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  • div "top" bug IE and everything else. Big problem

    - by Victor
    Hi everyone. I am new in CSS so please help me in this problem. I hope to describe it wright. I am making div named content where my site content is. I made it with z-index:-1; so an image to be over this div. But in Chrome, FF and safari, content became inactive. I cant select text , click on link and write in the forms. So I tried with positive states in the z-index but IE don't know what this means. Damn. So I decided to make conditional div. Here is the code: .content { background:#FFF; width:990px; position:relative; float:left; top:50px; } .content_IE { background:#FFF; width:990px; position:relative; float:left; top: 50px; z-index:-1; } and here is the HTML: <!--[if IE 7]> <div class="content_IE" style="height:750px;"> <![endif]--> <div class="content" style="height:550px;"> Everything is fine with the z-index but the problem is that if there is no top in .content class everything looks fine in IE but there is no space in the other browsers. If i put back the top:50px; there onother 50px like padding in the .content_IE class. I mean that the page looks like I've put top:50px; and padding-top=50px;. I've try everything like margin-top:-50px; padding-top:-50px; and stuff like this but I am still in the circle. It look fine only if there is no top option in .content class. Please help.

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  • ACL implementation

    - by Kirzilla
    First question Please, could you explain me how simpliest ACL could be implemented in MVC. Here is the first approach of using Acl in Controller... <?php class MyController extends Controller { public function myMethod() { //It is just abstract code $acl = new Acl(); $acl->setController('MyController'); $acl->setMethod('myMethod'); $acl->getRole(); if (!$acl->allowed()) die("You're not allowed to do it!"); ... } } ?> It is very bad approach, and it's minus is that we have to add Acl piece of code into each controller's method, but we don't need any additional dependencies! Next approach is to make all controller's methods private and add ACL code into controller's __call method. <?php class MyController extends Controller { private function myMethod() { ... } public function __call($name, $params) { //It is just abstract code $acl = new Acl(); $acl->setController(__CLASS__); $acl->setMethod($name); $acl->getRole(); if (!$acl->allowed()) die("You're not allowed to do it!"); ... } } ?> It is better than previous code, but main minuses are... All controller's methods should be private We have to add ACL code into each controller's __call method. The next approach is to put Acl code into parent Controller, but we still need to keep all child controller's methods private. What is the solution? And what is the best practice? Where should I call Acl functions to decide allow or disallow method to be executed. Second question Second question is about getting role using Acl. Let's imagine that we have guests, users and user's friends. User have restricted access to viewing his profile that only friends can view it. All guests can't view this user's profile. So, here is the logic.. we have to ensure that method being called is profile we have to detect owner of this profile we have to detect is viewer is owner of this profile or no we have to read restriction rules about this profile we have to decide execute or not execute profile method The main question is about detecting owner of profile. We can detect who is owner of profile only executing model's method $model-getOwner(), but Acl do not have access to model. How can we implement this? I hope that my thoughts are clear. Sorry for my English. Thank you.

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  • Asp.net Mvc - Kigg: Maintain User object in HttpContext.Items between requests.

    - by Pickels
    Hallo, first I want to say that I hope this doesn't look like I am lazy but I have some trouble understanding a piece of code from the following project. http://kigg.codeplex.com/ I was going through the source code and I noticed something that would be usefull for my own little project I am making. In their BaseController they have the following code: private static readonly Type CurrentUserKey = typeof(IUser); public IUser CurrentUser { get { if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(CurrentUserName)) { IUser user = HttpContext.Items[CurrentUserKey] as IUser; if (user == null) { user = AccountRepository.FindByClaim(CurrentUserName); if (user != null) { HttpContext.Items[CurrentUserKey] = user; } } return user; } return null; } } This isn't an exact copy of the code I adjusted it a little to my needs. This part of the code I still understand. They store their IUser in HttpContext.Items. I guess they do it so that they don't have to call the database eachtime they need the User object. The part that I don't understand is how they maintain this object in between requests. If I understand correctly the HttpContext.Items is a per request cache storage. So after some more digging I found the following code. internal static IDictionary<UnityPerWebRequestLifetimeManager, object> GetInstances(HttpContextBase httpContext) { IDictionary<UnityPerWebRequestLifetimeManager, object> instances; if (httpContext.Items.Contains(Key)) { instances = (IDictionary<UnityPerWebRequestLifetimeManager, object>) httpContext.Items[Key]; } else { lock (httpContext.Items) { if (httpContext.Items.Contains(Key)) { instances = (IDictionary<UnityPerWebRequestLifetimeManager, object>) httpContext.Items[Key]; } else { instances = new Dictionary<UnityPerWebRequestLifetimeManager, object>(); httpContext.Items.Add(Key, instances); } } } return instances; } This is the part where some magic happens that I don't understand. I think they use Unity to do some dependency injection on each request? In my project I am using Ninject and I am wondering how I can get the same result. I guess InRequestScope in Ninject is the same as UnityPerWebRequestLifetimeManager? I am also wondering which class/method they are binding to which interface? Since the HttpContext.Items get destroyed each request how do they prevent losing their user object? Anyway it's kinda a long question so I am gradefull for any push in the right direction. Kind regards, Pickels

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  • How do you unit test the real world?

    - by Kim Sun-wu
    I'm primarily a C++ coder, and thus far, have managed without really writing tests for all of my code. I've decided this is a Bad Idea(tm), after adding new features that subtly broke old features, or, depending on how you wish to look at it, introduced some new "features" of their own. But, unit testing seems to be an extremely brittle mechanism. You can test for something in "perfect" conditions, but you don't get to see how your code performs when stuff breaks. A for instance is a crawler, let's say it crawls a few specific sites, for data X. Do you simply save sample pages, test against those, and hope that the sites never change? This would work fine as regression tests, but, what sort of tests would you write to constantly check those sites live and let you know when the application isn't doing it's job because the site changed something, that now causes your application to crash? Wouldn't you want your test suite to monitor the intent of the code? The above example is a bit contrived, and something I haven't run into (in case you haven't guessed). Let me pick something I have, though. How do you test an application will do its job in the face of a degraded network stack? That is, say you have a moderate amount of packet loss, for one reason or the other, and you have a function DoSomethingOverTheNetwork() which is supposed to degrade gracefully when the stack isn't performing as it's supposed to; but does it? The developer tests it personally by purposely setting up a gateway that drops packets to simulate a bad network when he first writes it. A few months later, someone checks in some code that modifies something subtly, so the degradation isn't detected in time, or, the application doesn't even recognize the degradation, this is never caught, because you can't run real world tests like this using unit tests, can you? Further, how about file corruption? Let's say you're storing a list of servers in a file, and the checksum looks okay, but the data isn't really. You want the code to handle that, you write some code that you think does that. How do you test that it does exactly that for the life of the application? Can you? Hence, brittleness. Unit tests seem to test the code only in perfect conditions(and this is promoted, with mock objects and such), not what they'll face in the wild. Don't get me wrong, I think unit tests are great, but a test suite composed only of them seems to be a smart way to introduce subtle bugs in your code while feeling overconfident about it's reliability. How do I address the above situations? If unit tests aren't the answer, what is? Thanks!

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  • Working with friends. Poor career choice?

    - by a_person
    Hi all, Hope you can help me solve somewhat of a moral dilemma. Some time ago, after just a few years of living in U.S. and having to take any job I could get my hands on a friend of mine submitted recommended me for an open position at the company that he was working for. I could have not been happier. I do not have a degree of any sort, however, by being passionate about CS and with constant drive for self education I've became a somewhat of a strong generalist. Every place I worked for recognized me for that quality and used me on various projects where set of technology in hand had no overlap with set of knowledge of the team members. Rapidly I've advanced to Sr. Programmer position and the trend of me following a friend from one place to another have started and continued on for a few years. My friend's goal always been to become an IT Director, mine is to become the best programmer I can be. To my knowledge I've accommodated his goals as much as I could by taking a back seat, and letting him take the lead. Fast forward to today. He's a manager, and I am on his team. I am unhappy and I in considerable amount of suffering. I am not being utilized to my potential, it's almost exact opposite, I am being micromanaged to an unhealthy extent, my decisions, and suggestions are constantly met with negative connotation. Last week I had to hear about how my friend is a better programmer than I am. My ego was ecstatic about this one /s. In addition to that working in the field of BI have exhausted itself for most parts. The only pleasure of my work is being derived from making everything as dynamic and parameter driven as possible. This is the only area where a friend of mine does not feel competent enough to actually micromanage. Because of my situation I feel a fair amount of guilt and ever growing resentment. I need your advice, maybe you've dealt with this expression of ego before, needs of self vs the needs of your friend. Is working with a friend a poor choice? Thank you for reading in.

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  • grdb not working variables

    - by stupid_idiot
    hi, i know this is kinda retarded but I just can't figure it out. I'm debugging this: xor eax,eax mov ah,[var1] mov al,[var2] call addition stop: jmp stop var1: db 5 var2: db 6 addition: add ah,al ret the numbers that I find on addresses var1 and var2 are 0x0E and 0x07. I know it's not segmented, but that ain't reason for it to do such escapades, because the addition call works just fine. Could you please explain to me where is my mistake? I see the problem, dunno how to fix it yet though. The thing is, for some reason the instruction pointer starts at 0x100 and all the segment registers at 0x1628. To address the instruction the used combination is i guess [cs:ip] (one of the segment registers and the instruction pointer for sure). The offset to var1 is 0x10 (probably because from the begining of the code it's the 0x10th byte in order), i tried to examine the memory and what i got was: 1628:100 8 bytes 1628:108 8 bytes 1628:110 <- wtf? (assume another 8 bytes) 1628:118 ... whatever tricks are there in the memory [cs:var1] points somewhere else than in my code, which is probably where the label .data would usually address ds.... probably.. i don't know what is supposed to be at 1628:10 ok, i found out what caused the assness and wasted me whole fuckin day. the behaviour described above is just correct, the code is fully functional. what i didn't know is that grdb debugger for some reason sets the begining address to 0x100... the sollution is to insert the directive ORG 0x100 on the first line and that's the whole thing. the code was working because instruction pointer has the right address to first instruction and goes one by one, but your assembler doesn't know what effective address will be your program stored at so it pretty much remains relative to first line of the code which means all the variables (if not using label for data section) will remain pointing as if it started at 0x0. which of course wouldn't work with DOS. and grdb apparently emulates some DOS features... sry for the language, thx everyone for effort, hope this will spare someone's time if having the same problem... heheh.. at least now i know the reason why to use .data section :))))

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  • calling startActivity() inside of a instance method - causing a NullPointerException

    - by Cole
    Heya - I'm trying to call startActivity() from a class that extends AsyncTask in the onPostExecute(). Here's the flow: Class that extends AsyncTask: protected void onPostExecute() { Login login = new Login(); login.pushCreateNewOrChooseExistingFormActivity(); } Class that extends Activity: public void pushCreateNewOrChooseExistingFormActivity() { // start the CreateNewOrChooseExistingForm Activity Intent intent = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_VIEW); **ERROR_HERE*** intent.setClassName(this, CreateNewOrChooseExistingForm.class.getName()); startActivity(intent); } And I get this error… every time: 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): FATAL EXCEPTION: main 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): java.lang.NullPointerException 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): at android.content.ContextWrapper.getPackageName(ContextWrapper.java:120) 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): at android.content.ComponentName.(ComponentName.java:62) 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): at android.content.Intent.setClassName(Intent.java:4850) 03-17 16:04:29.579: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(1503): at com.att.AppName.Login.pushCreateNewOrChooseExistingFormActivity(Login.java:47) For iOS developers - I'm just trying to push a new view controller on to a navigational controller's stack a la pushViewController:animated:. Which apparently - is hard to do on this platform. Any ideas? Thanks in advance! UPDATE - FIXED: per @Falmarri advice, i managed to resolve this issue. first of all, i'm no longer calling Login login = new Login(); to create a new login object. bad. bad. bad. no cookie. instead, when preparing to call .execute(), this tutorial suggests passing the applicationContext to the class the executes the AsyncTask, for my purposes, as shown below: CallWebServiceTask task = new CallWebServiceTask(); // pass the login object to the task task.applicationContext = login; // execute the task in the background, passing the required params task.execute(login); now, in onPostExecute(), i can get to my Login objects methods like so: ((Login) applicationContext).pushCreateNewOrChooseExistingFormActivity(); ((Login) applicationContext).showLoginFailedAlert(result.get("httpResponseCode").toString()); ... hope this helps someone else out there! especially iOS developers transistioning over to Android...

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  • Xcode + Perforce: it frequently shows me the spinning wheel for no reason! What can i do?

    - by GamingHorror
    While working on an Xcode project i keep getting the spinning wheel while switching files, scrolling, searching, typing, debugging, removing breakpoints, switching back from another app or saving. It also happens before compiling but usually it just happens from time to time for no apparent reason. This is the second time this started happening in a Xcode project and it's driving me nuts. It completely breaks my flow of work to have to wait for the spinning wheel to go away (2-5 seconds). What on earth could i possibly do to ... figure out what's causing the problem? resolve the problem? More details: When any project is small, everything is super-smooth with Xcode and Perforce. Two of my projects eventually had this spinning wheel problem after about 4 weeks of work. It only happened with those two projects so far. They consist of around 1000-1200 files in source control, most of them assets. The problem occurs even if i manually check out the whole project in Perforce. The problem is gone when i copy the project directory and work in the copy which is no longer under source control, or if i create a branch in Perforce and work in the branch (under source control). One of these projects i shared with a colleague, and he had exactly the same issues on his Mac. We eventually switched to Subversion and the spinning-wheel issue immediately went away. Now that i've received an updated copy of the project and simply put it under Perforce as a new project, the problem also went away (so far it did not resurface). It leads me to think that it may be caused by a larger number of file revisions. The server itself (version 2009.1) is on a different (Windows) machine on my LAN, so there's definetely no Internet lag involved. The complete repository is just 1 GB in size spread over a dozen projects or so. I'm sorry if the question seems more like a support inquiry for Perforce. However i'm using the free version of Perforce so i'm not entitled to get support from them. I hope no one minds me asking here. I'm really bummed out by this. I don't want to have to create a new branch for the project each time the spinning wheel problem surfaces.

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  • Add jquery link to returned text...

    - by Jerry
    Hi all I am trying to add two jquery plugins files to my application. When a user triggers my ajax event, the server will return text with a form button. The plugins (a jquery calendar) will work when the user clicks the form button inside the returned text . I believe I have to add the link inside the return text instead of the main page to let the code work, but not sure how to do this. I am giving out my code and need you experts opinions. Thanks. My main page html //required jquery plugins ...didn't work if I add them in the main application. <script type="text/javascript" src="JS/date.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="JS/datePicker.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="JS/selectWeek.js"></script> <div id="gameInfo"> //return text will be displayed here. </div> My returned text ...part of it.... <form> <div id=returnDiv> // the form input will be added here when a user clicks #addMatch button... </div> <tr> <td><input type="button" id="addMatch" name="addMatch" value="Add Match"/> </td> </tr> </form> My jquery $("#addMatch").live('click', function(){ //the code below will create a calender when a user click the link...I am not sure //where I should add my two jquery plugins link... $("#returnDiv").html("<td><input type='text' size='6' class='date-pick dp-applied'"+ "name='date'><a style='color:white;' class='dp-choose-date' title='Choose Date'"+ "href='#'>Date</a></td>"; return false; }); I hope I explain my question well. +1 to any reply...:D

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  • mod_rewrite not working for a specific directory

    - by punkish
    This has got me completely foxed for a couple of days now, and I am convinced that I will look stupid once I solve it, but will be even stupider if I don't ask for help now. I have mod_rewrite working successfully on my localhost (no vhosts involved; this is my laptop, my development machine), and I use .htaccess in various directories to help rewrite crufty URLs to clean ones. EXCEPT... it doesn't work in one directory. Since it is impossible to reproduce my entire laptop in this question, I provide the following details. In my httpd.conf, I have mod_rewrite.so loaded. LoadModule rewrite_module modules/mod_rewrite.so In my httpd.conf, I have included another conf file like so Include /usr/local/apache2/conf/other/punkish.conf In my punkish.conf, I have directories defined like so DocumentRoot "/Users/punkish/Sites" <Directory "/Users/punkish/Sites"> Options ExecCGI AllowOverride None Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> <Directory "/Users/punkish/Sites/one"> Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride All Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> <Directory "/Users/punkish/Sites/two"> Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride All Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> In ~/Sites/one I have the following .htaccess file RewriteEngine On RewriteBase /one/ # If an actual file or directory is requested, serve directly RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d # Otherwise, pass everything through to the dispatcher RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.cgi/$1 [L,QSA] and, everything works just fine. However, in my directory ~/Sites/two I have the following .htaccess file RewriteEngine On RewriteBase /two/ # If an actual file or directory is requested, serve directly RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d # Otherwise, pass everything through to the dispatcher RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.cgi/$1 [L,QSA] and, nothing works. Nada. Zip. Zilch. I just get a 404. I have determined that mod_rewrite is not even looking at my ~/Sites/two/.htaccess by putting spurious commands in it and not getting any error other than 404. Another confounding issue -- I have turned on RewriteLog in my httpd.conf with RewriteLogLevel 3, but my rewrite_log is completely empty. I know this is hard to trouble shoot unless sitting physically at the computer in question, but I hope someone can give me some indication as to what is going on. **Update: ** There are no aliases involved anywhere. This is my laptop, and everything is under the above stated Document Root, so I just access each directory as http://localhost/. Yes, typos are a big possibility (I did say that I will look stupid once I solve it, however, for now, I have not discovered a single typo anywhere, and yes, I have restarted Apache about a dozen times now. I even thought that perhaps I had two different Apaches running, but no, I have only one, the one under /usr/local/apache2, and I installed it myself a while back.

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  • How can a button click method find out which item is selected in a ListView?

    - by Ian Bayley
    I have a single screen with a bank of buttons below a ListView. Entries on the ListView light up in orange when I scroll so I assume that are selected. When I then press the "Delete" button I want the onClickListener to remove the currently selected entry. But getSelectedItemPosition() always gives me -1. If I can't hope to use the GUI controls in this way, please give me another way of getting the same result. I have even tried setting the onClickListener of the List View to store the index before the button is pressed (in case pressing the button unselects the entry) but even that is always -1 it seems. Here's the code (without the modification which didn't work) package com.bayley; import android.app.Activity; import android.os.Bundle; import android.view.View; import android.widget.ArrayAdapter; import android.widget.Button; import android.widget.EditText; import android.widget.ListView; import java.util.ArrayList; /** * * @author p0074564 */ public class September extends Activity { /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle icicle) { super.onCreate(icicle); setContentView(R.layout.main); final ListView myListView = (ListView) findViewById(R.id.myListView); Button addButton = (Button) findViewById(R.id.AddButton); Button deleteButton = (Button) findViewById(R.id.DeleteButton); final EditText editText = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.myEditText); final ArrayList<String> todoItems = new ArrayList<String>(); todoItems.add("Monday"); todoItems.add("Tuesday"); todoItems.add("Wednesday"); final ArrayAdapter<String> aa = new ArrayAdapter<String>(this, android.R.layout.simple_list_item_1, todoItems); myListView.setAdapter(aa); addButton.setOnClickListener(new Button.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { todoItems.add(editText.getText().toString()); aa.notifyDataSetChanged(); } }); deleteButton.setOnClickListener(new Button.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { // always returns -1 unfortunately ie nothing is ever selected int index = myListView.getSelectedItemPosition(); if (index >= 0) { todoItems.remove(index); } aa.notifyDataSetChanged(); } }); } }

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  • Internet Explorer 8 + Deflate

    - by Andreas Bonini
    I have a very weird problem.. I really do hope someone has an answer because I wouldn't know where else to ask. I am writing a cgi application in C++ which is executed by Apache and outputs HTML code. I am compressing the HTML output myself - from within my C++ application - since my web host doesn't support mod_deflate for some reason. I tested this with Firefox 2, Firefox 3, Opera 9, Opera 10, Google Chrome, Safari, IE6, IE7, IE8, even wget.. It works with ANYTHING except IE8. IE8 just says "Internet Explorer cannot display the webpage", with no information whatsoever. I know it's because of the compression only because it works if I disable it. Do you know what I'm doing wrong? I use zlib to compress it, and the exact code is: /* Compress it */ int compressed_output_size = content.length() + (content.length() * 0.2) + 16; char *compressed_output = (char *)Alloc(compressed_output_size); int compressed_output_length; Compress(compressed_output, compressed_output_size, (void *)content.c_str(), content.length(), &compressed_output_length); /* Send the compressed header */ cout << "Content-Encoding: deflate\r\n"; cout << boost::format("Content-Length: %d\r\n") % compressed_output_length; cgiHeaderContentType("text/html"); cout.write(compressed_output, compressed_output_length); static void Compress(void *to, size_t to_size, void *from, size_t from_size, int *final_size) { int ret; z_stream stream; stream.zalloc = Z_NULL; stream.zfree = Z_NULL; stream.opaque = Z_NULL; if ((ret = deflateInit(&stream, CompressionSpeed)) != Z_OK) COMPRESSION_ERROR("deflateInit() failed: %d", ret); stream.next_out = (Bytef *)to; stream.avail_out = (uInt)to_size; stream.next_in = (Bytef *)from; stream.avail_in = (uInt)from_size; if ((ret = deflate(&stream, Z_NO_FLUSH)) != Z_OK) COMPRESSION_ERROR("deflate() failed: %d", ret); if (stream.avail_in != 0) COMPRESSION_ERROR("stream.avail_in is not 0 (it's %d)", stream.avail_in); if ((ret = deflate(&stream, Z_FINISH)) != Z_STREAM_END) COMPRESSION_ERROR("deflate() failed: %d", ret); if ((ret = deflateEnd(&stream)) != Z_OK) COMPRESSION_ERROR("deflateEnd() failed: %d", ret); if (final_size) *final_size = stream.total_out; return; }

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  • Creating a binary file from an IntelHex in C#

    - by Allek
    I'm trying to create a binary file from a intelHex file. Iside the intelHex file I have data and address to which I should write the data inside the binary file. IntelHex file looks like that :10010000214601360121470136007EFE09D2190140 :100110002146017EB7C20001FF5F16002148011988 :10012000194E79234623965778239EDA3F01B2CAA7 :100130003F0156702B5E712B722B732146013421C7 :00000001FF So I have 4 lines here with data since the last one tells us thats the end of file. Here is what I'm doing to create the file while (!streamReader.EndOfStream) { string temp = String.Empty; int address = 0; line = streamReader.ReadLine(); // Get address for each data address = Convert.ToInt32(line.Substring(3, 4), 16); // Get data from each line temp = line.Substring(7, 2); if (temp == "01") break; else { temp = line.Substring(9, line.Length - 11); string[] array = new string[(temp.Length / 2)]; int j = 0; for (int i = 0; i < array.Length; ++i) { array[i] = temp[j].ToString() + temp[j + 1].ToString(); j = j + 2; } temp = String.Empty; for (int i = 0; i < array.Length; ++i) { temp = temp + Convert.ToChar(Convert.ToInt32(array[i], 16)); } } binaryWriter.Seek(address, SeekOrigin.Begin); binaryWriter.Write(temp); binaryWriter.Flush(); } Console.WriteLine("Done...\nPress any key to exit..."); The problem here is, that data in binary file in some places is not equal to data from the intelHex file. Looks like there is some random data added to the file and I do not know from where. First time I saw that there is an additional data before the data from the intelHex file. For instance first data line starts with 21, but in binary file I have a number 12 before the 21. I do not know what is wrong here. Hope someone can help me or guide me where I can find some usefull informations about creating binary files in C#

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  • remove data layer and put into it's own domain

    - by user334768
    I have a SL4 application that uses EF4 & RIA Services. DB is SQL 2008. All is working well. Now I want to put the Database and web services on one domain (A.com) with the web service exposing the same methods available in my working project. (one listed at top of message) Then put a Silverlight application (same one as above) on domain(B.com) and call the web services on A.com. I thought I had a fair understanding of RIA Services. Enough to get the above application working. Now when I say "working" I do mean on my local dev machine. I have yet to deployed as SL4 & .NET 4 application to my hosting site. But I don't think I understand it well enough. I normally create a new business app, add EF then create the RIA DomainService. Add any [Includes] I need, modify my linq queries and run application. And it works. Now I need to break off my data layer and put it on another hosting site (A.com) And put my UI and business logic on another hosting site (B.com) I think I need to do the following : On the Database & web service site: domain(A.com) create application, create EF4, create RIA Services and deploy. At this time, are the methods exposed available as a "WEB SERVICE" to other applications calling by http:// a.com/serviceName.svc address? I think I need to do the following : On the application site : domain(B.com) create a business application (later will need authentication and navigation). How can I create an EF when I don't have access to the database? (I know I do have access but I want know what happens here when I do not have access to the database, but only data provided by a web service) If I can not create an EF how do I create my RIA Service? I hope any one who takes time to help me understands what I'm asking. Sorry so long.

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  • making a password-only auth with bcrypt and mongoose

    - by user3081123
    I want to create service that let you login only with password. You type a password and if this password exists - you are logged in and if it's not - username is generated and password is encrypted. I'm having some misunderstandings and hope someone would help me to show where I'm mistaken. I guess, it would look somewhat like this in agularjs First we receive a password in login controller. $scope.signup = function() { var user = { password: $scope.password, }; $http.post('/auth/signup', user); }; Send it via http.post and get in in our node server file. We are provided with a compare password bcrypt function userSchema.methods.comparePassword = function(candidatePassword, cb) { bcrypt.compare(candidatePassword, this.password, function(err, isMatch) { if (err) return cb(err); cb(null, isMatch); }); }; So right now we are creating function to catch our http request app.post('/auth/signup', function(req, res, next) { Inside we use a compair password function to realize if such password exists or not yet. So we have to encrypt a password with bcrypt to make a comparison First we hash it same way as in .pre var encPass; bcrypt.genSalt(10, function(err, salt) { if (err) return next(err); bcrypt.hash(req.body.password, salt, function(err, hash) { if (err) return next(err); encPass=hash; )}; )}; We have encrypted password stored in encPass so now we follow to finding a user in database with this password User.findOne({ password: encPass }, function(err, user) { if (user) { //user exists, it means we should pass an ID of this user to a controller to display it in a view. I don't know how. res.send({user.name}) //like this? How should controller receive this? With $http.post? } else { and now if user doesn't exist - we should create it with user ID generated by my function var nUser = new User({ name: generId(), password: req.body.password }); nUser.save(function(err) { if (err) return next(err); )}; )}; )}; Am I doing anything right? I'm pretty new to js and angular. If so - how do I throw a username back at controller? If someone is interested - this service exists for 100+ symbol passphrases so possibility of entering same passphrase as someone else is miserable. And yeah, If someone logged in under 123 password - the other guy will log in as same user if he entered 123 password, but hey, you are warned to make a big passphrase. So I'm confident about the idea and I only need a help with understanding and realization.

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  • MATLAB query about for loop, reading in data and plotting

    - by mp7
    Hi there, I am a complete novice at using matlab and am trying to work out if there is a way of optimising my code. Essentially I have data from model outputs and I need to plot them using matlab. In addition I have reference data (with 95% confidence intervals) which I plot on the same graph to get a visual idea on how close the model outputs and reference data is. In terms of the model outputs I have several thousand files (number sequentially) which I open in a loop and plot. The problem/question I have is whether I can preprocess the data and then plot later - to save time. The issue I seem to be having when I try this is that I have a legend which either does not appear or is inaccurate. My code (apolgies if it not elegant): fn= xlsread(['tbobserved' '.xls']); time= fn(:,1); totalreference=fn(:,4); totalreferencelowerci=fn(:,6); totalreferenceupperci=fn(:,7); figure plot(time,totalrefrence,'-', time, totalreferencelowerci,'--', time, totalreferenceupperci,'--'); xlabel('Year'); ylabel('Reference incidence per 100,000 population'); title ('Total'); clickableLegend('Observed reference data', 'Totalreferencelowerci', 'Totalreferenceupperci','Location','BestOutside'); xlim([1910 1970]); hold on start_sim=10000; end_sim=10005; h = zeros (1,1000); for i=start_sim:end_sim %is there any way of doing this earlier to save time? a=int2str(i); incidenceFile =strcat('result_', 'Sim', '_', a, 'I_byCal_total.xls'); est_tot=importdata(incidenceFile, '\t', 1); cal_tot=est_tot.data; magnitude=1; t1=cal_tot(:,1)+1750; totalmodel=cal_tot(:,3)+cal_tot(:,5); h(a)=plot(t1,totalmodel); xlim([1910 1970]); ylim([0 500]); hold all clickableLegend(h(a),a,'Location','BestOutside') end Essentially I was hoping to have a way of reading in the data and then plot later - ie. optimise the code. I hope you might be able to help. Thanks. mp

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  • Remove specific definitions from a variable in PHP

    - by Amit
    Hi everyone, I have a PHP mail script that validates name, email address, and phone number before sending the mail. This then means that the Name, Email address, and Phone fields are Required Fields. I want to have it so that the Name and EITHER Email or Phone are required. Such that if a name and phone are inputted, it sends the mail, or if a name and an email are inputted, it also sends the email. The way the script works right now is it has several IF statements that check for (1) name, (2) email and (3) phone. Here's an example of an if statement of the code: if ( ($email == "") ) { $errors .= $emailError; // no email address entered $email_error = true; } if ( !(preg_match($match,$email)) ) { $errors .= $invalidEmailError; // checks validity of email $email_error = true; } And here's how it sends the mail: if ( !($errors) ) { mail ($to, $subject, $message, $headers); echo "<p id='correct'>"; echo "?????? ????? ??????!"; echo "</p>"; } else { if (($email_error == true)) { $errors != $phoneError; /*echo "<p id='errors'>"; echo $errors; echo "</p>";*/ } if (($phone_error == true)) { $errors != $emailError; $errors != $invalidEmailError; /*echo "<p id='errors'>"; echo $errors; echo "</p>";*/ } echo "<p id='errors'>"; echo $errors; echo "</p>"; } This doesn't work though. Basically this is what I want to do: If no email address was entered or if it was entered incorrectly, set a variable called $email_error to be true. Then check for that variable, and if it's true, then remove the $phoneError part of the $errors variable. Man I hope I'm making some sense here. Does anyone know why this doesn't work? It reports all errors if all fields are left empty :( Thanks! Amit

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  • Unit testing class in a web service in .net

    - by Dan Bailiff
    After some digging here, I took the advice in this thread: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/371961/how-to-unit-test-c-web-service-with-visual-studio-2008 I've created a separate class and my web service class is just a wrapper for that one. The problem is that when I try to create a unit test project in VS2008, it insists on creating a unit test that acts like I'm testing the web service calls instead of the class I specified. I can't get to the class I'm trying to test. I have a web service "subscription_api.asmx". The code behind is "subscription_api.cs" which contains the web method wrapper calls to the real code at "subscription.cs". I would expect to be able to do the following: [TestMethod()] public void GetSystemStatusTest() { subscription sub = new subscription(); XmlNode node = sub.GetSystemStatusTest(); Assert.IsNotNull(node); } But instead I get this mess which is autogenerated from VS'08: /// <summary> ///A test for GetSystemStatus ///</summary> // TODO: Ensure that the UrlToTest attribute specifies a URL to an ASP.NET page (for example, // http://.../Default.aspx). This is necessary for the unit test to be executed on the web server, // whether you are testing a page, web service, or a WCF service. [TestMethod()] [HostType("ASP.NET")] [AspNetDevelopmentServerHost("C:\\CVSROOT\\rnr\\pro\\product\\wms\\ss\\subscription_api", "/subscription_api")] [UrlToTest("http://localhost/subscription_api")] public void GetSystemStatusTest() { subscription_Accessor target = new subscription_Accessor(); // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value XmlNode expected = null; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value XmlNode actual; actual = target.GetSystemStatus(); Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); Assert.Inconclusive("Verify the correctness of this test method."); } Additionally, there is a "subscription_api.accessor" in the Test References folder. When I try this: [TestMethod()] public void GetSystemStatusTest2() { subscription_Accessor sub = new subscription_Accessor(); XmlNode node = sub.GetSystemStatus(); Assert.IsNotNull(node); } I get an error: Test method subscription_api.Test.subscriptionTest.GetSystemStatusTest2 threw exception: System.TypeInitializationException: The type initializer for 'subscription_Accessor' threw an exception. ---> System.ArgumentNullException: Value cannot be null. I'm really new to unit testing and feel lost. How can I create a unit test just for my subscription class in "subscription.cs" without testing the web service? Am I limited to testing within the same project (I hope not)? Do I have to put the target class in its own project outside of the web service project?

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  • Casting to derived type problem in C++

    - by GONeale
    Hey there everyone, I am quite new to C++, but have worked with C# for years, however it is not helping me here! :) My problem: I have an Actor class which Ball and Peg both derive from on an objective-c iphone game I am working on. As I am testing for collision, I wish to set an instance of Ball and Peg appropriately depending on the actual runtime type of actorA or actorB. My code that tests this as follows: // Actors that collided Actor *actorA = (Actor*) bodyA->GetUserData(); Actor *actorB = (Actor*) bodyB->GetUserData(); Ball* ball; Peg* peg; if (static_cast<Ball*> (actorA)) { // true ball = static_cast<Ball*> (actorA); } else if (static_cast<Ball*> (actorB)) { ball = static_cast<Ball*> (actorB); } if (static_cast<Peg*> (actorA)) { // also true?! peg = static_cast<Peg*> (actorA); } else if (static_cast<Peg*> (actorB)) { peg = static_cast<Peg*> (actorB); } if (peg != NULL) { [peg hitByBall]; } Once ball and peg are set, I then proceed to run the hitByBall method (objective c). Where my problem really lies is in the casting procedurel Ball casts fine from actorA; the first if (static_cast<>) statement steps in and sets the ball pointer appropriately. The second step is to assign the appropriate type to peg. I know peg should be a Peg type and I previously know it will be actorB, however at runtime, detecting the types, I was surprised to find actually the third if (static_cast<>) statement stepped in and set this, this if statement was to check if actorA was a Peg, which we already know actorA is a Ball! Why would it have stepped here and not in the fourth if statement? The only thing I can assume is how casting works differently from c# and that is it finds that actorA which is actually of type Ball derives from Actor and then it found when static_cast<Peg*> (actorA) is performed it found Peg derives from Actor too, so this is a valid test? This could all come down to how I have misunderstood the use of static_cast. How can I achieve what I need? :) I'm really uneasy about what feels to me like a long winded brute-casting attempt here with a ton of ridiculous if statements. I'm sure there is a more elegant way to achieve a simple cast to Peg and cast to Ball dependent on actual type held in actorA and actorB. Hope someone out there can help! :) Thanks a lot.

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  • Execution plan issue requires reset on SQL Server 2005, how to determine cause?

    - by Tony Brandner
    We have a web application that delivers training to thousands of corporate students running on top of SQL Server 2005. Recently, we started seeing that a single specific query in the application went from 1 second to about 30 seconds in terms of execution time. The application started throwing timeouts in that area. Our first thought was that we may have incorrect indexes, so we reviewed the tables and indexes. However, similar queries elsewhere in the application also run quickly. Reviewing the indexes showed us that they were configured as expected. We were able to narrow it down to a single query, not a stored procedure. Running this query in SQL Studio also runs quickly. We tried running the application in a different server environment. So a different web server with the same query, parameters and database. The query still ran slow. The query is a fairly large one related to determining a student's current list of training. It includes joins and left joins on a dozen tables and subqueries. A few of the tables are fairly large (hundreds of thousands of rows) and some of the other tables are small lookup tables. The query uses a grouping clause and a few where conditions. A few of the tables are quite active and the contents change often but the volume of added rows doesn't seem extreme. These symptoms led us to consider the execution plan. First off, as soon as we reset the execution plan cache with the SQL command 'DBCC FREEPROCCACHE', the problem went away. Unfortunately, the problem started to reoccur within a few days. The problem has continued to plague us for awhile now. It's usually the same query, but we did appear to see the problem occur in another single query recently. It happens enough to be a nuisance. We're having a heck of a time trying to fix it since we can't reproduce it in any other environment other than production. I have downloaded the High Availability guide from Red Gate and I read up more on execution plans. I hope to run the profiler on the live server, but I'm a bit concerned about impact. I would like to ask - what is the best way to figure out what is triggering this problem? Has anyone else seen this same issue?

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  • PHP, MySQL: Display only required parts of my website in sister website

    - by Devner
    Hi all, Now I have my website built on PHP & Mysql. Consider this like a forum. Now when a user posts a reply in my website 1 (ex. www.website1.com), I want to be able to show the starting thread and it's related replies in a sister website of mine. I want to do this in a way that it does not show the rest of the page & other page contents (like logo etc.). I don't think iframe would be a solution because an iframe would embed the whole page and the users visiting my sister website (totally different domain i.e. www.website2.com) would be able to see all the page contents, like logo etc. I want to avoid that. I want to make them see only limited information from website 1 and only the info. that I intend. I hope that makes sense. In a way, you could say that I am trying to replicate my 1 website, and show only a limited part of it. Users browsing 2nd website can post a reply in the 2nd website and it should automatically be posted & visible to the visitors of the website 1. Users of website 1 should not know that a user of website 2 has posted it. They would feel that some user from website 1 has posted it. Do I have to use 2 separate mysql DB or just 1? I think it would be problematic if I am trying to use different DB. I also feel I might have to face DB connectivity issues as I can connect to only 1 DB at a time. It's basically like users of website1.com should feel that they are replying to users of website1.com & users of website2.com should feel that they are replying to users of website2.com. (I need it this way to bridge the gap between them). At the same time I want to make the front end of the websites different so that they don't feel that they are replying to some other users outside the domain. These websites would be under my control and I will have access to the source code at any time. If I need to change the source code, these changes are welcome. Is this really possible? Thank you in advance.

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  • OpenGL ES Polygon with Normals rendering (Note the 'ES!')

    - by MarqueIV
    Ok... imagine I have a relatively simple solid that has six distinct normals but actually has close to 48 faces (8 faces per direction) and there are a LOT of shared vertices between faces. What's the most efficient way to render that in OpenGL? I know I can place the vertices in an array, then use an index array to render them, but I have to keep breaking my rendering steps down to change the normals (i.e. set normal 1... render 8 faces... set normal 2... render 8 faces, etc.) Because of that I have to maintain an array of index arrays... one for each normal! Not good! The other way I can do it is to use separate normal and vertex arrays (or even interleave them) but that means I need to have a one-to-one ratio for normals to vertices and that means the normals would be duplicated 8 times more than they need to be! On something with a spherical or even curved surface, every normal most likely is different, but for this, it really seems like a waste of memory. In a perfect world I'd like to have my vertex and normal arrays have different lengths, then when I go to draw my triangles or quads To specify the index to each array for that vertex. Now the OBJ file format lets you specify exactly that... a vertex array and a normal array of different lengths, then when you specify the face you are rendering, you specify a vertex and a normal index (as well as a UV coord if you are using textures too) which seems like the perfect solution! 48 vertices but only 8 normals, then pairs of indexes defining the shapes' faces. But I'm not sure how to render that in OpenGL ES (again, note the 'ES'.) Currently I have to 'denormalize' (sorry for the SQL pun there) the normals back to a 1-to-1 with the vertex array, then render. Just wastes memory to me. Anyone help? I hope I'm missing something very simple here. Mark

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  • How to display image from server (newest-oldest) to a new php page?

    - by Jben Kaye
    i have a form that create images and save it on a folder in the server. What i need to do is to display ALL created images to another page, the newest on the top and so that the oldest is at the bottom. i have a form called formdisplay.php but it's just displaying a broken image and not newest to oldest. hope you can help me with this. really need to get this working. thanks in advance for your help. i have read the posts but none of those worked for me. Pull dedicated images from folder - show image + filename (strip part of filename + file-extension) How can I display latest uploaded image first? (PHP+CSS) getting images from the server and display them Displaying images from folder in php display image from server embedding php in html formcreatesave.php imagecopymerge($im, $img2, 10, 350, 0, 0, imagesx($img2), imagesy($img2), 100); $date_created = date("YmdHis");//get date created $img_name = "-img_entry.jpg"; //the file name of the generated image $img_newname = $date_created . $img_name; //datecreated+name $img_dir =dirname($_SERVER['SCRIPT_FILENAME']) ."/". $img_newname; //the location to save imagejpeg($im, $img_dir , 80); //function to save the image with the name and quality imagedestroy($im); formdisplay.php $dir = '/home3/birdieon/public_html/Amadeus/uploader/uploader'; $base_url = 'http://birdieonawire.com/Amadeus/uploader/uploader/20131027024705-img_entry.jpg'; $newest_mtime = 0; $show_file = 'BROKEN'; if ($handle = opendir($dir)) { while (false !== ($file = readdir($handle))) { if (($file != '.') && ($file != '..')) { $mtime = filemtime("$dir/$file"); if ($mtime > $newest_mtime) { $newest_mtime = $mtime; $show_file = "$base_url/$file"; } } } } print '<img src="' .$show_file. '" alt="Image Title Here">'; please feel free to edit my code. thanks :)

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  • PHP echo query result in Class??

    - by Jerry
    Hi all I have a question about PHP Class. I am trying to get the result from Mysql via PHP. I would like to know if the best practice is to display the result inside the Class or store the result and handle it in html. For example, display result inside the Class class Schedule { public $currentWeek; function teamQuery($currentWeek){ $this->currentWeek=$currentWeek; } function getSchedule(){ $connection = mysql_connect(DB_SERVER,DB_USER,DB_PASS); if (!$connection) { die("Database connection failed: " . mysql_error()); } $db_select = mysql_select_db(DB_NAME,$connection); if (!$db_select) { die("Database selection failed: " . mysql_error()); } $scheduleQuery=mysql_query("SELECT guest, home, time, winner, pickEnable FROM $this->currentWeek ORDER BY time", $connection); if (!$scheduleQuery){ die("database has errors: ".mysql_error()); } while($row=mysql_fetch_array($scheduleQuery, MYSQL_NUMS)){ //display the result..ex: echo $row['winner']; } mysql_close($scheduleQuery); //no returns } } Or return the query result as a variable and handle in php class Schedule { public $currentWeek; function teamQuery($currentWeek){ $this->currentWeek=$currentWeek; } function getSchedule(){ $connection = mysql_connect(DB_SERVER,DB_USER,DB_PASS); if (!$connection) { die("Database connection failed: " . mysql_error()); } $db_select = mysql_select_db(DB_NAME,$connection); if (!$db_select) { die("Database selection failed: " . mysql_error()); } $scheduleQuery=mysql_query("SELECT guest, home, time, winner, pickEnable FROM $this->currentWeek ORDER BY time", $connection); if (!$scheduleQuery){ die("database has errors: ".mysql_error()); // create an array } $ret = array(); while($row=mysql_fetch_array($scheduleQuery, MYSQL_NUMS)){ $ret[]=$row; } mysql_close($scheduleQuery); return $ret; // and handle the return value in php } } Two things here: I found that returned variable in php is a little bit complex to play with since it is two dimension array. I am not sure what the best practice is and would like to ask you experts opinions. Every time I create a new method, I have to recreate the $connection variable: see below $connection = mysql_connect(DB_SERVER,DB_USER,DB_PASS); if (!$connection) { die("Database connection failed: " . mysql_error()); } $db_select = mysql_select_db(DB_NAME,$connection); if (!$db_select) { die("Database selection failed: " . mysql_error()); } It seems like redundant to me. Can I only do it once instead of calling it anytime I need a query? I am new to php class. hope you guys can help me. thanks.

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  • How can I fix this touch event / draw loop "deadlock"?

    - by Josh
    Just want to start out by saying this seems like a great site, hope you guys can help! I'm trying to use the structure laid out in LunarLander to create a simple game in which the user can drag some bitmaps around on the screen (the actual game is more complex, but that's not important). I ripped out the irrelevant parts of LanderLander, and set up my own bitmap drawing, something like BoardThread (an inner class of BoardView): run() { while(mRun) { canvas = lockSurfaceHolder... syncronized(mSurfaceHolder) { /* drawStuff using member position fields in BoardView */ } unlockSurfaceHolder } } My drawStuff simply walks through some arrays and throws bitmaps onto the canvas. All that works fine. Then I wanted to start handling touch events so that when the user presses a bitmap, it is selected, when the user unpresses a bitmap, it is deselected, and if a bitmap is selected during a touch move event, the bitmap is dragged. I did this stuff by listening for touch events in the BoardView's parent, BoardActivity, and passing them down into the BoardView. Something like In BoardView handleTouchEvent(MotionEvent e) { synchronized(mSurfaceHolder) { /* Modify shared member fields in BoardView so BoardThread can render the bitmaps */ } } This ALSO works fine. I can drag my tiles around the screen no problem. However, every once in a while, when the app first starts up and I trigger my first touch event, the handleTouchEvent stops executing at the synchronized line (as viewed in DDMS). The drawing loop is active during this time (I can tell because a timer changes onscreen), and it usually takes several seconds or more before a bunch of touch events come through the pipeline and everything is fine again. This doesn't seem like deadlock to me, since the draw loop is constantly going in and out of its syncronized block. Shouldn't this allow the event handling thread to grab a lock on mSurfaceHolder? What's going on here? Anyone have suggestions for improving how I've structured this? Some other info. This "hang" only ever occurs on first touch event after activity start. This includes on orientation change after restoreState has been called. Also, I can remove EVERYTHING within the syncronized block in the event handler, and it will still get hung up at the syncronized call. Thanks!

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