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  • Javascript doesn't change document?

    - by egbokul
    Take a look at this example code, which doesn't work: <?xml version='1.0' encoding='UTF-8' ?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> <!-- function moveMe() { document.getElementById('moveme').top = 200; document.getElementById('moveme').style.backgroundcolor = 'green'; document.getElementById('writeme').innerHtml = 'abc'; alert('called!'); } // --> </script> <style type="text/css"> .moveable { position: absolute; top: 30px; left: 200px; width: 100px; height: 100px; background-color: yellow; } #writeme { background-color: red; color: white; } </style> </head> <body> <div id="moveme" class="moveable" onClick="moveMe()"> <p id="writeme">Hello!</p> </div> </body> </html> When I click on the text the alert is displayed, but nothing is changed in the document. The paragraph text is not overwritten, the div is not moved... tested it in FF and IE, also checked the DOM via Firebug: strange thing is that the new values are written to the nodes, but they are displayed in bold, and the old values are still there. WTF? I guess I'm missing something fundamental here.

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  • PHP transfer files from server to server in LAN

    - by cheapez
    So, I have 5-6 pages of requirements. I'm trying to build this application in PHP based on the requirements. I want to transfer files from one server to the other server in LAN, and then send a shell command to the other server to find out if the file has been transferred successfully. In php, I can transfer files using FTP, and send shell commands using SSH. Using the methods above, I will need to open connection to the server first, but I don't know the ftp server name, domain name, ip address, or anything like that. I only know the the server ID (I'm not sure what this ID is, but I guess it is like the computer's name). An example of the server ID is: "c23bap234" How do I open a connection with just that server ID? These servers are in the same building, have LAN connection, don't have connection to the outside world. These machines have PHP, Apache, ... installed. If my post doesn't make sense to you, it's because I'm a learner. I hope someone can help me on this. Thanks in advance.

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  • kQuery : Trying to find a specific instance of a class by number

    - by mattelliottIT
    I guess I have just hit a mental block with this one; maybe some fresh eyes will help. Basically I have a few instance of the class "menu-item" which when clicked call the click function via jQuery and bring up a video. Instead of giving each on an id as well as a class I am trying to find which instance of the class was clicked (1, 2, 3, etc). Just can't seem to get it though. //click listener for menu-items $('.menu-item').click(function(event) { var o = $('.menu-item'); var count = o.length(); // switch(count) { case 0 : filename == 'letters'; break; case 1 : filename == 'the-gift'; break; } var videoPlayer = '<video controls width="618px">'; videoPlayer += '<source src="_video/' + filename + '.mp4" />'; videoPlayer += '</video>'; //place video $('#videoCont').html(videoPlayer); }); I'm trying to create an array there where each instance of the 'menu-item' is one array item. (btw, for now I am just proofing this with an mp4 filetype before I add in the ogv and webm formats). Thanks for any and all help!

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  • Can I create an activity for a particular task without that task coming to the foreground?

    - by Neil Traft
    Here's my use case: The app starts at a login screen. You enter your credentials and hit the "Login" button. Then a progress dialog appears and you wait for some stuff to download. Once the stuff has downloaded, you are taken to a new activity. Exactly which activity you are taken to depends on the server response. Here's my problem: If you go HOME during this login/download process, at some point in the near future your download will complete and will invoke startActivity(). So then the new activity will be pushed to the foreground, rudely interrupting the user. I can't start the activity before I start the download, because, as I mentioned earlier, the activity I start depends on the result of the download. I would obviously not like to interrupt the user like this. One way to solve this is to refrain from calling startActivity() until the user returns to the app. I can do this by keeping track of the LoginActivity's onStop() and onRestart(). But I'm wondering, is there any way to create the activity while it is in the background? That way the user returns to the app and he is ready to go... otherwise he would have to wait for the new activity to be created (which could take some time because the new activity also has to download and display some data). Update: Guess what? I LIED! I could have sworn that starting this activity was causing it to come to the foreground, but I went back to test it again and the problem has magically disappeared. I tested in both 1.6 and 2.0.1 and both OSes were smart enough not to bring a backgrounded task to the front.

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  • How can I run some common code from both (a) scheduled via Windows Task & (b) manually from within W

    - by Greg
    Hi, QUESTION - How can I run some common code from both (a) scheduled via Windows Task & (b) manually from within WinForms app? BACKGROUND: This follows on from the http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2489999/how-can-i-schedule-tasks-in-a-winforms-app thread REQUIREMENTS C# .NETv3.5 project using VS2008 There is an existing function which I want to run both (a) manually from within the WinForms application, and (b) scheduled via Windows Task. APPROACHES So what I'm trying to understand is what options are there to make this work eg Is it possible for a windows task to trigger a function to run within a running/existing WinForms application? (doesn't sound solid I guess) Split code out into two projects and duplicate for both console application that the task manager would run AND code that the winforms app would run Create a common library and re-use this for both the above-mentioned projects in the bullet above Create a service with an interface that both the task manager can access plus the winforms app can manage Actually each of these approaches sounds quite messy/complex - would be really nice to drop back to have the code only once within the one project in VS2008, the only reason I ask about this is I need to have a scheduling function and the suggestion has been to use http://taskscheduler.codeplex.com/ as the means to do this, which takes the scheduling out of my VS2008 project... thanks

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  • Is Domain Anaemia appropriate in a Service Oriented Architecture?

    - by Stimul8d
    I want to be clear on this. When I say domain anaemia, I mean intentional domain anaemia, not accidental. In a world where most of our business logic is hidden away behind a bunch of services, is a full domain model really necessary? This is the question I've had to ask myself recently since working on a project where the "domain" model is in reality a persistence model; none of the domain objects contain any methods and this is a very intentional decision. Initially, I shuddered when I saw a library full of what are essentially type-safe data containers but after some thought it struck me that this particular system doesn't do much but basic CRUD operations, so maybe in this case this is a good choice. My problem I guess is that my experience so far has been very much focussed on a rich domain model so it threw me a little. The remainder of the domain logic is hidden away in a group of helpers, facades and factories which live in a separate assembly. I'm keen to hear what people's thoughts are on this. Obviously, the considerations for reuse of these classes are much simpler but is really that great a benefit?

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  • If Statements Skipping or Evaluating Strangely, JavaScript and jquery

    - by tlm2021
    So in jQuery, I have a global variable "currentSubNav" that stores a current visible element. The following code executes on "mouseenter". I need it to get store element's ID, check to see if there was one. If there wasn't, set the new visible element to the default. $('#mainMenu a').mouseenter(function() { var newName = $(this).attr("id"); if(newName == ''){ var newName = "default"; } Then it checks to see if the new element matches the current one. If so, it returns. If not, it performs the animations to bring in the new one. if(newName == currentSubNav){ return; }else{ $("div[name=" + currentSubNav + "]").animate({"left": "+=600px", "opacity": "toggle"}, "slow"); $("div[name=" + newName + "]").css({"margin-top": "0"}); $("div[name=" + newName + "]").fadeIn(2000); $("div[name=" + currentSubNav + "]").animate({"left": "-=600px"}, 0); currentSubNav = newName; return; } }); I'm using Chrome at the moment, and according to the dev tools that isn't what happens. Problem #1 "$(this).attr("id");" isn't returning undefined as the documentation claims. It seems to be returning "". BUT, when I have the if statement as I do above, it skips over the statement entirely. I set a breakpoint, but it never pauses execuation, so the statement is never evaluated. Problem #2 After the animations occur, instead of using the return at the end of the statements it goes back and uses the return for the "newName == currentSubNav" if statement. I guess that not a big deal, but it's not the intended behavior. I'm fairly new to JavaScript, and it appears I'm missing something about how JavaScript works. But I can't find what anywhere. Any help? Blockquote

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  • Time fields in Rails coming back blank

    - by Isaac Cambron
    I have a simple Rails 3.b1 (Ruby 1.9.1) application running on Sqlite3. I have this table: create_table :time_tests do |t| t.time :time end And I see this behavior: irb(main):001:0> tt = TimeTest.new => #<TimeTest id: nil, time: nil> irb(main):002:0> tt.time = Time.zone.now => Mon, 03 May 2010 20:13:21 UTC +00:00 irb(main):003:0> tt.save => true irb(main):004:0> TimeTest.find(:first) => #<TimeTest id: 1, time: "2000-01-01 20:13:21"> So, the time is coming back blank. Checking the table, the data looks OK: sqlite> select * from time_tests; 1|2010-05-03 20:13:21.774741 I guess it's on the retrieval part? What's going on here?

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  • Should I *always* import my file references into the database in drupal?

    - by sprugman
    I have a cck type with an image field, and a unique_id text field. The file name of the image is based on the unique_id. All of the content, including the image itself is being generated automatically via another process, and I'm parsing what that generates into nodes. Rather than creating separate fields for the id and the image, and doing an official import of the image into the files table, I'm tempted to only create the id field and create the file reference in the theme layer. I can think of pros and cons: 1) Theme Layer Approach Pros: makes the import process much less complex don't have to worry about syncing the db with the file system as things change more flexible -- I can move my images around more easily if I want Cons: maybe not as much The Drupal Way™ not as pure -- I'll wind up with more logic on the theme side. 2) Import Approach Pros: import method is required if we ever wanted to make the files private (we won't.) safer? Maybe I'll know if there's a problem with the image at import time, rather than view time. Since I'll be bulk importing, that might make a difference. if I delete a node through the admin interface, drupal might be able to delete the file for me, as well. Con: more complex import and maintenance All else being equal, simpler is always better, so I'm leaning toward #1. Are there any other issues I'm missing? (Since this is an open ended question, I guess I'll make it a community wiki, whatever that means.)

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  • Should I go to school and get my degree in computer science?

    - by ryan
    I'll try and keep this short and simple. I've always enjoyed programming and I've been doing it since high school. Right after I graduated from high school (2002), I opted to skip college because I was offered a software engineer position. I quit after a couple of years later to team up on various startup companies. However, most of them did not launch as well as expected. But it honestly did not matter to me because I've learned so much from that experience. So fast forwarding to today, now turned 25, I need a job due to this tough economic climate. Looking on Craigslist, a lot of the listings require computer science degrees. It's evident now that programming is what I want to do because I seem to never get enough of it. But just the thought of having to push 2 years without attending any real computer class for an Associates at age 25 is very, very discouraging. And the thought of having to learn from basic (Hello WOOOOORRLLLD) just does not seem exciting. I guess I have 3 questions to wrap this up: Should I just suck it up and go back to school while working at McDonalds at age 25? Is there a way where I can just skip all the boring stuff and just get tested with what I know? From your experience, how many jobs use computer science degrees as prerequisites? Or am I screwed and better pray that my next startup will be the next big thing?

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  • Effective simulation of compound poisson process in Matlab

    - by Henrik
    I need to simulate a huge bunch of compound poisson processes in Matlab on a very fine grid so I am looking to do it most effectively. I need to do a lot of simulations on the same random numbers but with parameters changing so it is practical to draw the uniforms and normals beforehand even though it means i have to draw a lot more than i will probably need and won't matter much because it will only need to be done once compared to in the order 500*n repl times the actual compound process generation. My method is the following: Let T be for how long i need to simulate and N the grid points, then my grid is: t=linspace(1,T,N); Let nrepl be the number of processes i need then I simulate P=poissrnd(lambda,nrepl,1); % Number of jumps for each replication U=(T-1)*rand(10000,nrepl)+1; % Set of uniforms on (1,T) for jump times N=randn(10000,nrepl); % Set of normals for jump size Then for replication j: Poiss=P(j); % Jumps for replication Uni=U(1:Poiss,j);% Jump times Norm=mu+sigma*N(1:Poiss,j);% Jump sizes Then this I guess is where I need your advice, I use this one-liner but it seems very slow: CPP_norm=sum(bsxfun(@times,bsxfun(@gt,t,Uni),Norm),1); In the inner for each jump it creates a series of same length as t with 0 until jump and then 1 after, multiplying this will create a grid with zeroes until jump has arrived and then the jump size and finally adding all these will produce the entire jump process on the grid. How can this be done more effectively? Thank you very much.

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  • Find if a user is facing a certain Location using Digital Compass by constructing a triangle and usi

    - by Aidan
    Hi Guys, I'm constructing a geolocation based application and I'm trying to figure out a way to make my application realise when a user is facing the direction of the given location (a particular long / lat co-ord). I've done some Googling and checked the SDK but can't really find anything for such a thing. Does anyone know of a way? To clarify Android knows my location, the second location and my orientation. What I want is a way for Android to recognise when my orientation is "facing" the second location (e.g within 90 Degrees or so). We're also assuming that the user is stationary and needs updates every second or so therefore getBearing(); is useless. Alright so we get it has to be math, there appears to be no simple SDK stuff we can use. I did some searching of my own and found Barycentric Co-ords http://www.blackpawn.com/texts/pointinpoly/default.html . So what I'm trying to do now is map the camera's field of view. For Example if the person is facing a certain direction the program should construct a triangle around that field of view, e.g it should make one vertices the phone's position and then go out either side for a set distance making the 2 end points vertices constructing a triangle. If I had this I could then apply Barycentric co-ords to see if the point lay within the newly constructed triangle. Idea's anyone? Example. I could get my current orientation, add 45 to it and go up X distance one side and subtact 45 and go up X distance the other side to find my 2 other points. Though, how would I make android know which way it should go "up" I guess? It would know its baring as this stage so I need it to recognise it's bearing and go out that direction.

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  • How do I copy files into an existing JAR file with Ant?

    - by Blue
    I have a project that needs to access resources within its own JAR file. When I create the JAR file for the project, I would like to copy a directory into that JAR file (I guess the ZIP equivalent would be "adding" the directory to the existing ZIP file). I only want the copy to happen after the JAR has been created (and I obviously don't want the copy to happen if I clean and delete the JAR file). Currently the build file looks like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <project name="foobar" basedir=".." default="jar"> <!-- project-specific properties --> <property name="project.path" value="my/project/dir/foobar" /> <patternset id="project.include"> <include name="${project.path}/**" /> </patternset> <patternset id="project.jar.include"> <include name="${project.path}/**" /> </patternset> <import file="common-tasks.xml" /> <property name="jar.file" location="${test.dir}/foobar.jar" /> <property name="manifest.file" location="misc/foobar.manifest" /> </project> Some of the build tasks are called from another file (common-tasks.xml), which I can't display here. Thanks.

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  • WCF publish/subscribe service, and ASP.NET MVC client

    - by d3j4vu
    I managed to develop a custom WCF service, using the publish / subscribe model, and hosted inside a managed windows service. Everything's working. I developed an interface as the service contract implementing a method definition marked as a non-one way operation contract (OperationContract(IsOneWay = false)]. This, to make possible returns an instance of a custom class derived from System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult. In the MVC app, event fires ok. It wraps inside an action method, (just the one defined in the interface), but, and this is my current problem, i believe that something relative to the execution context of the windows service (and the hosted wcf counterpart) blocks the execution of the action method in the MVC app. This is what i have until now (some pieces ripped off just to be more clear): /// Method definition for the contract's service. Maps to a MVC ActionMethod. [OperationContract(IsOneWay = false)] ActionResult Imagen(string data, CustomActionResult result); The class to hold an ActionResult derived class instance: public class ServiceEventArgsMvc : ServiceEventArgs { /// <summary> /// /// </summary> public CustomActionResult Result { get; set; } } And the code in the MVC client app: /// <summary> /// Just a simple class to hold an abstract ActionResult derived class instance. /// </summary> public ActionResult Image(string data, CustomActionResult result) { ViewData["data"] = data; return View(); } Ok. ActionMethod sucessfully executes...but when it's done (and usually expected obtain a reditection to a View named Image, like the action method), the WCF service throws a Timeout exception, making clear that he's still waiting for a response from the MVC client. The response never arrives, so the MVC app never finish his work (redirect to the "Image" view as expected). Any ideas?. Guess i'm missing something very simple, but i don't know what it could be. This is drivin' me nuts.

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  • How do software events work internally?

    - by Duddle
    Hello! I am a student of Computer Science and have learned many of the basic concepts of what is going on "under the hood" while a computer program is running. But recently I realized that I do not understand how software events work efficiently. In hardware, this is easy: instead of the processor "busy waiting" to see if something happened, the component sends an interrupt request. But how does this work in, for example, a mouse-over event? My guess is as follows: if the mouse sends a signal ("moved"), the operating system calculates its new position p, then checks what program is being drawn on the screen, tells that program position p, then the program itself checks what object is at p, checks if any event handlers are associated with said object and finally fires them. That sounds terribly inefficient to me, since a tiny mouse movement equates to a lot of cpu context switches (which I learned are relatively expensive). And then there are dozens of background applications that may want to do stuff of their own as well. Where is my intuition failing me? I realize that even "slow" 500MHz processors do 500 million operations per second, but still it seems too much work for such a simple event. Thanks in advance!

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  • How to catch this low level MySQL (?) error in PHP/Magento

    - by andnil
    When I'm executing the following statement in Magento with a really large $sku, the execution terminates without any errors thrown what so ever. There are no errors in either Magento's, Apache's or PHP's error logs. Mage::getModel('catalog/product')-loadByAttribute('sku', $sku); Question: How do I catch the error? I've tried to set custom error handlers, and for testing purposes I've also managed to trigger error situations where each of the error handler functions are invoked. But when running the previously mentioned Magento code with a large $sku, none of the error handling functions are executed. error_reporting( -1 ); set_error_handler( array( 'Error', 'captureNormal' ) ); set_exception_handler( array( 'Error', 'captureException' ) ); register_shutdown_function( array( 'Error', 'captureShutdown' ) ); For completeness, this is the $sku I'm passing to loadByAttribute(). (The sku is invalid, but that is not the issue) 1- 9685 0102046|1- 9685 1212100|1- 9685 1212092|1- 9685 1212096|1- 9685 1102100|1- 9685 1102108|1- 9685 1102112|1- 9685 1102092|1- 9685 0102048|1- 9685 0102054|1- 9685 0102056|1- 9685 0102058|1- 9685 1212104|1- 9685 1212108|1- 9685 0212058|1- 9685 0104050|1- 9685 0212050|1- 9685 0212056|1- 9685 0212044|1- 9685 0212048|1- 9685 0212052|1- 9685 0212054|1- 9685 1102104|1- 9685 1102124 Any insight into this matter is much appreciated! Update: Upon further investigation, this is the exact point in the code where execution terminates. when the foreach is executed I guess Magento goes into MySQL world and starts loading up data from the database. \Mage\Catalog\Model\Abstract.php public function loadByAttribute($attribute, $value, $additionalAttributes = '*') { $collection = $this->getResourceCollection() ->addAttributeToSelect($additionalAttributes) ->addAttributeToFilter($attribute, $value) ->setPage(1,1); foreach ($collection as $object) { // <--------------- HERE return $object; } return false; } Note, I'm ONLY interested in finding out how to properly CATCH these kinds of errors, not "fix" the logic. This is so that I can present a proper error message to the user. The example above with the malformed sku is contrived and I have no desire to make my Magento app work with those erroneous skus.

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  • Manual Linq to SQL entity framework mapping

    - by kprobst
    I've been playing with the O/R designer in VS and I was wondering if someone could shed come light on this. I'm used to OR mappers that are largely manual (homegrown and e.g., NHibernate). I don't mind encoding the entity classes myself, since they don't change all that often to begin with, and I have this irrational fear of designers and auto generated code as it is. I have noticed that the generated entity classes contain a lot of boilerplate extensibility methods, e.g. On[Property]Changed() and so on where [Property] is a mapped member of the class. These are placed in the setters of the property accessors. I assume it's OK if I don't include these when I do my hand coding, correct? They would be nice if I needed some sort of interception pattern but that's certainly not the case. I guess I just need to know if any of those methods are required by the entity framework to keep track of changes to the mapping types in order for things to work when updating the database. Thanks!

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  • How is covariance cooler than polymorphism...and not redundant?

    - by P.Brian.Mackey
    .NET 4 introduces covariance. I guess it is useful. After all, MS went through all the trouble of adding it to the C# language. But, why is Covariance more useful than good old polymorphism? I wrote this example to understand why I should implement Covariance, but I still don't get it. Please enlighten me. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; namespace Sample { class Demo { public delegate void ContraAction<in T>(T a); public interface IContainer<out T> { T GetItem(); void Do(ContraAction<T> action); } public class Container<T> : IContainer<T> { private T item; public Container(T item) { this.item = item; } public T GetItem() { return item; } public void Do(ContraAction<T> action) { action(item); } } public class Shape { public void Draw() { Console.WriteLine("Shape Drawn"); } } public class Circle:Shape { public void DrawCircle() { Console.WriteLine("Circle Drawn"); } } public static void Main() { Circle circle = new Circle(); IContainer<Shape> container = new Container<Circle>(circle); container.Do(s => s.Draw());//calls shape //Old school polymorphism...how is this not the same thing? Shape shape = new Circle(); shape.Draw(); } } }

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  • Photoshop CS4. How do I make sure my color stays the same in my different .psd files? (could be RGB

    - by Kris
    I asked 2 photoshop experts I know but they haven't got a clue because all my settings are exactly the same, in both files. (except the RGB type !! I'm not sure. Please read on) I use RGB color, 72DPI, 8 bits / channel. No adjustments (filters, like greyscale, etc ...) are selected / used. The layers are both normal, and opacity and fill are 100% (yes, in both files). I took two screenshots, and you can see the difference: http://www.flickr.com/photos/30465871@N05/4623864297/ http://www.flickr.com/photos/30465871@N05/4624469754/ Both colors are ff795d, but that doesn't matter, any color I use gives me the same problem: they both look different. Now, I know the CMYK settings (see screenshots) are different, but when the settings are the same the color changes. Why is this happening and how do I solve this problem? My guess is I'm working with different a type of RGB. It's sRGB IE61966 - 2.1 in the file I created (file info raw data) but I can't find that in the file that started with a screenshot. If that's the problem, how do I change / convert the RGB, once the file is already open? Thank you.

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  • How Are These Styles Cascading?

    - by user1569275
    Problem is viewable at this link. http://dansdemos.info/prototypes/htmlSamples/responsive/step08_megaGridForward.html The three boxes need to have green backgrounds, but another style is taking precedence. I thought styles were supposed to take precedence based on where they appear in the style sheets, with styles lower in the style sheet cascading (taking precedence) over styles higher in the style sheet. I guess that is wrong, because the style sheet for the background colors of those boxes is here: #maincontent .col { background: #ccc; background: rgba(204, 204, 204, 0.85); } #callout1 { background-color: #00B300; text-align:center; } #callout2 { background-color: #00CC00; text-align:center; } #callout3 { background-color: #00E600; text-align:center; } When the style for "#maincontent .col" is removed, the green shows up (link)http://dansdemos.info/prototypes/htmlSamples/responsive/step08_megaGridForwardGreen.html, but I thought the green should show up because it is after the gray color specified higher up. I am finding a way to get what I need, but it would really make it a lot easier if I understood why the backgrounds are gray, instead of green. Any assistance would be extremely much appreciated. Thank you.

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  • Progressive enhancement of anchor tags to avoid onclick="return false;"

    - by Chris Beck
    Unobtrusive JS suggests that we don't have any onclick attributes in our HTML templates. <a href="/controller/foo/1">View Foo 1</a> A most basic progressive enhancement is to convert an that anchor tag to use XHR to retrieve a DOM fragment. So, I write JS to add an event listener for a."click" then make an XHR to a.href. Alas, the browser still wants to navigate to "/controller/foo". So, I write JS to dynamically inject a.onclick = "return false;". Still unobtrusive (I guess), but now I'm paying the the cost of an extra event handler. To avoid the cost of 2 event listeners, I could shove my function call into the onclick attribute <a href="/controller/foo/1" onclick="myXHRFcn(); return false;"> But that's grodo for all sorts of reasons. To make it more interesting, I might have 100 anchor tags that I want to enhance. A better pattern is a single listener on a parent node that relies on event bubbling. That's cool, but how do I short circuit the browser from navigating to the URL without this on every anchor node? onclick="return false;" Manipulating the href is not an option. It must stay intact so the context menu options to copy or open in new page work as expected.

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  • Why are my bound parameters all identical (using Linq)?

    - by Scott Stafford
    When I run this snippet of code: string[] words = new string[] { "foo", "bar" }; var results = from row in Assets select row; foreach (string word in words) { results = results.Where(row => row.Name.Contains(word)); } I get this SQL: -- Region Parameters DECLARE @p0 VarChar(5) = '%bar%' DECLARE @p1 VarChar(5) = '%bar%' -- EndRegion SELECT ... FROM [Assets] AS [t0] WHERE ([t0].[Name] LIKE @p0) AND ([t0].[Name] LIKE @p1) Note that @p0 and @p1 are both bar, when I wanted them to be foo and bar. I guess Linq is somehow binding a reference to the variable word rather than a reference to the string currently referenced by word? What is the best way to avoid this problem? (Also, if you have any suggestions for a better title for this question, please put it in the comments.) Note that I tried this with regular Linq also, with the same results (you can paste this right into Linqpad): string[] words = new string[] { "f", "a" }; string[] dictionary = new string[] { "foo", "bar", "jack", "splat" }; var results = from row in dictionary select row; foreach (string word in words) { results = results.Where(row => row.Contains(word)); } results.Dump(); Dumps: bar jack splat

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  • Why is T() = T() allowed?

    - by Rimo
    I believe the expression T() creates an rvalue (by the Standard). However, the following code compiles (at least on gcc4.0): class T {}; int main() { T() = T(); } I know technically this is possible because member functions can be invoked on temporaries and the above is just invoking the operator= on the rvalue temporary created from the first T(). But conceptually this is like assigning a new value to an rvalue. Is there a good reason why this is allowed? Edit: The reason I find this odd is it's strictly forbidden on built-in types yet allowed on user-defined types. For example, int(2) = int(3) won't compile because that is an "invalid lvalue in assignment". So I guess the real question is, was this somewhat inconsistent behavior built into the language for a reason? Or is it there for some historical reason? (E.g it would be conceptually more sound to allow only const member functions to be invoked on rvalue expressions, but that cannot be done because that might break some existing code.)

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  • Script (AJAX or JS) does not work properly in IE8

    - by Uno Mein Ame
    I have a js/ajax script at http://worldcitiesdatabase.info/test1/ I just received a complaint that it does not work properly in IE8. Onchange seems to work, but then the next menu is not populated. Can you please help me figure it out? Thanks Not sure what the problematic part of the code is. Here is my guess: if (window.XMLHttpRequest) {// code for IE7+, Firefox, Chrome, Opera, Safari xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } else {// code for IE6, IE5 xmlhttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } newList=""; xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { newList = xmlhttp.responseText; m1.innerHTML=newList; m1.disabled=false; } if (menuname=="showCountry") { var c1=document.getElementById('showRegion'); if (c1.options.length==2) { if (c1.options[0].value=='NONE') { c1.remove(0); c1.value='0'; reloadmenu(c1); } } } } xmlhttp.open("GET",newFile+".php?q="+menuvalue,true); xmlhttp.send();

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  • Using VB6 to search for existence of DataFile in Outlook

    - by Graeme
    Hi, I am wanting to write an Add-In for Outlook 2003 which, when Outlook is opened, search for the existence of a datafile called DMSDataStore and if it doesn't exist will install the datafile. I have managed to create the Add-In using VB6 and it runs when I open Outlook. However I haven't found the best/easiest way to search for the existence of the datafile. If the datafile exists it is visible within Outlook under the user's mailbox, much the same as an archive folder is. I would like to be able to search for it by name which is DMSDataFile. I did try - Set tmpInbox = parentFolder.Folders("DMSDataFile") This works OK if the datafile exists but will throw an error if it doesn't. I can create an error handler which will then install the datafile but this doesn't seem like a very tidy way of doing things. I guess I might have to recursively search for the datafile. Can someone let me know what is the best / easiest way to search for the datafile using the name of the datafile and give me some code with which to do it. Thanks G

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