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• NoSuchMethod exception thrown in GWT

  - by eb1

  I'm starting to get my feet wet in the latest Google Web Toolkit using the Eclipse plugin on OS X 10.5.8. So far I've been able to get the client up and running, which is great. The server, though, is a different matter. I'm trying to link to a .jar file that has some classes I want to use in a server ServiceImpl class, but it seems to have glommed onto a previous iteration of the .jar - I've added a method, rebuilt the jar, removed the jar from the libraries tab on the GWT project's build path (as well as on the exports) and reincluded the jar. No luck - I'm still getting: [WARN] Exception while dispatching incoming RPC call com.google.gwt.user.server.rpc.UnexpectedException: Service method 'public abstract org.gwtapplication.client.LWDocument org.gwtapplication.client.DocumentService.getDocument()' threw an unexpected exception: java.lang.NoSuchMethodError: org.externalmodel.MyReallyValidClass.toSomething()Ljava/lang/String; at com.google.gwt.user.server.rpc.RPC.encodeResponseForFailure(RPC.java:378) at com.google.gwt.user.server.rpc.RPC.invokeAndEncodeResponse(RPC.java:581) ... Caused by: java.lang.NoSuchMethodError: org.externalmodel.MyReallyValidClass.toSomething()Ljava/lang/String; at org.application.server.DocumentServiceImpl.getDocument(DocumentServiceImpl.java:45) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) Eclipse's code sense has no problems resolving the MyReallyValidClass.toSomething() call, and there are no errors with other calls into the externalmodel classes. Any clue where I should be looking?

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• AutoMapper How To Map Object A To Object B Differently Depending On Context

  - by IanT8

  Calling all AutoMapper gurus! I'd like to be able to map object A to object B differently depending on context at runtime. In particular, I'd like to ignore certain properties in one mapping case, and have all properties mapped in another case. What I'm experiencing is that Mapper.CreateMap can be called successfully in the different mapping cases however, once CreateMap is called, the map for a particular pair of types is set and is not subsequently changed by succeeding CreateMap calls which might describe the mapping differently. I found a blog post which advocates Mapper.Reset() to get round the problem, however, the static nature of the Mapper class means that it is only a matter of time before a collision and crash occur. Is there a way to do this? What I think I need is to call Mapper.CreateMap once per appdomain, and later, be able to call Mapper.Map with hints about which properties should be included / excluded. Right now, I'm thinking about changing the source code by writing a non-static mapping class that holds the mapping config instance based. Poor performance, but thread safe. What are my options. What can be done? Automapper seems so promising.

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• My Android ListView item layout looks terrible

  - by jnylen

  I wanted to create a layout like the CyanogenMod call log in that there is a list item and a call button on the left which gets focus separately (screenshot). Instead, I get this mess. Here's my code: <RelativeLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:minHeight="?android:attr/listPreferredItemHeight" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:paddingLeft="4dip" > <DontPressWithParentImageView android:id="@+id/play_icon" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:paddingLeft="14dip" android:paddingRight="14dip" android:layout_alignParentRight="true" android:gravity="center_vertical" android:src="@drawable/sym_play" android:background="@drawable/play_background" /> <View android:id="@+id/divider" android:layout_width="1px" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:layout_marginTop="5dip" android:layout_marginBottom="5dip" android:layout_toLeftOf="@id/play_icon" android:layout_marginLeft="2dip" android:background="@drawable/divider_vertical_dark" /> <TextView android:id="@+id/file_info" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_alignParentBottom="true" android:layout_marginBottom="8dip" android:layout_marginTop="-10dip" android:layout_marginLeft="10dip" android:layout_alignWithParentIfMissing="true" android:singleLine="true" android:ellipsize="marquee" android:textAppearance="?android:attr/textAppearanceSmall" android:textStyle="bold" /> <TextView android:id="@+id/file_title" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_alignParentTop="true" android:layout_above="@id/file_info" android:layout_alignWithParentIfMissing="true" android:layout_marginBottom="-10dip" android:layout_marginLeft="4dip" android:textAppearance="?android:attr/textAppearanceLarge" android:singleLine="true" android:ellipsize="marquee" android:gravity="center_vertical" /> </RelativeLayout> For reference, the code I started with is here and here, and the source to DontPressWithParentImageView is here (but as you can see from my screenshot, that part is working). What am I doing wrong?

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• .NET socket timeout - blocking on Close method

  - by Mark

  I'm having trouble implementing a connect timeout using asynchronous socket calls. The idea being that I call BeginConnect on a Socket object, then use a timer to call Close() on the socket after a timeout period has elapsed. This works fine as long as the socket is created on the GUI thread - the Close method returns immediately, and the callback method is executed. However, if the socket is created on any other thread, the Close method blocks until the default IP timeout occurs. Code to reproduce: private Socket client; private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Creating the socket on a threadpool thread causes Close to block. ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem((object state) => { client = new Socket(AddressFamily.InterNetwork, SocketType.Stream, ProtocolType.Tcp); IAsyncResult result = client.BeginConnect(IPAddress.Parse("144.1.1.1"), 23, new AsyncCallback(CallbackMethod), client); // Wait for 2 seconds before closing the socket. if (result.AsyncWaitHandle.WaitOne(2000)) { MessageBox.Show("Connected."); } else { MessageBox.Show("Timed out. Closing socket..."); client.Close(); MessageBox.Show("Socket closed."); } }); } private void CallbackMethod(IAsyncResult result) { MessageBox.Show("Callback started."); Socket client = result.AsyncState as Socket; try { client.EndConnect(result); } catch (ObjectDisposedException) { } MessageBox.Show("Callback finished."); } If you remove the QueueUserWorkItem line, creating the socket on the GUI thread, the socket closes instantly without blocking. Can anyone shed some light on what's going on? Thanks. Edit - System.Net trace output seems to be different depending on whether it's being connected on the GUI thread or a different thread: Trace from non-blocking close when using GUI thread Trace from blocking close when using non-GUI thread

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• Help with route rewrite in asp.net mvc

  - by NachoF

  Im having a really hard time understanding routing. Please help me with this problem. Each of my controllers have these three actions right now Users have Index, Create and Edit Locations have Index, Create and Edit Companies have Index, Create and Edit The thing is, it all gets done through ajax. I have jquery ui tabs with two tabs for each, Create and Edit So the Index method is always the one that gets called for action links. and inside this main view is that you can call(by clicking on the tab icon) the other methods that return an ajax view that gets output into the jqeury tab (I hope thats clear) I have a sidebar with links to the controllers. and to specific methods of these controllers. The wanted behavior is that it should actually go into the Index Method and then with some logic autoload the wanted tab. It all works just fine right now. But my urls are horrible. To get to the create method for Users I have to go this url http://localhost/Users/Index/1 http://localhost/Users/Index/2 I want the behavior of these links to be remapped to these links http://localhost/Users/Create http://localhost/Users/Edit So even though it seems as if you are calling the Create method of the controller you are actualling always calling the Index Method.... (I know how to transform Create into "1" and Edit into two, so dont worry about that part Hope thats clear. Thanks in advance Edit: Just realized that this might not be possible cause then when I actually need to call the methods (with ajax) it wont know what to do.... am I correct?

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• Gmail like URL scheme

  - by Varun

  I am working on a ticket system, having the following requirement: The home page is divided into two sections: Sec-1. Some filter options are shown here.(like closed-tickets, open-tickets, all-tickets, tickets-assigned-to-me etc.). You can select one or more of these filters. sec-2. List of tickets satisfying above filters will be displayed here. Now this is what I want: As I change the filters -- the change should be reflected in the URL, so that one is able to bookmark it. -- an ajax request will go and list of tickets satisfying the selected filters will be updated in sec-2. I want the same code to be used to load the tickets in both ways- (a) by selecting that set of filters and (b) by using the bookmark to reload the page. I have little idea on how to do it: The URL will contain the selected filters.(appended after #) changing filters on the page will modify the hash part of URL and call a function (say ajaxHandler()) to parse the URL to get the filters and then make an ajax request to get the list of tickets to be displayed in section2. and I will call the same function ajaxHandler() in window.onload. I feel this is what Yahoo maps does. What's the best way to implement such URL scheme? Am I headed in the right direction?

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• Web service SSL handshake fails in production environment unless SSL debugging enabled

  - by JST

  Scenario: calling a client web service over SSL (https) with mutual SSL authentication. Different service endpoint URLs and certs (both keystore and truststore) for test vs. production environments. Both test and production environments run tomcat / JBoss clustered. Production environment has load balancing / BigIP, runs Blade and non-Blade machines. Truststore is set (using -Djavax.net.ssl.trustStore=value) at startup. Keystore is set using System.setProperty("javax.net.ssl.keyStore", "value") in Java code. Web service call made using Axis2. All works fine in test environment, but when we moved to production environment (6 servers), it appears certs are not being forwarded for the handshake. Here's what we've done: in test environment, handshake using test versions of certs has been working all along, with no ssl debugging enabled confirmed in test environment that handshake with client production endpoint succeeds (production certs, both ours and theirs, are fine) -- this was done using -Djavax.net.debug=handshake,ssl confirmed that the error condition occurs on all 6 production servers took one server out of the cluster, turned on ssl debugging for just that one (with a restart), hit it directly, handshake works! switched to a different server without the debugging turned on, handshake error condition occurs turned debugging on on that second server (with a restart), hit it directly, handshake works! From the evidence, it seems like somehow the debugging being enabled causes the certificates to be properly retrieved/conveyed, although that makes no sense! I wonder whether somehow the enabled debugging makes the system pay attention to the System.setProperty call, and ignore it otherwise. However, in local and test environments, handshake worked without debugging enabled. Do I maybe need to be setting keystore on server startup like I'm setting truststore? Have been avoiding that because the keystore will differ for each of our test environments (16 of them).

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• NSIS takes ownership of IIS system files

  - by Lucas

  I recently encountered an issue with NSIS that I believe is related to an interaction with UAC, but I am at a loss to explain it and I do not know how to prevent it in the future. I have an installer that creates and removes IIS virtual directories using the NsisIIS plugin. The installer appeared worked correctly on my Windows 7 workstation. When the installer was run on a Windows 2008 R2 server it installed properly, but the uninstaller removed all of the virtual directories and put IIS is an unusable state; to the point that I had to remove the Default Web Site and re-add it. What I eventually found was that all of the IIS configuration files under C:\Windows\System32\inetsrv\config had a lock icon on them. Some investigation seem to indicate that this means a user account has taken ownership of the file, however all the files listed SYSTEM as the file owner. I did check a different server that I have not run the installer on, and it does not have the lock icon applied to the IIS files. I have also seen the same lock icon appear on other files that the NSIS installer creates. For instance, I have a Web.Config.tpl file that is processed using the NSIS ReplaceInFile which also appears with the lock icon after the installer finished. After I explicitly grant another user account access to the file, the lock icon goes away. I run the installer under the local Administrator account on the 2008 R2 server, so I do not get the UAC prompt. Here is the relevant code from the install.nsi file RequestExecutionLevel admin Section "Application" APP_SECTION SectionIn RO Call InstallApp SectionEnd Section "un.Uninstaller Section" Delete "$PROGRAMFILES\${PROGRAMFILESDIR}\Uninstall.exe" Call un.InstallApp SectionEnd Function InstallApp File /oname=Web.Config Web.Config.tpl !insertmacro ReplaceInFile Web.Config %CONNECTION_STRING% $CONNECTION_STRING FunctionEnd Function un.InstallApp ReadRegStr $0 HKLM "Software\${REGKEY}" "VirtualDir" NsisIIS::DeleteVDir "$0" Pop $0 FunctionEnd I have three questions stemming from this incident: How did this happen? How can I fix my installer to prevent it from happening again? How can I repair the permissions on the IIS config files.

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• Installing Grails with Apache Camel plugin

  - by Abdullah Jibaly

  I'm having trouble getting the Apache Camel plugin to run in grails-1.1.1. Here's the steps I took: $ grails create-app camelapp Welcome to Grails 1.1.1 - http://grails.org/ ... $ cd camelapp $ grails run-app ... Running Grails application.. Server running. Browse to http://localhost:8080/camelapp $ grails install-plugin camel ... Camel Route directory was created. Plugin camel-0.2 installed Plug-in provides the following new scripts: ------------------------------------------ grails create-route $ grails run-app ... [groovyc] org.codehaus.groovy.control.MultipleCompilationErrorsException: startup failed, Compile error during compilation with javac. [groovyc] /Users/abdullah/.grails/1.1.1/projects/camelapp/plugins/camel-0.2/src/java/org/ix/grails/plugins/camel/ClosureProcessor.java:22: method does not override a method from its superclass [groovyc] @Override [groovyc] ^ ... : Compilation Failed at org.codehaus.groovy.ant.Groovyc.compile(Groovyc.java:807) at org.codehaus.groovy.ant.Groovyc.execute(Groovyc.java:540) at org.apache.tools.ant.dispatch.DispatchUtils.execute(DispatchUtils.java:105) at org.apache.tools.ant.Task.perform(Task.java:348) at _GrailsCompile_groovy$_run_closure3_closure7.doCall(_GrailsCompile_groovy:102) at _GrailsCompile_groovy$_run_closure3_closure7.doCall(_GrailsCompile_groovy) at _GrailsSettings_groovy$_run_closure10.doCall(_GrailsSettings_groovy:274) at _GrailsSettings_groovy$_run_closure10.call(_GrailsSettings_groovy) at _GrailsCompile_groovy$_run_closure3.doCall(_GrailsCompile_groovy:89) at _GrailsCompile_groovy$_run_closure2.doCall(_GrailsCompile_groovy:55) at _GrailsPackage_groovy$_run_closure2_closure9.doCall(_GrailsPackage_groovy:79) at _GrailsPackage_groovy$_run_closure2_closure9.doCall(_GrailsPackage_groovy) at _GrailsSettings_groovy$_run_closure10.doCall(_GrailsSettings_groovy:274) at _GrailsSettings_groovy$_run_closure10.call(_GrailsSettings_groovy) at _GrailsPackage_groovy$_run_closure2.doCall(_GrailsPackage_groovy:78) at RunApp$_run_closure1.doCall(RunApp.groovy:28) at gant.Gant$_dispatch_closure4.doCall(Gant.groovy:324) at gant.Gant$_dispatch_closure6.doCall(Gant.groovy:334) at gant.Gant$_dispatch_closure6.doCall(Gant.groovy) at gant.Gant.withBuildListeners(Gant.groovy:344) at gant.Gant.this$2$withBuildListeners(Gant.groovy) at gant.Gant$this$2$withBuildListeners.callCurrent(Unknown Source) at gant.Gant.dispatch(Gant.groovy:334) at gant.Gant.this$2$dispatch(Gant.groovy) at gant.Gant.invokeMethod(Gant.groovy) at gant.Gant.processTargets(Gant.groovy:495) at gant.Gant.processTargets(Gant.groovy:480) Caused by: org.codehaus.groovy.control.MultipleCompilationErrorsException: startup failed, Compile error during compilation with javac. /Users/abdullah/.grails/1.1.1/projects/camelapp/plugins/camel-0.2/src/java/org/ix/grails/plugins/camel/ClosureProcessor.java:22: method does not override a method from its superclass @Override ^ ... Compilation error: Compilation Failed $ java -version java version "1.6.0_07" Java(TM) SE Runtime Environment (build 1.6.0_07-b06-153) Java HotSpot(TM) 64-Bit Server VM (build 1.6.0_07-b06-57, mixed mode)

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• Using Java Executor on AppEngine causes AccessControlException

  - by Drew

  How do you get java.util.concurrent.Executor or CompletionService to work on Google AppEngine? The classes are all officially white-listed, but I get a runtime security error when trying to submit asynchronous tasks. Code: // uses the async API but this factory makes it so that tasks really // happen sequentially Executor executor = java.util.concurrent.Executors.newSingleThreadExecutor(); // wrap Executor in CompletionService CompletionService<String> completionService = new ExecutorCompletionService<String>(executor); final SomeTask someTask = new SomeTask(); // this line throws exception completionService.submit(new Callable<String>(){ public String call() { return someTask.doNothing("blah"); } }); // alternately, send Runnable task directly to Executor, // which also throws an exception executor.execute(new Runnable(){ public void run() { someTask.doNothing("blah"); } }); } private class SomeTask{ public String doNothing(String message){ return message; } } Exception: java.security.AccessControlException: access denied (java.lang.RuntimePermission modifyThreadGroup) at java.security.AccessControlContext.checkPermission(AccessControlContext.java:323) at java.security.AccessController.checkPermission(AccessController.java:546) at java.lang.SecurityManager.checkPermission(SecurityManager.java:532) at com.google.appengine.tools.development.DevAppServerFactory$CustomSecurityManager.checkPermission(DevAppServerFactory.java:166) at com.google.appengine.tools.development.DevAppServerFactory$CustomSecurityManager.checkAccess(DevAppServerFactory.java:191) at java.lang.ThreadGroup.checkAccess(ThreadGroup.java:288) at java.lang.Thread.init(Thread.java:332) at java.lang.Thread.(Thread.java:565) at java.util.concurrent.Executors$DefaultThreadFactory.newThread(Executors.java:542) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor.addThread(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:672) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor.addIfUnderCorePoolSize(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:697) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor.execute(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:652) at java.util.concurrent.Executors$DelegatedExecutorService.execute(Executors.java:590) at java.util.concurrent.ExecutorCompletionService.submit(ExecutorCompletionService.java:152) This code works fine when run on Tomcat or via command-line JVM. However, it chokes in the AppEngine SDK Jetty container (tried with Eclipse plugin and the maven-gae-plugin). AppEngine is likely designed to not allow potentially dangerous programs to run, so I could see them completely disabling thread creation. However, why would Google allow you to create a class, but not allow you to call methods on it? White-listing java.util.concurrent is misleading. Is there some other way to do parallel/simultaneous/concurrent tasks on GAE?

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• Can I use boost::make_shared with a private constructor?

  - by Billy ONeal

  Consider the following: class DirectoryIterator; namespace detail { class FileDataProxy; class DirectoryIteratorImpl { friend class DirectoryIterator; friend class FileDataProxy; WIN32_FIND_DATAW currentData; HANDLE hFind; std::wstring root; DirectoryIteratorImpl(); explicit DirectoryIteratorImpl(const std::wstring& pathSpec); void increment(); public: ~DirectoryIteratorImpl() {}; }; class FileDataProxy //Serves as a proxy to the WIN32_FIND_DATA struture inside the iterator. { friend class DirectoryIterator; boost::shared_ptr<DirectoryIteratorImpl> iteratorSource; FileDataProxy(boost::shared_ptr<DirectoryIteratorImpl> parent) : iteratorSource(parent) {}; public: std::wstring GetFolderPath() const { return iteratorSource->root; } }; } class DirectoryIterator : public boost::iterator_facade<DirectoryIterator, detail::FileDataProxy, std::input_iterator_tag> { friend class boost::iterator_core_access; boost::shared_ptr<detail::DirectoryIteratorImpl> impl; void increment() { impl->increment(); }; detail::FileDataProxy dereference() const { return detail::FileDataProxy(impl); }; public: DirectoryIterator() { impl = boost::make_shared<detail::DirectoryIteratorImpl>(); }; }; It seems like DirectoryIterator should be able to call boost::make_shared<DirectoryIteratorImpl>, because it is a friend of DirectoryIteratorImpl. However, this code fails to compile because the constructor for DirectoryIteratorImpl is private. Since this class is an internal implementation detail that clients of DirectoryIterator should never touch, it would be nice if I could keep the constructor private. Is this my fundamental misunderstanding around make_shared or do I need to mark some sort of boost piece as friend in order for the call to compile?

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• Copy Constructors and calling functions

  - by helixed

  Hello, I'm trying to call an accessor function in a copy constructor but it's not working. Here's an example of my problem: A.h class A { public: //Constructor A(int d); //Copy Constructor A(const A &rhs); //accessor for data int getData(); //mutator for data void setData(int d); private: int data; }; A.cpp #include "A.h" //Constructor A::A(int d) { this->setData(d); } //Copy Constructor A::A(const A &rhs) { this->setData(rhs.getData()); } //accessor for data int A::getData() { return data; } //mutator for data void A::setData(int d) { data = d; } When I try to compile this, I get the following error: error: passing 'const A' as 'this' argument of 'int A::getData()' discards qualifiers If I change rhs.getData() to rhs.data, then the constructor works fine. Am I not allowed to call functions in a copy constructor? Could somebody please tell me what I'm doing wrong? Thanks, helixed

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• Inheritance using prototype / "new"

  - by mikkol

  Hi I'm new in Javascript OO and want to know more about about inheritance. Hope you can provide some advice! I see this great post: How to "properly" create a custom object in JavaScript? which talks about how a class is inherited as I see in other websites, ex.: function man(x) { this.x = x; this.y = 2; } man.prototype.name = "man"; man.prototype.two = function() { this.y = "two"; } function shawn() { man.apply(this, arguments); }; shawn.prototype = new man; The above post claims that in order not to call "man"'s constructor while inheriting, one can use a helper like this instead: function subclassOf(base) { _subclassOf.prototype= base.prototype; return new _subclassOf(); } function _subclassOf() {}; shawn.prototype = subclassOf(man); While I understand its intention, I don't see why we can't call shawn.prototype = man.prototype; I see it works exactly the same. Or is there something I'm missing? Thanks in advance!

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• Query Optimizing Request

  - by mithilatw

  I am very sorry if this question is structured in not a very helpful manner or the question itself is not a very good one! I need to update a MSSQL table call component every 10 minutes based on information from another table call materials_progress I have nearly 60000 records in component and more than 10000 records in materials_progress I wrote an update query to do the job, but it takes longer than 4 minutes to complete execution! Here is the query : UPDATE component SET stage_id = CASE WHEN t.required_quantity <= t.total_received THEN 27 WHEN t.total_ordered < t.total_received THEN 18 ELSE 18 END FROM ( SELECT mp.job_id, mp.line_no, mp.component, l.quantity AS line_quantity, CASE WHEN mp.component_name_id = 2 THEN l.quantity*2 ELSE l.quantity END AS required_quantity, SUM(ordered) AS total_ordered, SUM(received) AS total_received , c.component_id FROM line l LEFT JOIN component c ON c.line_id = l.line_id LEFT JOIN materials_progress mp ON l.job_id = mp.job_id AND l.line_no = mp.line_no AND c.component_name_id = mp.component_name_id WHERE mp.job_id IS NOT NULL AND (mp.cancelled IS NULL OR mp.cancelled = 0) AND (mp.manual_override IS NULL OR mp.manual_override = 0) AND c.stage_id = 18 GROUP BY mp.job_id, mp.line_no, mp.component, l.quantity, mp.component_name_id, component_id ) AS t WHERE component.component_id = t.component_id I am not going to explain the scenario as it too complex.. could somebody please please tell me what makes this query this much expensive and a way to get around it? Thank you very very much in advance!!!

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• cannot receive UDP broadcast packets

  - by user292792

  Hello I have 2 boxes: - an embedded device (ARM Omap with linux) which I'll call "Omap". - a PC (can either be Windows or linux). Scenario 1 Both boxes are in the same network (example: my office). The Omap gets its address from a DHCP server (ex: 192.168.10.110). The PC has always the same address (ex. 192.168.10.104). I can successfully exchange UDP broadcast packets on any port. Success. Scenario 2 The 2 boxes are in a network withOUT a DHCP server. The PC has a static IP address (example: 10.10.10.20). The Omap boots, looks for a DHCP server, doesn't find it, and is in what I call "bad IP address" state. Now... Broadcasting UDP packets from the Omap works: the PC can see them. The opposite doesn't work: UDP packets broadcasted by the PC are not seen by the Omap. I am using Wireshark on another PC to verify that the packets are being sent. Failure. I tried to change the Omap ip address (with ifconfig)... no luck. What am I missing? To complete the picture, when the Omap is in Scenario 2, if I run udhcpc ... it can communicate with the DHCP server and get an IP address. I also see the packets with Wireshark. So this means that the DHCP client is able to broadcast UDP packets. (Yes, I tried to use DHCP ports 67/68 but it doesn't work). I am using Boost C++ Asio UDP sockets. Specifically, I took the multicast examples and changed them to do broadcasting. Any help is appreciated. Thanks, Benedetto

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• Why is ExecuteFunction method only available through base.ExecuteFunction in a child class of Object

  - by Matt

  I'm trying to call ObjectContext.ExecuteFunction from my objectcontext object in the repository of my site. The repository is generic, so all I have is an ObjectContext object, rather than one that actually represents my specific one from the Entity Framework. Here's an example of code that was generated that uses the ExecuteFunction method: [global::System.CodeDom.Compiler.GeneratedCode("System.Data.Entity.Design.EntityClassGenerator", "4.0.0.0")] public global::System.Data.Objects.ObjectResult<ArtistSearchVariation> FindSearchVariation(string source) { global::System.Data.Objects.ObjectParameter sourceParameter; if ((source != null)) { sourceParameter = new global::System.Data.Objects.ObjectParameter("Source", source); } else { sourceParameter = new global::System.Data.Objects.ObjectParameter("Source", typeof(string)); } return base.ExecuteFunction<ArtistSearchVariation>("FindSearchVariation", sourceParameter); } But what I would like to do is something like this... public class Repository<E, C> : IRepository<E, C>, IDisposable where E : EntityObject where C : ObjectContext { private readonly C _ctx; // ... public ObjectResult<E> ExecuteFunction(string functionName, params[]) { // Create object parameters return _ctx.ExecuteFunction<E>(functionName, /* parameters */) } } Anyone know why I have to call ExecuteFunction from base instead of _ctx? Also, is there any way to do something like I've written out? I would really like to keep my repository generic, but with having to execute stored procedures it's looking more and more difficult... Thanks, Matt

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• Strange rare out-of-order data received using Indy

  - by Jim

  We're having a bizarre problem with Indy10 where two large strings (a few hundred characters each) that we send out one after the other are appearing at the other end intertwined oddly. This happens extremely infrequently. Each string is a complete XML message terminated with a LF and in general the READ process reads an entire XML message, returning when it sees the LF. The call to actually send the message is protected by a critical section around the call to the IOHandler's writeln method and so it is not possible for two threads to send at the same time. (We're certain the critical section is implemented/working properly). This problem happens very rarely. The symptoms are odd...when we send string A followed by string B what we received at the other end (on the rare occasions where we have failure) is the trailing section of string A by itself (i.e., there's a LF at the end of it) followed by the leading section of string A and then the entire string B followed by a single LF. We've verified that the "timed out" property is not true after the partial read - we log that property after every read that returns content. Also, we know there are no embedded LF characters in the string, as we explicitly replace all non-alphanumeric characters in the string with spaces before appending the LF and sending it. We have log mechanisms inside the critical sections on both the transmission and receiving ends and so we can see this behavior at the "wire". We're completely baffled and wondering (although always the lowest possibility) whether there could be some low-level Indy issues that might cause this issue, e.g., buffers being sent in the wrong order....very hard to believe this could be the issue but we're grasping at straws. Does anyone have any bright ideas?

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• Why can a struct defined inside a function not be used as functor to std::for_each?

  - by Oswald

  The following code won't compile. The compiler complains about *no matching function for call to for_each*. Why is this so? #include <map> #include <algorithm> struct Element { void flip() {} }; void flip_all(std::map<Element*, Element*> input) { struct FlipFunctor { void operator() (std::pair<Element* const, Element*>& item) { item.second->flip(); } }; std::for_each(input.begin(), input.end(), FlipFunctor()); } When I move struct FlipFunctor before function flip_all, the code compiles. Full error message: no matching function for call to ‘for_each(std::_Rb_tree_iterator<std::pair<Element* const, Element*> >, std::_Rb_tree_iterator<std::pair<Element* const, Element*> >, flip_all(std::map<Element*, Element*, std::less<Element*>, std::allocator<std::pair<Element* const, Element*> > >)::FlipFunctor)’

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• installing paramiko

  - by fixxxer

  This may sound like a repeated question on SF, but I could not find a clear answer to it, yet.So. I installed Paramiko 1.7 with "setup.py install" command and while running the demo.py program, I got this error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "C:\Documents and Settings\fixavier\Desktop\paramiko-1.7\demos\demo.py", line 33, in <module> import paramiko File "C:\Python26\lib\site-packages\paramiko\__init__.py", line 69, in <module> from transport import randpool, SecurityOptions, Transport File "C:\Python26\lib\site-packages\paramiko\transport.py", line 32, in <module> from paramiko import util File "C:\Python26\lib\site-packages\paramiko\util.py", line 31, in <module> from paramiko.common import * File "C:\Python26\lib\site-packages\paramiko\common.py", line 99, in <module> from Crypto.Util.randpool import PersistentRandomPool, RandomPool ImportError: No module named Crypto.Util.randpool I'm getting this error even after installing PyCrypto 2.1. On running test.py(which comes with the installation), I got the following error - Traceback (most recent call last): File "C:\Documents and Settings\fixavier\Desktop\pycrypto-2.0.1\pycrypto-2.0.1\test.py", line 18, in <module> from Crypto.Util import test File "C:\Documents and Settings\fixavier\Desktop\pycrypto-2.0.1\pycrypto-2.0.1\build/lib.win32-2.6\Crypto\Util\test.py", line 17, in <module> import testdata File "C:\Documents and Settings\fixavier\Desktop\pycrypto-2.0.1\pycrypto-2.0.1\test\testdata.py", line 450, in <module> from Crypto.Cipher import AES ImportError: cannot import name AES I don't have the confidence to go ahead and install AES after all this, for all I know I may get another ImportError! Please advice.Is it the way of installation thats problematic?

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• Sending Email from Lotus Notes using Excel and having Attachment & HTML body

  - by Anthony

  Right I'm trying to send an Email form an excel spreadsheet though lotus notes, it has an attachment and the body needs to be in HTML. I've got some code that from all I've read should allow me to do this however it doesn't. Without the HTML body the attachment will send, when I impliment a HTML body the Email still sends but the attachment dissapears, I've tried rearanging the order of the code cutting out bits that might not be needed but all is invain. (You need to reference Lotus Domino Objects to run this code. strEmail is the email addresses strAttach is the string location of the attachment strSubject is the subject text strBody is the body text ) Sub Send_Lotus_Email(strEmail, strAttach, strSubject, strBody) Dim noSession As Object, noDatabase As Object, noDocument As Object Dim obAttachment As Object, EmbedObject As Object Const EMBED_ATTACHMENT As Long = 1454 Set noSession = CreateObject("Notes.NotesSession") Set noDatabase = noSession.GETDATABASE("", "") 'If Lotus Notes is not open then open the mail-part of it. If noDatabase.IsOpen = False Then noDatabase.OPENMAIL 'Create the e-mail and the attachment. Set noDocument = noDatabase.CreateDocument Set obAttachment = noDocument.CreateRichTextItem("strAttach") Set EmbedObject = obAttachment.EmbedObject(EMBED_ATTACHMENT, "", strAttach) 'Add values to the created e-mail main properties. With noDocument .Form = "Memo" .SendTo = strEmail '.Body = strBody ' Where to send the body if HTML body isn't used. .Subject = strSubject .SaveMessageOnSend = True End With noSession.ConvertMIME = False Set Body = noDocument.CreateMIMEEntity("Body") ' MIMEEntity to support HTML Set stream = noSession.CreateStream Call stream.WriteText(strBody) ' Write the body text to the stream Call Body.SetContentFromText(stream, "text/html;charset=iso-8859-1", ENC_IDENTITY_8BIT) noSession.ConvertMIME = True 'Send the e-mail. With noDocument .PostedDate = Now() .Send 0, strEmail End With 'Release objects from the memory. Set EmbedObject = Nothing Set obAttachment = Nothing Set noDocument = Nothing Set noDatabase = Nothing Set noSession = Nothing End Sub If somone could point me in the right direction I'd be greatly appreciated. Edit: I've done a little more investigating and I've found an oddity, if i look at the sent folder the emails all have the paperclip icon of having an attachment even though when you go into the email even in the sent the HTML ones don't show an attachment.

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• Dealing with asynchronous control structures (Fluent Interface?)

  - by Christophe Herreman

  The initialization code of our Flex application is doing a series of asynchronous calls to check user credentials, load external data, connecting to a JMS topic, etc. Depending on the context the application runs in, some of these calls are not executed or executed with different parameters. Since all of these calls happen asynchronously, the code controlling them is hard to read, understand, maintain and test. For each call, we need to have some callback mechanism in which we decide what call to execute next. I was wondering if anyone had experimented with wrapping these calls in executable units and having a Fluent Interface (FI) that would connect and control them. From the top of my head, the code might look something like: var asyncChain:AsyncChain = execute(LoadSystemSettings) .execute(LoadAppContext) .if(IsAutologin) .execute(AutoLogin) .else() .execute(ShowLoginScreen) .etc; asyncChain.execute(); The AsyncChain would be an execution tree, build with the FI (and we could of course also build one without a FI). This might be an interesting idea for environments that run in a single threaded model like the Flash Player, Silverlight, JavaFX?, ... Before I dive into the code to try things out, I was hoping to get some feedback.

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• Google App Engine on Google Apps Domain

  - by Bob Ralian

  I'm having trouble getting my domain pointed to my website hosted with google app engine. Here's the background... take care to separate the concepts of "google apps" (domain hosting, email, etc.) and "google app engine" (website framework). I have a domain that's using Google Apps for Your Domain, let's call it company.com. So my login for my google apps account is [email protected]. I have a different domain that is aliased back to my google apps account, let's call it mycompany.com. It's been successfully aliased and registered with my primary google apps account using the cname method, and has updated mx records. We have a ton of domains, and I only want to use one "google apps" account to maintain them all. Now I have a website I've built using google app engine, and the url is effectively mycompany.appspot.com. I want to get mycompany.com to point to my website that currently resides at mycompany.appspot.com. There's a spot in the google app engine dashboard under application settings where you can add a domain. So I click there and enter mycompany.com and I get an error message saying that domain is not using google apps. If I back up to the page I submitted, there's a note saying I need to register the domain with google apps. So I click the link to do that and enter mycompany.com and I get an error message saying the domain has been registered and is in the process of ownership verification. But that process is already finished. So... what do I do? Does google app engine not support a domain that is only aliased to a primary google apps account? Does mycompany.com need to have its own primary google apps account?

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• Delete array of size 1

  - by Arne

  This is possibly a candidate for a one-line answer. I would like know it anyway.. I am writing a simple circular buffer and for some reasons that are not important for the question I need to implement it using an array of doubles. In fact I have not investiated other ways to do it, but since an array is required anyway I have not spent much time on looking for alternatives. template<typename T> class CircularBuffer { public: CircularBuffer(unsigned int size); ~CircularBuffer(); void Resize(unsigned int new_size); ... private: T* buffer; unsigned int buffer_size; }; Since I need to have the buffer dynamically sized the buffer_size is neither const nor a template parameter. Now the question: During construction and in function Resize(int) I only require the size to be at least one, although a buffer of size one is effectively no longer a buffer. Of course using a simple double instead would be more appropriate but anyway. Now when deleting the internal buffer in the destructor - or in function resize for that matter - I need to delete the allocated memory. Question is, how? First candidate is of course delete[] buffer; but then again, if I have allocated a buffer of size one, that is if the pointer was aquired with buffer = new T[0], is it still appropriate to call delete[] on the pointer or do I need to call delete buffer; (without brackets) ? Thanks, Arne

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• Google App Engine: JDO does the job, JPA does not

  - by Phuong Nguyen de ManCity fan

  I have setup a project using both Jdo and Jpa. I used Jpa Annotation to Declare my Entity. Then I setup my testCases based on LocalTestHelper (from Google App Engine Documentation). When I run the test, a call to makePersistent of Jdo:PersistenceManager is perfectly OK; a call to persist of Jpa:EntityManager raised an error: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Type ("org.seamoo.persistence.jpa.model.ExampleModel") is not that of an entity but needs to be for this operation at org.datanucleus.jpa.EntityManagerImpl.assertEntity(EntityManagerImpl.java:888) at org.datanucleus.jpa.EntityManagerImpl.persist(EntityManagerImpl.java:385) Caused by: org.datanucleus.exceptions.NoPersistenceInformationException: The class "org.seamoo.persistence.jpa.model.ExampleModel" is required to be persistable yet no Meta-Data/Annotations can be found for this class. Please check that the Meta-Data/annotations is defined in a valid file location. at org.datanucleus.ObjectManagerImpl.assertClassPersistable(ObjectManagerImpl.java:3894) at org.datanucleus.jpa.EntityManagerImpl.assertEntity(EntityManagerImpl.java:884) ... 27 more How can it be the case? Below is the link to the source code of the maven projects that reproduce that problem: http://seamoo.com/jpa-bug-reproduce.tar.gz Execute the maven test goal over the parent pom you will notice that 3/4 tests from org.seamoo.persistence.jdo.JdoGenericDAOImplTest passed, while all tests from org.seamoo.persistence.jpa.JpaGenericDAOImplTest failed.

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• Rails Autocompletion Issue - Rails 1.2.3 to 2.3.5

  - by Grant Sayer

  I have an issue with rails Autocompletion from some code that i've inherited from an old Rails 1.2.3 project that I'm porting to Rails 2.3.5. The issue revolves around javascript execution within the auto_complete helper :after_update_element. The scenario is: A user is presented with a popup form with a number of fields. In the first field as they enter text the auto_complete AJAX call occurs, returning a result, plus a series of other HTML data wrapped in <divs> so that the after_update_element call can iterate over the other data and fill in the remaining fields. The issue lies with the extraction of the other fields which works on IE, fails on Firefox. Here is the code: <%= text_field_with_auto_complete :item, :product_code, {:value => ""}, {:size => 40, :class => "input-text", :tabindex => 6, :select => 'code', :with => "element.name + '=' + escape(element.value) + '&supplier_id=' + $('item_supplier_id').value", :after_update_element => "function (ele, value) { $('item_supplier_id').value = Utilities.extract_value(value, 'supplier_id'); $('item_supplied_size').value = Utilities.extract_value(value, 'size')}"}%> Now the function Utilities is designed to grab the fields from the string of values and looks like: // // Extract a particular set of data from the autocomplete actions // Utilities.extract_value = function (value, className) { var result; var elements = document.getElementsByClassName(className, value); if (elements && elements.length == 1) { result = elements[0].innerHTML.unescapeHTML(); } return result; }; In Firefox the value of result is undefined

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