Search Results

Search found 7347 results on 294 pages for 'daniel short'.

Page 255/294 | < Previous Page | 251 252 253 254 255 256 257 258 259 260 261 262  | Next Page >

  • Best tree/heap data structure for fixed set of nodes with changing values + need top 20 values?

    - by user350139
    I'm writing something like a game in C++ where I have a database table containing the current score for each user. I want to read that table into memory at the start of the game, quickly change each user's score while the game is being played in response to what each user does, and then when the game ends write the current scores back to the database. I also want to be able to find the 20 or so users with the highest scores. No users will be added or deleted during the short period when the game is being played. I haven't tried it yet, but updating the database might take too much time during the period when the game is being played. Fixed set of users (might be 10,000 to 50,000 users) Will map user IDs to their score and other user-specific information. User IDs will be auto_increment values. If the structure has a high memory overhead that's probably not an issue. If the program crashes during gameplay it can just be re-started. Quickly get a user's current score. Quickly add to a user's current score (and return their current score) Quickly get 20 users with highest score. No deletes. No inserts except when the structure is first created, and how long that takes isn't critical. Getting the top 20 users will only happen every five or ten seconds, but getting/adding will happen much more frequently. If not for the last, I could just create a memory block equal to sizeof(user) * max(user id) and put each user at user id * sizeof(user) for fast access. Should I do that plus some other structure for the Top 20 feature, or is there one structure that will handle all of this together?

    Read the article

  • suggestions on syntax to express mathematical formula concisely

    - by aaa
    hello. I am developing functional domain specific embedded language within C++ to translate formulas into working code as concisely and accurately as possible. I post prototype in the comment, it is about 2 hundred lines long. Right now my language looks something like this (well, actually is going to look like): // implies two nested loops j=0:N, i=0,j (range(i) < j < N)[T(i,j) = (T(i,j) - T(j,i))/e(i+j)]; // implies summation over above expression sum(range(i) < j < N))[(T(i,j) - T(j,i))/e(i+j)]; I am looking for possible syntax improvements/extensions or just different ideas about expressing mathematical formulas as clearly and precisely as possible (in any language, not just C++). Can you give me some syntax examples relating to my question which can be accomplished in your language of choice which consider useful. In particular, if you have some ideas about how to translate the above code segments, I would be happy to hear them. Thank you just to clarify and give actual formula, my short-term goal is to express the following expression concisely where values in <> are already computed as 4-dimensional array

    Read the article

  • List all foreign key constraints that refer to a particular column in a specific table

    - by Sid
    I would like to see a list of all the tables and columns that refer (either directly or indirectly) a specific column in the 'main' table via a foreign key constraint that has the ON DELETE=CASCADE setting missing. The tricky part is that there would be an indirect relationships buried across up to 5 levels deep. (example: ... great-grandchild- FK3 = grandchild = FK2 = child = FK1 = main table). We need to dig up the leaf tables-columns, not just the very 1st level. The 'good' part about this is that execution speed isn't of concern, it'll be run on a backup copy of the production db to fix any relational issues for the future. I did SELECT * FROM sys.foreign_keys but that gives me the name of the constraint - not the names of the child-parent tables and the columns in the relationship (the juicy bits). Plus the previous designer used short, non-descriptive/random names for the FK constraints, unlike our practice below The way we're adding constraints into SQL Server: ALTER TABLE [dbo].[UserEmailPrefs] WITH CHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_UserEmailPrefs_UserMasterTable_UserId] FOREIGN KEY([UserId]) REFERENCES [dbo].[UserMasterTable] ([UserId]) ON DELETE CASCADE GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[UserEmailPrefs] CHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_UserEmailPrefs_UserMasterTable_UserId] GO The comments in this SO question inpire this question.

    Read the article

  • Alert and if changes behaviour dom copying

    - by lowkey
    Hi guys! Tried to make a little old school ajax (iframe-javascript) script. A bit of mootools is used for DOM navigation Description: HTML: 1 iframe called "buffer" 1 div called "display" JAVASCRIPT: (short: copy iframe content into a div on the page) 1) onLoad on iframe triggers handler(), a counter makes sure it only run once (this is because otherwise firefox will go into feedback loop. What i think happens: iframe on load handler() copyBuffer change src of iframe , and firefox takes that as an onload again) 2) copybuffer() is called, it sets src of iframe then copies iframe content into div, then erases iframe content THE CODE: count=0; function handler(){ if (count==0){ copyBuffer(); count++; } } function copyBuffer(){ $('buffer').set('src','http://www.somelink.com/'); if (window.frames['buffer'] && $('display') ) { $('display').innerHTML = window.frames['buffer'].document.body.innerHTML; window.frames['buffer'].document.body.innerHTML=""; } } problems: QUESTION 1) nothing happens, the content is not loaded into the div. But if i either: A) remove the counter and let the script run in a feedback loop: the content is suddenly copied into the div, but off course there is a feedback loop going on, you can see it keeps loading in the status bar. OR B) insert an alert in the copyBuffer function. The content is copied, without the feedback loop. why does this happen? QUESTION 2) The If wrapped around the copying code i got from a source on the internet. I am not sure what it does? If i remove it the code does not work in: Safari and Chrome. Many thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • How can I automate new system provisioning with scripts under Mac OS X 10.6?

    - by deeviate
    I've been working on this for days but simply cannot find the correct references to make it work. The idea is to have a script that will baseline newly purchased Macs that comes into the company with basic stuffs like set autologin to off, create a new admin user (for remote admins to access for support, set password to unlock screensaver and etc) . Sample list for baseline that admins have to do on each new machine: Click the Login Options button Set Automatic Login: OFF Check: Show the Restart, Sleep, and Shutdown buttons Uncheck: Show input menu in login window Uncheck: Show password hints Uncheck: Use voice over in the login window Check: Show fast user switching menu as Short Name (note: this is only part of a long list to do on each machine) I've managed to find some references to make some parts work. Like autologin can be unset with: defaults write /Library/Preferences/.GlobalPreferences com.apple.userspref.DisableAutoLogin -bool TRUE and I've kinda found ways to muscle in a new user creation (including prompts) with AppleScript and shell commands. But generally its tough finding ways to do somewhat simple things like turn on password to get out of screensaver or to allow fast user switching. References are either too limited or just no where to be seen (e.g. I can unset autologin via cli but the very next setting on the system preference "show restart, sleep and shutdown buttons" is somewhere else and I can't find any command line to make it set) Does anyone have any ideas on a list, document, reference or anything of where each setting on the system resides so that I can be pointed to make it work? or maybe sample scripts for the above example... My thanks for reading thus far—a huge thank you for whoever that has any info on the above.

    Read the article

  • Fastest reliable way for Clojure (Java) and Ruby apps to communicate

    - by jkndrkn
    Hi There, We have cloud-hosted (RackSpace cloud) Ruby and Java apps that will interact as follows: Ruby app sends a request to Java app. Request consists of map structure containing strings, integers, other maps, and lists (analogous to JSON). Java app analyzes data and sends reply to Ruby App. We are interested in evaluating both messaging formats (JSON, Buffer Protocols, Thrift, etc.) as well as message transmission channels/techniques (sockets, message queues, RPC, REST, SOAP, etc.) Our criteria: Short round-trip time. Low round-trip-time standard deviation. (We understand that garbage collection pauses and network usage spikes can affect this value). High availability. Scalability (we may want to have multiple instances of Ruby and Java app exchanging point-to-point messages in the future). Ease of debugging and profiling. Good documentation and community support. Bonus points for Clojure support. What combination of message format and transmission method would you recommend? Why? I've gathered here some materials we have already collected for review: Comparison of various java serialization options Comparison of Thrift and Protocol Buffers (old) Comparison of various data interchange formats Comparison of Thrift and Protocol Buffers Fallacies of Protocol Buffers RPC features Discussion of RPC in the context of AMQP (Message-Queueing) Comparison of RPC and message-passing in distributed systems (pdf) Criticism of RPC from perspective of message-passing fan Overview of Avro from Ruby programmer perspective

    Read the article

  • Unknown ListView Behavior

    - by st0le
    I'm currently making a SMS Application in Android, the following is a code snippet from Inbox Listactivity, I have requested a cursor from the contentresolver and used a custom adapter to add custom views into the list. Now, in the custom view i've got 2 TextViews (tvFullBody,*tvBody*)... tvFullBody contains the Full SMS Text while tvBody contains a short preview (35 characters) The tvFullBody Visibility is by default set to GONE. My idea is, when the user clicks on a list item, the tvBody should dissappear(GONE) and the tvFullBody should become visible (VISIBLE). On Clicking again, it should revert back to its original state. //isExpanded is a BitSet of the size = no of list items...keeps track of which items are expanded and which are not @Override protected void onListItemClick(ListView l, View v, int position, long id) { if(isExpanded.get(position)) { v.findViewById(R.id.tvFullBody).setVisibility(View.GONE); v.findViewById(R.id.tvBody).setVisibility(View.VISIBLE); }else { v.findViewById(R.id.tvFullBody).setVisibility(View.VISIBLE); v.findViewById(R.id.tvBody).setVisibility(View.GONE); } isExpanded.flip(position); super.onListItemClick(l, v, position, id); } The Code works as it is supposed to :) except for an undesired sideeffect.... Every 10th (or so) List Item also gets "toggled". eg. If i Expand the 1st, then the 11th, 21th list items are also expanded...Although they remain off screen, but on scrolling you get to see the undesired "expansion". By my novice analysis, i'm guessing Listview keeps track of 10 list items that are currently visible, upon scrolling, it "reuses" those same variables, which is causing this problem...(i didn't check the android source code yet.) I'd be gratefull for any suggestion, on how i should tackle this! :) I'm open to alternative methods aswell....Thanks in advance! :)

    Read the article

  • [MSBuild] Problem with setting properties 's values.

    - by Nam Gi VU
    Let's consider the below example. There, I have: target MAIN call target t then call target tt. target t call target ttt, target tt call target tttt. target t define property aa, target ttt modify aa. target tttt try to print property aa 's value. in short we have: MAIN - {t - {ttt-modify aa, define aa}, tt - tttt - print aa} But in target tttt, we can't "see" aa's updated value (by ttt)! Please help me to make that value visible to target tttt. Thank you! The whole script is as below: <Project xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/developer/msbuild/2003" DefaultTargets="MAIN" > <Target Name="MAIN" > <CallTarget Targets="t" /> <CallTarget Targets="tt" /> </Target> <Target Name="t"> <Message Text="t" /> <PropertyGroup> <aa>1</aa> </PropertyGroup> <CallTarget Targets="ttt" /> </Target> <Target Name="tt"> <Message Text="tt" /> <CallTarget Targets="tttt" /> </Target> <Target Name="ttt"> <PropertyGroup> <aa>122</aa> </PropertyGroup> <Message Text="ttt" /> </Target> <Target Name="tttt"> <Message Text="tttt" /> <Message Text="tttt:$(aa)" /> </Target> </Project>

    Read the article

  • Updating a C# 2.0 events example to be idiomatic with C# 3.5?

    - by Damien Wildfire
    I have a short events example from .NET 2.0 that I've been using as a reference point for a while. We're now upgrading to 3.5, though, and I'm not clear on the most idiomatic way to do things. How would this simple events example get updated to reflect idioms that are now available in .NET 3.5? // Args class. public class TickArgs : EventArgs { private DateTime TimeNow; public DateTime Time { set { TimeNow = value; } get { return this.TimeNow; } } } // Producer class that generates events. public class Metronome { public event TickHandler Tick; public delegate void TickHandler(Metronome m, TickArgs e); public void Start() { while (true) { System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(3000); if (Tick != null) { TickArgs t = new TickArgs(); t.Time = DateTime.Now; Tick(this, t); } } } } // Consumer class that listens for events. public class Listener { public void Subscribe(Metronome m) { m.Tick += new Metronome.TickHandler(HeardIt); } private void HeardIt(Metronome m, TickArgs e) { System.Console.WriteLine("HEARD IT AT {0}",e.Time); } } // Example. public class Test { static void Main() { Metronome m = new Metronome(); Listener l = new Listener(); l.Subscribe(m); m.Start(); } }

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET problem - Firebug shows odd behaviour

    - by Brandi
    I have an ASP.NET application that does a large database read. It loads up a gridview inside an update panel. In VS2008, just running on my local machine, it runs fantastically. In production (identical code, just published and put on one of our network servers), it runs slow as dirt. Debug is set to false, so this is not the cause of the slow down. I'm not an experienced web developer, so besides that, feel free to suggest the obvious. I have been using Firebug to determine what's going on, and here is what that has turned up: On production, there are around 500 requests. The timeline bar is very short. The size column varies from run to run, but is always the same for the duration of the run. Locally, there are about 30 requests. The timeline bar takes up the entire space. Can anyone shed some light on why this is happening and what I can do to fix it? Also, I can't find much of anything on the web about this, so any references are helpful too.

    Read the article

  • List with non-null elements ends up containing null. A synchronization issue?

    - by Alix
    Hi. First of all, sorry about the title -- I couldn't figure out one that was short and clear enough. Here's the issue: I have a list List<MyClass> list to which I always add newly-created instances of MyClass, like this: list.Add(new MyClass()). I don't add elements any other way. However, then I iterate over the list with foreach and find that there are some null entries. That is, the following code: foreach (MyClass entry in list) if (entry == null) throw new Exception("null entry!"); will sometimes throw an exception. I should point out that the list.Add(new MyClass()) are performed from different threads running concurrently. The only thing I can think of to account for the null entries is the concurrent accesses. List<> isn't thread-safe, after all. Though I still find it strange that it ends up containing null entries, instead of just not offering any guarantees on ordering. Can you think of any other reason? Also, I don't care in which order the items are added, and I don't want the calling threads to block waiting to add their items. If synchronization is truly the issue, can you recommend a simple way to call the Add method asynchronously, i.e., create a delegate that takes care of that while my thread keeps running its code? I know I can create a delegate for Add and call BeginInvoke on it. Does that seem appropriate? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • To NOLOCK or NOT to NOLOCK, that is the question

    - by Limey
    Hi all, This is really more of a discussion than a specific question about nolock. I took over an app recently that almost every query (and there are lots of them) has the nolock option on them. Now I am pretty new to SQL server (used Oracle for 10 years) but yet I find this pretty disturbing. So this weekend I was talking with one of my friends who runs a rather large ecommerce site (name will be withheld to protect the guilty) and he says he has to do this with all of his SQL servers cause he will always end in deadlocks. Is this just a huge short fall with SQL server? Is this just a failure in the DB design (mine is not 3rd level, but its close) Is anybody out there running an SQL server app without nolocks? These are issues that Oracle handles better with more grandulare recordlocks. Is SQL server just not able to handle big loads? Is there some better workaround than reading uncommited data? I would love to hear what people think. Thanks

    Read the article

  • How can you exclude a large number of records in a cross db query using LINQ2SQL?

    - by tap
    So here is my situation: I have a vendor supplied DB we cannot modify and a custom db that imports data from the vendor app and acts on it. Once records are imported form the vendor app, they cannot appear on the list of records to be imported. Also we only want to display the 250 most recent records that have not been imported. What I originally started with was select the list of ids that have been imported from the custom db, and then query the vendor db, using the list of ids in a .Where(x = !idList.Contains(x.Id)) clause on the remote query. This worked up until we broke 2100 records imported into the custom db, as 2100 is the limit on the number of parameters that can be passed into SQL. After finding out this was the actual problem and not the 'invalid buffer'/'severe error' ADO.Net reported, my solution was to remove the first 2000 ids in the remote query, and then remove the remaining records in the local query. Having to pull back a large number of irrelevant records, just to exclude them, so I can get the correct 250 records seems very inelegant. Is there a better way to do this, short of doing a cross db stored procedure? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Is it not possible to make a C++ application "Crash Proof"?

    - by Enno Shioji
    Let's say we have an SDK in C++ that accepts some binary data (like a picture) and does something. Is it not possible to make this SDK "crash-proof"? By crash I primarily mean forceful termination by the OS upon memory access violation, due to invalid input passed by the user (like an abnormally short junk data). I have no experience with C++, but when I googled, I found several means that sounded like a solution (use a vector instead of an array, configure the compiler so that automatic bounds check is performed, etc.). When I presented this to the developer, he said it is still not possible.. Not that I don't believe him, but if so, how is language like Java handling this? I thought the JVM performs everytime a bounds check. If so, why can't one do the same thing in C++ manually? UPDATE By "Crash proof" I don't mean that the application does not terminate. I mean it should not abruptly terminate without information of what happened (I mean it will dump core etc., but is it not possible to display a message like "Argument x was not valid" etc.?)

    Read the article

  • How can one make a 'passthru' function in C++ using macros or metaprogramming?

    - by Ryan
    So I have a series of global functions, say: foo_f1(int a, int b, char *c); foo_f2(int a); foo_f3(char *a); I want to make a C++ wrapper around these, something like: MyFoo::f1(int a, int b, char* c); MyFoo::f2(int a); MyFoo::f3(char* a); There's about 40 functions like this, 35 of them I just want to pass through to the global function, the other 5 I want to do something different with. Ideally the implementation of MyFoo.cpp would be something like: PASSTHRU( f1, (int a, int b, char *c) ); PASSTHRU( f2, (int a) ); MyFoo::f3(char *a) { //do my own thing here } But I'm having trouble figuring out an elegant way to make the above PASSTHRU macro. What I really need is something like the mythical X getArgs() below: MyFoo::f1(int a, int b, char *c) { X args = getArgs(); args++; //skip past implicit this.. ::f1(args); //pass args to global function } But short of dropping into assembly I can't find a good implementation of getArgs().

    Read the article

  • Is it a good practice for a .js file to rely on variables declared in the including html

    - by Bozho
    In short: <script type="text/javascript"> var root = '${config.root}'; var userLanguage = '${config.language}'; var userTimezone = '${config.timezone}'; </script> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/scripts.js"></script> And then, in scripts.js, rely on these variables: if (userLanguage == 'en') { .. } The ${..} is simply a placeholder for a value in the script that generates the page. It can be php, jsp, asp, whatever. The point is - it is dynamic, and hence it can't be part of the .js file (which is static). So, is it OK for the static javascript file to rely on these externally defined configuration variables? (they are mainly configuration, of course). Or is it preferred to make the .js file be served dynamically as well (i.e. make it a .php / .jsp, with the proper Content-Type), and have these values defined in there.

    Read the article

  • Many tables for many users?

    - by Seagull
    I am new to web programming, so excuse the ignorance... ;-) I have a web application that in many ways can be considered to be a multi-tenant environment. By this I mean that each user of the application gets their own 'custom' environment, with absolutely no interaction between those users. So far I have built the web application as a 'single user' environment. In other words, I haven't actually done anything to support multi-users, but only worked on the functionality I want from the app. Here is my problem... What's the best way to build a multi-user environment: All users point to the same 'core' backend. In other words, I build the logic to separate users via appropriate SQL queries (eg. select * from table where user='123' and attribute='456'). Each user points to a unique tablespace, which is built separately as they join the system. In this case I would simply generate ALL the relevant SQL tables per user, with some sort of suffix for the user. (eg. now a query would look like 'select * from table_ where attribute ='456'). In short, it's a difference between "select * from table where USER=" and "select * from table_USER".

    Read the article

  • CSS refuse to obey

    - by Frank
    Hi, I'll make this short, I got this webpage : <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <link rel="Stylesheet" type="text/css" href="css/style.css" /> <link rel="Stylesheet" type="text/css" href="css/nav.css" /> </head> <body> <div id="header"> <ul id="navList"> <li><a href="#" id="navActive">foo</a></li> <li><a href="#">bar</a></li> </ul> </div> </body> </html> With this CSS style.css body { padding:0; margin:0; background-color:#000000; background-repeat:no-repeat; background-image:url('../img/bg.jpg'); } nav.css #navList { padding:0; margin:0; background-image:url('../img/menu.png'); list-style-type:none; padding:12px 150px; } #navList li { display:inline; } #navList li a { color:#bfbfbf; padding:14px 25px; text-decoration:none; } #navList li a:hover { color:#000000; background-color:#bfbfbf; text-decoration:none; } #navActive { color:#000000; background-color:#bfbfbf; } It looks like the CSS from the navActive id is never being applied... Could someone tell me why and/or suggest me a way to correct this. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Check for existing mapping when writing a custom applier in ConfORM

    - by Philip Fourie
    I am writing my first custom column name applier for ConfORM. How do I check if another column has already been map with same mapping name? This is what I have so far: public class MyColumnNameApplier : IPatternApplier<PropertyPath, IPropertyMapper> { public bool Match(PropertyPath subject) { return (subject.LocalMember != null); } public void Apply(PropertyPath subject, IPropertyMapper applyTo) { string shortColumnName = ToOracleName(subject); // How do I check if the short columnName already exist? applyTo.Column(cm => cm.Name(shortColumnName)); } private string ToOracleName(PropertyPath subject) { ... } } } I need to shorten my class property names to less than 30 characters to fit in with Oracle's 30 character limit. Because I am shortening the column names it is possible that I generate the same name for two different properties. I would like to know when a duplicate mapping occurs. If I don't handle this scenario ConfORM/NHibernate allows two different properties to 'share' the same column name - this is obviously creates a problem for me.

    Read the article

  • Does the Java Memory Model (JSR-133) imply that entering a monitor flushes the CPU data cache(s)?

    - by Durandal
    There is something that bugs me with the Java memory model (if i even understand everything correctly). If there are two threads A and B, there are no guarantees that B will ever see a value written by A, unless both A and B synchronize on the same monitor. For any system architecture that guarantees cache coherency between threads, there is no problem. But if the architecture does not support cache coherency in hardware, this essentially means that whenever a thread enters a monitor, all memory changes made before must be commited to main memory, and the cache must be invalidated. And it needs to be the entire data cache, not just a few lines, since the monitor has no information which variables in memory it guards. But that would surely impact performance of any application that needs to synchronize frequently (especially things like job queues with short running jobs). So can Java work reasonably well on architectures without hardware cache-coherency? If not, why doesn't the memory model make stronger guarantees about visibility? Wouldn't it be more efficient if the language would require information what is guarded by a monitor? As i see it the memory model gives us the worst of both worlds, the absolute need to synchronize, even if cache coherency is guaranteed in hardware, and on the other hand bad performance on incoherent architectures (full cache flushes). So shouldn't it be more strict (require information what is guarded by a monitor) or more lose and restrict potential platforms to cache-coherent architectures? As it is now, it doesn't make too much sense to me. Can somebody clear up why this specific memory model was choosen? EDIT: My use of strict and lose was a bad choice in retrospect. I used "strict" for the case where less guarantees are made and "lose" for the opposite. To avoid confusion, its probably better to speak in terms of stronger or weaker guarantees.

    Read the article

  • jQuery: responding to click event of element added to document after page load

    - by morpheous
    I am writing a page which uses a lot of in situ editing and updating using jQuery for AJAX. I have come accross a problem which can best be summarised by the workflow described below: Clicking on 'element1' on the page results in a jQuery AJAX POST Data is received in json format The data received in json format The received data is used to update an existing element 'results' in the page The received data is actual an HTML form I want jQuery to be responsible for POSTing the form when the form button is clicked The problem arises at point 6 above. I have code in my main page which looks like this: $(document).ready(function(){ $('img#inserted_form_btn').click(function(){ $.ajax({'type: 'POST', 'url': 'www.example.com', function($data){ $(data.id).html($data.frm); }), 'dataType': 'json'} }); }); However, the event is not being triggered. I think this is because when the document is first loaded, the img#inserted_form_btn element does not exist on the page (it is inserted into the DOM as the result of an element being clicked on the page (not shown in the code above - to keep the question short) My question therefore is: how can I get jQuery to be able to respond to events occuring in elements that were added to the DOM AFTER the page has loaded?

    Read the article

  • 2d Game Making > Where can someone get Free Tilesets?

    - by Iscariot
    I have been scouring the internet for free tilesets that are open to you. I have found http://lostgarden.com/ It does not seem very useful. There are a few things here and there, but overall not much to really make a game off of. http://www.flyingyogi.com/fun/spritelib.html Spritelib is a little better it has some useful information, but is still the graphics are more in the 8bit variety. http://reinerstileset.4players.de/ This is heavily stylized and its hard to have this match with any other free tile-sets available. All other sites I have found have just been rips from games and those are protected by a copyright and remain unusable. Right now I need simple objects to build the inside of buildings, but I have seem to have come up short in that area. I have plenty of things for outside of buildings, but nothing for in. I am hoping someone else has had this problem and has found a solution. If not, I hope the information I have provided can help someone else in their conquest.

    Read the article

  • How to do a Translate Animation for both axis(X, Y) at the same time?

    - by user1235555
    I am doing something like this in my Storyboard method but not able to achieve the desired result. This animation I want to be played after the page is loaded. private void PhoneApplicationPage_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { CreateTranslateAnimation(image1); } private void CreateTranslateAnimation(UIElement source) { Storyboard sb = new Storyboard(); DoubleAnimationUsingKeyFrames animationFirstX = new DoubleAnimationUsingKeyFrames(); source.RenderTransform = new CompositeTransform(); Storyboard.SetTargetProperty(animationFirstX, new PropertyPath(CompositeTransform.TranslateXProperty)); Storyboard.SetTarget(animationFirstX, source.RenderTransform); animationFirstX.KeyFrames.Add(new EasingDoubleKeyFrame() { KeyTime = kt1, Value = 20 }); DoubleAnimationUsingKeyFrames animationFirstY = new DoubleAnimationUsingKeyFrames(); source.RenderTransform = new CompositeTransform(); Storyboard.SetTargetProperty(animationFirstY, new PropertyPath(CompositeTransform.TranslateYProperty)); Storyboard.SetTarget(animationFirstY, source.RenderTransform); animationFirstY.KeyFrames.Add(new EasingDoubleKeyFrame() { KeyTime = kt1, Value = 30 }); sb.Children.Add(animationFirstX); sb.Children.Add(animationFirstY); sb.Begin(); } Too cut it short... I want to write .cs code equivalent to this code <Storyboard x:Name="Storyboard1"> <DoubleAnimationUsingKeyFrames Storyboard.TargetProperty="(UIElement.RenderTransform).(CompositeTransform.TranslateX)" Storyboard.TargetName="image1"> <EasingDoubleKeyFrame KeyTime="0:0:0.5" Value="20"/> </DoubleAnimationUsingKeyFrames> <DoubleAnimationUsingKeyFrames Storyboard.TargetProperty="(UIElement.RenderTransform).(CompositeTransform.TranslateY)" Storyboard.TargetName="image1"> <EasingDoubleKeyFrame KeyTime="0:0:0.5" Value="30"/> </DoubleAnimationUsingKeyFrames> </Storyboard>

    Read the article

  • C++ Conceptual problem with (Pointer) Pointers

    - by Ptr
    I have a structure usually containing a pointer to an int. However, in some special cases, it is necessary that this int pointer points to another pointer which then points to an int. Wow: I mentioned the word pointer 5 times so far! Is this even possible? I thought about it that way: Instead of using a second int pointer, which is most likely not possible as my main int pointer can only point to an int and not to another int pointer, I could make it a reference like this: int intA = 1; int intB = 2; int& intC = intB; int* myPointers[ 123 ]; myPointers[ 0 ] = &intA; myPointers[ 1 ] = &intB; myPointers[ 3 ] = &intC; So the above would do what I want: The reference to intB (intC) behaves quite like I want it to (If it gets changed it also changes intB) The problem: I can't change references once they are set, right? Or is there a way? Everything in short: How do I get a value to work with * (pointers) and ** (pointers to pointers)?

    Read the article

  • jquery: change the value of `select1` onchange of `select2` IF $('#select2').val() < $('#select1').v

    - by Syom
    i've asked the first question about selects here, i thought, that when i resieve an answer, i would solve and the second part of my problem, but there was a short way to solve first problem, so i have to ask a question again, about second part: i have two selects <select id="select1"> <option value="1">1day</option> <option value="2">2day</option> <option value="3">3day</option> </select> <select id="select2"> <option value="1">1day</option> <option value="2">2day</option> <option value="3">3day</option> </select> and i need to change the value of select1 onchange of select2, if $('#select2').val() < $('#select1').val(); i try to write the following function $("#select2").bind('change',function() { if($('#select2').val() < $('#select1').val()) { $("#select1").val($(this).val()); } }); but it doesn't eork, becouse on the moment of change, when i call the function, it doesn't change it's value yet. so, what can i do? Thakns

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 251 252 253 254 255 256 257 258 259 260 261 262  | Next Page >