by Kristin
    Hi, please forgive me for being a complete beginner at this, I'd rather not have to try to deal with this myself but as GoDaddy support have not replied after 2 days I'm going to have to. I think my problem is the same as the one above, but I'm not 100% sure, so I'm reposting it, I'm not really confident enough to attempt to try the fixes I've seen here so I need someone to give me baby instructions? Our original website (www.mwpics.com.au) was built in Dreamweaver etc, recently we created a new website in Wordpress, in a subdomain, then migrated it over to the root folder where it is now operating fine. I also moved the files for the old website into another directory which I called 'old', so they're all still there. The problem is that I have a subdomain set up - which is still showing as set up in the control panel on godaddy the url is www.mwpics.com.au/clients and it is at www.clients.mwpics.com.au. This directory contains loads of other directories, each of which is password protected by .htaccess files and which our clients access directly (not through the site) to download their finished work. The test one and the one for random clients is www.mwpics.com.au/clients/temp - username and password both temp (the usernames are all the same as the directory names). Since the WP install to the root directory the /clients extension no longer works (it should bring up an information page which is an .html index page in the directory) and the /clients/name extensions no longer works - it goes back to the wp site with a 'not found' error message. Strangely it does bring up the box for the username and password, but when you enter it it just goes back to the 'not found' message. Someone told me it was the .htaccess file - so as an experiment, I renamed the .htaccess file in the root directory and then copied the .htaccess file from the old root files into the root directory, eureka! It worked - and also the WP site opened to the home page... but bummer - the /pages in the WP site now no longer worked! But at least I know the source of the problem. So I switched it back and this is the status quo - I have no idea how to fix this, and with everyone back at work tomorrow, clients are going to want to start downloading their stuff... Can anyone help me? I'm starting to panic a bit

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  • mod_rewrite not working for a specific directory

    - by punkish
    This has got me completely foxed for a couple of days now, and I am convinced that I will look stupid once I solve it, but will be even stupider if I don't ask for help now. I have mod_rewrite working successfully on my localhost (no vhosts involved; this is my laptop, my development machine), and I use .htaccess in various directories to help rewrite crufty URLs to clean ones. EXCEPT... it doesn't work in one directory. Since it is impossible to reproduce my entire laptop in this question, I provide the following details. In my httpd.conf, I have mod_rewrite.so loaded. LoadModule rewrite_module modules/mod_rewrite.so In my httpd.conf, I have included another conf file like so Include /usr/local/apache2/conf/other/punkish.conf In my punkish.conf, I have directories defined like so DocumentRoot "/Users/punkish/Sites" <Directory "/Users/punkish/Sites"> Options ExecCGI AllowOverride None Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> <Directory "/Users/punkish/Sites/one"> Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride All Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> <Directory "/Users/punkish/Sites/two"> Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride All Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> In ~/Sites/one I have the following .htaccess file RewriteEngine On RewriteBase /one/ # If an actual file or directory is requested, serve directly RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d # Otherwise, pass everything through to the dispatcher RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.cgi/$1 [L,QSA] and, everything works just fine. However, in my directory ~/Sites/two I have the following .htaccess file RewriteEngine On RewriteBase /two/ # If an actual file or directory is requested, serve directly RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d # Otherwise, pass everything through to the dispatcher RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.cgi/$1 [L,QSA] and, nothing works. Nada. Zip. Zilch. I just get a 404. I have determined that mod_rewrite is not even looking at my ~/Sites/two/.htaccess by putting spurious commands in it and not getting any error other than 404. Another confounding issue -- I have turned on RewriteLog in my httpd.conf with RewriteLogLevel 3, but my rewrite_log is completely empty. I know this is hard to trouble shoot unless sitting physically at the computer in question, but I hope someone can give me some indication as to what is going on. **Update: ** There are no aliases involved anywhere. This is my laptop, and everything is under the above stated Document Root, so I just access each directory as http://localhost/. Yes, typos are a big possibility (I did say that I will look stupid once I solve it, however, for now, I have not discovered a single typo anywhere, and yes, I have restarted Apache about a dozen times now. I even thought that perhaps I had two different Apaches running, but no, I have only one, the one under /usr/local/apache2, and I installed it myself a while back.

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  • Rails learn's confusion

    - by Steve
    This is a beginner's rails learning confusion. When I learn rails, from time to time, I feel frustrated on rails' principle "Convention over Configuration". Rails uses heavily on conventions. A lot of them are just naming conventions. If I forget a convention, I will either use the wrong naming and get unexpected result or get things magically done but don't understand how. Sometimes, I think of configuration. At least configuration lists everything clearly and nothing is in fog. In rails, there seems a hidden, dark contract between you and the machine. If you follow the contract, you communicate well. But a beginner usually forgets items listed on the contract and this usually leads to confusion. That's why when I first pick up rails, I feel like it is somehow difficult to learn. Besides, there are many other things that could be new to a learner, such as using git, using plugins from community, using RESTful routing style, using RSpec. All these are new and come together in learning ruby and rails. This definitely adds up difficulties for a beginner. In contrast, if you learn php, it wouldn't be that bad. You can forget many things and focus on learning php itself. You don't need to learn database handling if you know SQL already(in rails, you need to learn a whole new concept migration), you don't have to learn a new decent unit test(in rails, usually they teach RSpec along the way because rails is agile and you should learn test-driven development in the early learning stage), you don't have to learn a new version control(in rails, you will be taught about git anyway), you don't have to use complicated plugins(in rails, they usually use third-party plugins in textbook examples! what the hell? why not teach how to do a simplified similar thing in rails?), you don't have to worry RESTful style. All in all, when I learn php, I learn it quick and soon I start to write things myself. Learning php is similar to learning C/java. It tastes like those traditional languages. When I learn rails, it is more difficult. And I need to learn ruby as well (I believe many of you learn ruby just because of rails). Does anyone have the similar feeling as I have? How do you overcome it and start to master rails? Hints will be welcomed. Thank you.

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  • I need help converting a C# string from one character encoding to another?

    - by Handleman
    According to Spolsky I can't call myself a developer, so there is a lot of shame behind this question... Scenario: From a C# application, I would like to take a string value from a SQL db and use it as the name of a directory. I have a secure (SSL) FTP server on which I want to set the current directory using the string value from the DB. Problem: Everything is working fine until I hit a string value with a "special" character - I seem unable to encode the directory name correctly to satisfy the FTP server. The code example below uses "special" character é as an example uses WinSCP as an external application for the ftps comms does not show all the code required to setup the Process "_winscp". sends commands to the WinSCP exe by writing to the process standardinput for simplicity, does not get the info from the DB, but instead simply declares a string (but I did do a .Equals to confirm that the value from the DB is the same as the declared string) makes three attempts to set the current directory on the FTP server using different string encodings - all of which fail makes an attempt to set the directory using a string that was created from a hand-crafted byte array - which works Process _winscp = new Process(); byte[] buffer; string nameFromString = "Sinéad O'Connor"; _winscp.StandardInput.WriteLine("cd \"" + nameFromString + "\""); buffer = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(nameFromString); _winscp.StandardInput.WriteLine("cd \"" + Encoding.UTF8.GetString(buffer) + "\""); buffer = Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes(nameFromString); _winscp.StandardInput.WriteLine("cd \"" + Encoding.ASCII.GetString(buffer) + "\""); byte[] nameFromBytes = new byte[] { 83, 105, 110, 130, 97, 100, 32, 79, 39, 67, 111, 110, 110, 111, 114 }; _winscp.StandardInput.WriteLine("cd \"" + Encoding.Default.GetString(nameFromBytes) + "\""); The UTF8 encoding changes é to 101 (decimal) but the FTP server doesn't like it. The ASCII encoding changes é to 63 (decimal) but the FTP server doesn't like it. When I represent é as value 130 (decimal) the FTP server is happy, except I can't find a method that will do this for me (I had to manually contruct the string from explicit bytes). Anyone know what I should do to my string to encode the é as 130 and make the FTP server happy and finally elevate me to level 1 developer by explaining the only single thing a developer should understand?

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  • Simplifying const Overloading?

    - by templatetypedef
    Hello all- I've been teaching a C++ programming class for many years now and one of the trickiest things to explain to students is const overloading. I commonly use the example of a vector-like class and its operator[] function: template <typename T> class Vector { public: T& operator[] (size_t index); const T& operator[] (size_t index) const; }; I have little to no trouble explaining why it is that two versions of the operator[] function are needed, but in trying to explain how to unify the two implementations together I often find myself wasting a lot of time with language arcana. The problem is that the only good, reliable way that I know how to implement one of these functions in terms of the other is with the const_cast/static_cast trick: template <typename T> const T& Vector<T>::operator[] (size_t index) const { /* ... your implementation here ... */ } template <typename T> T& Vector<T>::operator[] (size_t index) { return const_cast<T&>(static_cast<const Vector&>(*this)[index]); } The problem with this setup is that it's extremely tricky to explain and not at all intuitively obvious. When you explain it as "cast to const, then call the const version, then strip off constness" it's a little easier to understand, but the actual syntax is frightening,. Explaining what const_cast is, why it's appropriate here, and why it's almost universally inappropriate elsewhere usually takes me five to ten minutes of lecture time, and making sense of this whole expression often requires more effort than the difference between const T* and T* const. I feel that students need to know about const-overloading and how to do it without needlessly duplicating the code in the two functions, but this trick seems a bit excessive in an introductory C++ programming course. My question is this - is there a simpler way to implement const-overloaded functions in terms of one another? Or is there a simpler way of explaining this existing trick to students? Thanks so much!

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  • Android browser touch events stop display being updated inc. canvas/elements - How to work around?

    - by Ed Kirk
    On some android's native browser touching the page seems to stop the display from being updated until the finger is released. This occurs for both html element based animation (switching classes) and for canvas based animation. It does not however stop normal js execution and other events are fired as normal. On devices with this problem the dolphin browser also seems effected (not firefox though). Touchstart/move both have preventDefault() fired as well as stopPropergation(), cancelBubble = true; and e.returnValue = false;. In the CSS webkit selection has also been disabled. The page will not scroll. A similar question has been asked here: Does Android browser lock DOM on touchStart? but I'd like to find out if this behaviour can be overcome, or at least to discover what devices will be effected by the problem, is it a device or version android issue? If you cannot answer the question running the demo and reporting your experience along with your device model and useragent (displayed at bottom of demo page) as a comment might help others or myself answer the question. Here is a demo and steps to reproduce the behaviour. A QR code for the link can be found here https://s3-eu-west-1.amazonaws.com/canvas-test-pd/tmp.png. https://s3-eu-west-1.amazonaws.com/canvas-test-pd/index.html The web page has a canvas at the top and a div with a background image at the bottom. Every second the canvas is cleared and a different image displayed and the div has it's class switched (both toggle between 0 and 1 pngs). Once this has toggled a few times place your finger on the canvas (the top grey box) and hold it there. Wait to see if the animation continues (sometimes it will once or twice then stops) and if there are any visual distortions. Update It seems that the Galaxy Tab running 3.2 requires handlers for touchstart/end of document, not just required divs for the screen to continue updating the display. Thanks jimpic. I'm starting to believe it's an issue caused by manufacturers skins, although this is difficult to prove.

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  • Problem persisting inheritance tree

    - by alaiseca
    I have a problem trying to map an inheritance tree. A simplified version of my model is like this: @MappedSuperclass @Embeddable public class BaseEmbedded implements Serializable { @Column(name="BE_FIELD") private String beField; // Getters and setters follow } @MappedSuperclass @Embeddable public class DerivedEmbedded extends BaseEmbedded { @Column(name="DE_FIELD") private String deField; // Getters and setters follow } @MappedSuperclass public abstract class BaseClass implements Serializable { @Embedded protected BaseEmbedded embedded; public BaseClass() { this.embedded = new BaseEmbedded(); } // Getters and setters follow } @Entity @Table(name="MYTABLE") @Inheritance(strategy=InheritanceType.SINGLE_TABLE) @DiscriminatorColumn(name="TYPE", discriminatorType=DiscriminatorType.STRING) public class DerivedClass extends BaseClass { @Id @Column(name="ID", nullable=false) private Long id; @Column(name="TYPE", nullable=false, insertable=false, updatable=false) private String type; public DerivedClass() { this.embedded = new DerivedClass(); } // Getters and setters follow } @Entity @DiscriminatorValue("A") public class DerivedClassA extends DerivedClass { @Embeddable public static NestedClassA extends DerivedEmbedded { @Column(name="FIELD_CLASS_A") private String fieldClassA; } public DerivedClassA() { this.embedded = new NestedClassA(); } // Getters and setters follow } @Entity @DiscriminatorValue("B") public class DerivedClassB extends DerivedClass { @Embeddable public static NestedClassB extends DerivedEmbedded { @Column(name="FIELD_CLASS_B") private String fieldClassB; } public DerivedClassB() { this.embedded = new NestedClassB(); } // Getters and setters follow } At Java level, this model is working fine, and I believe is the appropriate one. My problem comes up when it's time to persist an object. At runtime, I can create an object which could be an instance of DerivedClass, DerivedClassA or DerivedClassB. As you can see, each one of the derived classes introduces a new field which only makes sense for that specific derived class. All the classes share the same physical table in the database. If I persist an object of type DerivedClass, I expect fields BE_FIELD, DE_FIELD, ID and TYPE to be persisted with their values and the remaining fields to be null. If I persist an object of type DerivedClass A, I expect those same fields plus the FIELD_CLASS_A field to be persisted with their values and field FIELD_CLASS_B to be null. Something equivalent for an object of type DerivedClassB. Since the @Embedded annotation is at the BaseClass only, Hibernate is only persisting the fields up to that level in the tree. I don't know how to tell Hibernate that I want to persist up to the appropriate level in the tree, depending on the actual type of the embedded property. I cannot have another @Embedded property in the subclasses since this would duplicate data that is already present in the superclass and would also break the Java model. I cannot declare the embedded property to be of a more specific type either, since it's only at runtime when the actual object is created and I don't have a single branch in the hierarchy. Is it possible to solve my problem? Or should I resignate myself to accept that there is no way to persist the Java model as it is? Any help will be greatly appreciated.

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  • Internet Explorer 8 + Deflate

    - by Andreas Bonini
    I have a very weird problem.. I really do hope someone has an answer because I wouldn't know where else to ask. I am writing a cgi application in C++ which is executed by Apache and outputs HTML code. I am compressing the HTML output myself - from within my C++ application - since my web host doesn't support mod_deflate for some reason. I tested this with Firefox 2, Firefox 3, Opera 9, Opera 10, Google Chrome, Safari, IE6, IE7, IE8, even wget.. It works with ANYTHING except IE8. IE8 just says "Internet Explorer cannot display the webpage", with no information whatsoever. I know it's because of the compression only because it works if I disable it. Do you know what I'm doing wrong? I use zlib to compress it, and the exact code is: /* Compress it */ int compressed_output_size = content.length() + (content.length() * 0.2) + 16; char *compressed_output = (char *)Alloc(compressed_output_size); int compressed_output_length; Compress(compressed_output, compressed_output_size, (void *)content.c_str(), content.length(), &compressed_output_length); /* Send the compressed header */ cout << "Content-Encoding: deflate\r\n"; cout << boost::format("Content-Length: %d\r\n") % compressed_output_length; cgiHeaderContentType("text/html"); cout.write(compressed_output, compressed_output_length); static void Compress(void *to, size_t to_size, void *from, size_t from_size, int *final_size) { int ret; z_stream stream; stream.zalloc = Z_NULL; stream.zfree = Z_NULL; stream.opaque = Z_NULL; if ((ret = deflateInit(&stream, CompressionSpeed)) != Z_OK) COMPRESSION_ERROR("deflateInit() failed: %d", ret); stream.next_out = (Bytef *)to; stream.avail_out = (uInt)to_size; stream.next_in = (Bytef *)from; stream.avail_in = (uInt)from_size; if ((ret = deflate(&stream, Z_NO_FLUSH)) != Z_OK) COMPRESSION_ERROR("deflate() failed: %d", ret); if (stream.avail_in != 0) COMPRESSION_ERROR("stream.avail_in is not 0 (it's %d)", stream.avail_in); if ((ret = deflate(&stream, Z_FINISH)) != Z_STREAM_END) COMPRESSION_ERROR("deflate() failed: %d", ret); if ((ret = deflateEnd(&stream)) != Z_OK) COMPRESSION_ERROR("deflateEnd() failed: %d", ret); if (final_size) *final_size = stream.total_out; return; }

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  • Is it possible to create a service like Feed My Inbox on my own server?

    - by Mark Bowen
    I was just wondering if it's at all possible to create a service like Feed My Inbox on my own server using PHP? Basically I have a site which has RSS feeds which are dynamic in nature and can search from thousands of posts based on many different criteria. I have the RSS feed working fine and bringing back data dynamically for whatever criteria I want so that bits fine. I am using the ExpressionEngine CMS to handle the site and there will be thousands of users on the site (currently there are around 2,0000) but that number is exponentially growing every single day. What I want to be able to do is allow the users to choose from certain criteria which will then build a dynamic RSS URL which will then be stored in a database table (one row for each user). This bit I will be able to do myself but then I want to be able to send out new RSS feed items via e-mail to each user. This is the part I'm a little stuck on. I'm guessing I would somehow need to run a cron job to hit a page which would check each users RSS feed and then if there are new items to send them to the user via e-mail. That's where I am totally stuck though and I'm just wondering what the best way to go about it would be? That or any software in PHP that already does this sort of thing would be great. I tried out phpList but it has severe problems working with RSS and I only ever got it to work once and now never again and I've read that lots of people have had this same problem so unfortunately it's not just me :-( I know there are services such as Feed My Inbox which I could easily set up so that users click a link and their RSS feed URL is added to go and use that service but I want to keep users from seeing the dynamic nature of the feed or they will easily be able to modify it to get at other items in the feed. I need this so that I can charge for access to the feeds but if people can see the URL of the feed then I will be totally unstuck as they will be able to get at whatever they want very easily. Therefore I'd like to be able to send the items out to them. Would really love to hear if anyone knows if this kind of thing is possible at all and what would be involved?

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  • how to deal with the position in a c# stream

    - by CapsicumDreams
    The (entire) documentation for the position property on a stream says: When overridden in a derived class, gets or sets the position within the current stream. The Position property does not keep track of the number of bytes from the stream that have been consumed, skipped, or both. That's it. OK, so we're fairly clear on what it doesn't tell us, but I'd really like to know what it in fact does stand for. What is 'the position' for? Why would we want to alter or read it? If we change it - what happens? In a pratical example, I have a a stream that periodically gets written to, and I have a thread that attempts to read from it (ideally ASAP). From reading many SO issues, I reset the position field to zero to start my reading. Once this is done: Does this affect where the writer to this stream is going to attempt to put the data? Do I need to keep track of the last write position myself? (ie if I set the position to zero to read, does the writer begin to overwrite everything from the first byte?) If so, do I need a semaphore/lock around this 'position' field (subclassing, perhaps?) due to my two threads accessing it? If I don't handle this property, does the writer just overflow the buffer? Perhaps I don't understand the Stream itself - I'm regarding it as a FIFO pipe: shove data in at one end, and suck it out at the other. If it's not like this, then do I have to keep copying the data past my last read (ie from position 0x84 on) back to the start of my buffer? I've seriously tried to research all of this for quite some time - but I'm new to .NET. Perhaps the Streams have a long, proud (undocumented) history that everyone else implicitly understands. But for a newcomer, it's like reading the manual to your car, and finding out: The accelerator pedal affects the volume of fuel and air sent to the fuel injectors. It does not affect the volume of the entertainment system, or the air pressure in any of the tires, if fitted. Technically true, but seriously, what we want to know is that if we mash it to the floor you go faster..

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