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  • MVC 2 Data annotations problem

    - by Louzzzzzz
    Hi. Going mad now. I have a MVC solution that i've upgraded from MVC 1 to 2. It all works fine.... except the Validation! Here's some code: In the controller: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Globalization; using System.Linq; using System.Security.Principal; using System.Web; using System.Web.Mvc; using System.Web.Security; using System.Web.UI; using MF.Services.Authentication; using System.ComponentModel; using System.ComponentModel.DataAnnotations; namespace MF.Controllers { //basic viewmodel public class LogOnViewData { [Required] public string UserName { get; set; } [Required] public string Password { get; set; } } [HandleError] public class AccountController : Controller { [HttpPost] public ActionResult LogOn(LogOnViewData lvd, string returnUrl) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { //do stuff - IsValid is always true } } } } The ModelState is always valid. The model is being populated correctly however. Therefore, if I leave both username and password blank, and post the form the model state is still valid. Argh! Extra info: using structure map for IoD. Previously, before upgrading to MVC 2 was using the MS data annotation library so had this in my global.asax.cs: ModelBinders.Binders.DefaultBinder = new Microsoft.Web.Mvc.DataAnnotations.DataAnnotationsModelBinder(); Have removed that now. I'm sure i'm doing something really basic and wrong. If someone could point it out that would be marvellous. Cheers

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  • Taking the data mapper approach in Zend Framework

    - by Seeker
    Let's assume the following tables setup for a Zend Framework app. user (id) groups (id) groups_users (id, user_id, group_id, join_date) I took the Data Mapper approach to models which basically gives me: Model_User, Model_UsersMapper, Model_DbTable_Users Model_Group, Model_GroupsMapper, Model_DbTable_Groups Model_GroupUser, Model_GroupsUsersMapper, Model_DbTable_GroupsUsers (for holding the relationships which can be seen as aentities; notice the "join_date" property) I'm defining the _referenceMap in Model_DbTable_GroupsUsers: protected $_referenceMap = array ( 'User' => array ( 'columns' => array('user_id'), 'refTableClass' => 'Model_DbTable_Users', 'refColumns' => array('id') ), 'App' => array ( 'columns' => array('group_id'), 'refTableClass' => 'Model_DbTable_Groups', 'refColumns' => array('id') ) ); I'm having these design problems in mind: 1) The Model_Group only mirrors the fields in the groups table. How can I return a collection of groups a user is a member of and also the date the user joined that group for every group? If I just added the property to the domain object, then I'd have to let the group mapper know about it, wouldn't I? 2) Let's say I need to fetch the groups a user belongs to. Where should I put this logic? Model_UsersMapper or Model_GroupsUsersMapper? I also want to make use of the referencing map (dependent tables) mechanism and probably use findManyToManyRowset or findDependentRowset, something like: $result = $this->getDbTable()->find($userId); $row = $result->current(); $groups = $row->findManyToManyRowset( 'Model_DbTable_Groups', 'Model_DbTable_GroupsUsers' ); This would produce two queries when I could have just written it in a single query. I will place this in the Model_GroupsUsersMapper class. An enhancement would be to add a getGroups method to the Model_User domain object which lazily loads the groups when needed by calling the appropriate method in the data mapper, which begs for the second question. Should I allow the domain object know about the data mapper?

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  • problem getting info from a cookie with javascript

    - by Jason
    I am having an issue with my cookies and I can't figure it out. Basically I have it set up so it checks for the cookie to see if the user is logged in, and then displays either a welcome message or a login link. It works - except that instead of returning the persons name in the welcome message it just is blank where the name should be. The cookie is there, with all the appropriate info.. not sure what I am doing wrong. var itm = new Array(); itm[0] = findCookie("ui"); if (itm[0] == null) { document.write("<h2><a href='logreg.html'>Log In or Sign Up</a></h2>"); } else { var c1 = itm[0].indexOf(","); var c2 = itm[0].indexOf(",",c1); var c3 = itm[0].indexOf(",",c2); var gname = itm[0].substring(c2,c3); document.write("<h2>Welcome "+gname+"!</h2>"); } The findCookie function is.. function findCookie(val){ var cookie = null; var findVal = val + "="; var dc = document.cookie; if (dc.length > 0) { var start = dc.indexOf(findVal); if (start >= 0) { start += findVal.length; lastVal = dc.indexOf(";", start); if (lastVal == -1) { lastVal = dc.length; } cookie = (dc.substring(start, lastVal)); } else { return cookie; } } return cookie; }

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  • Getting Google results in Java? Need help!

    - by Cris Carter
    Hello. Right now, I'm trying to get the results from Google in Java, by searching for a term. I'm using a desktop program, not an applet. That in itself isn't complicated. but then Google gave me a 403 error. Anyways, I added referrer and User Agent and then it worked. Now, my problem is that I don't get the results page from Google. Instead, I get their script which gets the results page. My code right now simply uses a GET request on "http://www.google.com/search?q=" + Dork; Then it outputs each line. Here is what I get when I run my program: <.!doctype html<.head<.titledork - Google Search<./title<.scriptwindow.google={kEI:"9myaS-Date).getTime()}}};try{}catch(u){}window.google.jsrt_kill=1; align:center}#logo{display:block;overflow:hidden;position:relative;width:103px;height:37px; <./ script<./div Lots of stuff like that. I shortened it (A LOT) and put in dots to fit it here. So my big question is: How do I turn this whole mess into the nice results page I get when searching Google with a browser? Any help would be seriously appreciated, and I really need the answer fast. Also, please keep in mind that I do NOT want to use Google's API for this. Thanks in advance!

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  • PHP XML Strategy: Parsing DOM to fill "Bean"

    - by Mike
    I have a question concerning a good strategy on how to fill a data "bean" with data inside an xml file. The bean might look like this: class Person { var $id; var $forename = ""; var $surname = ""; var $bio = new Biography(); } class Biography { var $url = ""; var $id; } the xml subtree containing the info might look like this: <root> <!-- some more parent elements before node(s) of interest --> <person> <name pre="forename"> Foo </name> <name pre="surname"> Bar </name> <id> 1254 </id> <biography> <url> http://www.someurl.com </url> <id> 5488 </id> </biography> </person> </root> At the moment, I have one approach using DOMDocument. A method iterates over the entries and fills the bean by "remembering" the last node. I think thats not a good approach. What I have in mind is something like preconstructing some xpath expression(s) and then iterate over the subtrees/nodeLists. Return an array containing the beans as defined above eventually. However, it seems not to be possible reusing a subtree /DOMNode as DOMXPath constructor parameter. Has anyone of you encountered such a problem?

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  • Loading one page inside another

    - by Robin I Knight
    User 'Citizen' provided an answer to the iframe situation with the ajax script from dynamic drive. As I predicted it although it loads one page inside another it does not work with the calculation scripts, collapsible panels, validation form. All of it simply not working. I have set up a test page that has the exact same HEAD section as the page that is loaded inside it, so it is not s problem of script location. Take a look and see if you can tell me what is going on. Baring in mind this is just a test page. On the test page the entire page is loaded from another and as you can see all the collapsible panels are open, all calculations except the duration are not working because another file that is loaded by ajax on the original page is not loading in this one, the accordion menu us not working and the validation form is not validating. It is as if all script triggers have been removed and left behind but like I said the HEAD section of the parent page contains all of the scripts as well. Any ideas http://www.divethegap.com/scuba-diving-programmes-dive-the-gap/programme-pages/dahab-divemaster/test.php

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  • Bitrate Switching in xml playlist not loading video

    - by James Williams
    Using JW Player ver 5.4 and JW Embedder. Plugins are grid by Dabbler and fbit (Facebook). The Bitrate switching is not working. Does work fine for one video with HTML5 Video tag. When more than one video, it only shows the first video pic. Works fine with no bitrate switching. Code - HTML5 <script type="text/javascript" src="jwplayer/jwplayer.js"></script> <video id="container"></div> <script type="text/javascript"> jwplayer("container").setup({ flashplayer: "jwplayer/player.swf", streamer: "rtmp://server/location/", playlistfile: "playlists/playlist.xml", plugins: { grid: { rows: 4, distance: 60, horizontalmargin: 75, verticalmargin: 75 }, fbit: { link: "http://www.domain.com" } }, height: 375, width: 850, dock: true }); </script> XML - ATOM/MEDIA xmlns:jwplayer='http://developer.longtailvideo.com/trac/wiki/FlashFormats' Demostration Playlist Video 1 rtmp rtmp://server/location/ Video 2 rtmp rtmp://server/location/ have tried it with both video and div tags for the container. Div tag just shows a blank video area and a Null exception on Line 1 char 1863, this is probably the jwplayer.js file. XML is larger than this, this is to give you a brief syntax of my code and xml. I have searched for over 6 hrs on both longtail and search engine searches. Thank you in advance.

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  • More than 100 connection to sql server 2008 in "sleeping" status - Solved

    - by Allende
    I have a big trouble here, well at my server. I have an ASP .net web (framework 4.x) running on muy server, all the transactions/select/update/insert are made with ADO.NET. Well my problem is that after being using for a while (a couple of updates/selects/inserts) sometimes I got more than 100 connections on "sleeping" status when check for the connections on sql server with this query: SELECT spid, a.status, hostname, program_name, cmd, cpu, physical_io, blocked, b.name, loginame FROM master.dbo.sysprocesses a INNER JOIN master.dbo.sysdatabases b ON a.dbid = b.dbid where program_name like '%TMS%' ORDER BY spid I've been checking my code and closing every time I make a connection, I'm gonna test the new class, but I'm afraid the problem doesn't be fixed. It suppose that the connection pooling, keep the connections to re-use them, but until I see don't re-use them always. Any idea besides check for close all the connections open after use them? SOLVED(now I have just one and beautiful connection on "sleeping" status): Besides the anwser of David Stratton, I would like to share this link that help explain really well how the connection pool it works: http://dinesql.blogspot.com/2010/07/sql-server-sleeping-status-and.html Just to be short, you need to close every connection (sql connection objects) in order that the connection pool can re-use the connection and use the same connectinos string, to ensure this is highly recommended use one of the webConfig. Be careful with dataReaders you sould close its connection to (that was what make got out of my mind for while).

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  • Using Regex, how can I remove certain characters from inside angle-brackets, leaving the characters

    - by Iain Fraser
    Edit: To be clear, please understand that I am not using Regex to parse the html, that's crazy talk! I'm simply wanting to clean up a messy string of html so it will parse Edit #2: I should also point out that the control character I'm using is a special unicode character - it's not something that would ever be used in a proper tag under any normal circumstances Suppose I have a string of html that contains a bunch of control characters and I want to remove the control characters from inside tags only, leaving the characters outside the tags alone. For example Here the control character is the numeral "1". Input The quick 1<strong>orange</strong> lemming <sp11a1n 1class1='jumpe111r'11>jumps over</span> 1the idle 1frog Desired Output The quick 1<strong>orange</strong> lemming <span class='jumper'>jumps over</span> 1the idle 1frog So far I can match tags which contain the control character but I can't remove them in one regex. I guess I could perform another regex on my matches, but I'd really like to know if there's a better way. My regex Bear in mind this one only matches tags which contain the control character. <(([^>])*?`([^>])*?)*?> Thanks very much for your time and consideration. Iain Fraser

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  • When does MSBuild set the $(ProjectName) property?

    - by bwerks
    I'm fairly new to MSBuild, and I've done some customization on a Wpf project file that I'm building both in VS2010 and TFS2010. I've customized the output path as follows: <OutputPath Condition=" '$(TeamBuildOutDir)' == '' ">$(SolutionDir)build\binaries\$(ProjectName)\$(Configuration)\$(Platform)</OutputPath> <OutputPath Condition=" '$(TeamBuildOutDir)' != '' ">$(TeamBuildOutDir)binaries\$(ProjectName)\$(Configuration)\$(Platform)</OutputPath> This allows me to build to a centralized binaries directory when building on the desktop, and allows TFS to find the binaries when CI builds are running. However, it seems that in both cases, the $(ProjectDir) property is evaluating to '' at buildtime, which creates strange results. Doing some debugging, it appears as if $(ProjectName) is set by the time BeforeBuild executes, but that my OutputPath property is evaluating it prior to that point. <ProjectNameUsedTooEarly Condition=" '$(ProjectName)' == '' ">true</ProjectNameUsedTooEarly> The preceeding property is in the same property group as my OutputPath property. In the BeforeBuild target, $(ProjectNameUsedTooEarly) evaluates to true, but $(ProjectName) evaluates to the project name as normal by that point. What can I do to ensure that $(ProjectName) has got a value when I use it? edit: I just used Attrice's MSBuild Sidekick to debug through my build file, and in the very first target available for breakpoint (_CheckForInvalidConfigurationAndPlatform) all the properties seem to be set already. ProjectName is already set correctly, but my OutputPath property has already been set using the blank value of ProjectName.

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  • sqlite3 JOIN, GROUP_CONCAT using distinct with custom separator

    - by aiwilliams
    Given a table of "events" where each event may be associated with zero or more "speakers" and zero or more "terms", those records associated with the events through join tables, I need to produce a table of all events with a column in each row which represents the list of "speaker_names" and "term_names" associated with each event. However, when I run my query, I have duplication in the speaker_names and term_names values, since the join tables produce a row per association for each of the speakers and terms of the events: 1|Soccer|Bobby|Ball 2|Baseball|Bobby - Bobby - Bobby|Ball - Bat - Helmets 3|Football|Bobby - Jane - Bobby - Jane|Ball - Ball - Helmets - Helmets The group_concat aggregate function has the ability to use 'distinct', which removes the duplication, though sadly it does not support that alongside the custom separator, which I really need. I am left with these results: 1|Soccer|Bobby|Ball 2|Baseball|Bobby|Ball,Bat,Helmets 3|Football|Bobby,Jane|Ball,Helmets My question is this: Is there a way I can form the query or change the data structures in order to get my desired results? Keep in mind this is a sqlite3 query I need, and I cannot add custom C aggregate functions, as this is for an Android deployment. I have created a gist which makes it easy for you to test a possible solution: https://gist.github.com/4072840

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  • Repackaging Jasper-Reports into an application specific OSGi bundle, legal or not?

    - by Chris
    Hi, I wanted to ask (probably a silly) question regarding the packaging of existing open-source components as OSGi bundles (more specifically Jasper Reports). I have an application that I am converting from a monolithic jar-hell type architecture to something more moduler and OSGi is my weapon of choice. There are various modules I have in mind but one of the modules is a reporting module. My own reporting module will be a jar file containing my code that should reference a Jasper Reports bundle. Trouble is, Jasper reports depends on far far too many libraries and is quite monolithic in its own right. I therefore wish to build my own Jasper Reports bundle but this is where I start getting confused about the legality of repackaging. I don't plan to re-compile but I do plan to re-bundle removing known items that I do not require. Can anyone offer advice on whether I am permitted to repackage (not recompile or extend) open-source libraries into OSGi bundles without falling foul of 'derivative works' clause of LGPL? I noticed that Groovy seems to offer some monolithic jars that include all dependancies and actually goes so far as to re-arrange the packages of its dependancies so that there are no namespace conflicts. This seems to me to be a violation of the license but if anyone can reassure me that this is legal then I would feel safer about my less intrusive custom-bundling of Jasper reports. Thanks for your time, Chris

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  • Locking issues with replacing files on a website

    - by Moe Sisko
    I want to replace existing files on an IIS website with updated versions. Say these files are large pdf documents, which can be accessed via hyperlinks. The site is up 24x7, so I'm concerned about locking issues when a file is being updated at exactly the same time that someone is trying to read the file. The files are updated using C# code run on the server. I can think of two options for opening the file for writing. Option 1) Open the file for writing, using FileShare.Read : using (FileStream stream = new FileStream(path, FileMode.Create, FileAccess.Write, FileShare.Read)) While this file is open, and a user requests the same file for reading in a web browser via a hyperlink, the document opens up as a blank page. Option 2) Open the file for writing using FileShare.None : using (FileStream stream = new FileStream(path, FileMode.Create, FileAccess.Write, FileShare.None)) While this file is open, and a user requests the same file for reading in a web browser via a hyperlink, the browser shows an error. In IE 8, you get HTTP 500, "The website cannot display the page", and in Firefox 3.5, you get : "The process cannot access the file because it is being used by another process." The browser behaviour kind of makes sense, and seem reasonable. I guess its highly unlikely that a user will attempt to read a file at exactly the same time you are updating it. It would be nice if somehow, the file update was atomic, like updating a database with SQL wrapped around a transaction. I'm wondering if you guys worry about this sort of thing, and prefer either of the above options, or even have other options of your own for updating files.

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  • Translate an exception into 404 from Application_Error

    - by Dmitriy Nagirnyak
    Hi, First of all, quickly what exactly I want to achieve: translate particular exception into the HTTP 404 so the ASP.NET can handle it further. I am handling exceptions in the ASP.NET (MVC2) this way: protected void Application_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) { var err = Server.GetLastError(); if (err == null) return; err = err.GetBaseException(); var noObject = err as ObjectNotFoundException; if (noObject != null) HandleObjectNotFound(); var handled = noObject != null; if (!handled) Logger.Fatal("Unhandled exception has occured in application.", err); } private void HandleObjectNotFound() { Server.ClearError(); Response.Clear(); // new HttpExcepton(404, "Not Found"); // Throw or not to throw? Response.StatusCode = 404; Response.StatusDescription = "Not Found"; Response.StatusDescription = "Not Found"; Response.Write("The whole HTML body explaining whata 404 is??"); } The problem is that I cannot configure default customErrors to work with it. When it is on then it never redirects to the page specified in customErrors: <error statusCode="404" redirect="404.html"/>. I also tried to raise new HttpExcepton(404, "Not Found") from the handler but then the response code is 200 which I don't understand why. So the questions are: What is the proper way of translating AnException into HTTP 404 response? How does customErrors section work when handling exceptions in Application_Error? Why throwing HttpException(404) renders (blank) page with success (200) status? Thanks, Dmitriy.

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  • How to use a viewstate'd object as a datasource for controls on a user control

    - by user557325
    I've got a listview on a control. Each row comprises a checkbox and another listview. The outer listview is bound to a property on the control (via a method call, can't set a property as a SelectMethod on an ObjectDataSource it would appear) which is lazy loaded suchly: Public ReadOnly Property ProductLineChargeDetails() As List(Of WebServiceProductLineChargeDetail) Get If ViewState("WSProductLineChargeDetails") Is Nothing Then ViewState("WSProductLineChargeDetails") = GetWebServiceProductLineChargeDetails() End If Return DirectCast(ViewState("WSProductLineChargeDetails"), Global.System.Collections.Generic.List(Of Global.MI.Open.WebServiceProductLineChargeDetail)) End Get End Property The shape of the object referenced by the data source is something like this: (psuedocode) Product { bool Licenced; List<Charge> charges; } Charge { int property1; string property2; bool property3 . . . } The reason for the use of viewstate is this: When an one of the checkboxes on one of the outer list view rows is checked or unchecked I want to modify the object that the ODS represents (for example I'll add a couple of Charge objects to the relevant Product object) and then rebind. The problem I'm getting is that after every postback (specifically after checking or unchecking one of the rows' checkbox) my viewstate is empty. Thiss means that any changes I make to my viewstate'd object is lost. Now, I've worked out (after much googling and reading, amongst many others, Scott Mitchel's excellent bit on ViewState) that during initial databinding IsTrackingViewState is set to false. That means, I think, that assigning the return from GetWebServiceProductLineChargeDetails() to the ViewState item in my Property Get during the initial databind won't work. Mind you, even when the IsTrackingViewState is true and I call the Property Get, come the next postback, the viewstate is empty. So do you chaps have any ideas on how I keep the object referenced by the ObjectDataSource in ViewState between postbacks and update it and get those changes to stay in ViewState? This has been going on for a couple of days now and I'm getting fed up! Cheers in advance Steve

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  • First Letter Section Headers with Core Data

    - by Cory Imdieke
    I'm trying to create a list of people sorted in a tableView of sections with the first letter as the title for each section - a la Address Book. I've got it all working, though there is a bit of an issue with the sort order. Here is the way I'm doing it now: NSFetchRequest *request = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; [request setEntity:[NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Contact" inManagedObjectContext:context]]; NSSortDescriptor *fullName = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"fullName" ascending:YES]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:fullName, nil]; [request setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; [fullName release]; [sortDescriptors release]; NSError *error = nil; [resultController release]; resultController = [[NSFetchedResultsController alloc] initWithFetchRequest:request managedObjectContext:context sectionNameKeyPath:@"firstLetter" cacheName:nil]; [resultController performFetch:&error]; [request release]; fullName is a standard property, and firstLetter is a transient property which returns - as you'd expect - the first letter of the fullName. 95% of the time, this works perfectly. The problem is the result controller expects these two "lists" (the sorted fullName list and the sorted firstLetter list) to match exactly. If I have 2 contacts like John and Jack, my fullName list would sort these as Jack, John every time but my firstLetter list might sort them as John, Jack sometimes as it's only sorting by the first letter and leaving the rest to chance. When these lists don't match up, I get a blank tableView with 0 items in it. I'm not really sure how I should go about fixing this issue, but it's very frustrating. Has anyone else run into this? What did you guys find out?

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  • Updating UIView subclass contents

    - by Brett
    Hi; I am trying to update a UIView subclass to draw individual pixels (rectangles) after calculating if they are in the mandelbrot set. I am using the following code but am getting a blank screen: //drawingView.h ... -(void)drawRect:(CGRect)rect{ CGContextRef context = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); CGContextSetRGBFillColor(context, r, g, b, 1); CGContextSetRGBStrokeColor(context, r, g, b, 1); CGRect arect = CGRectMake(x,y,1,1); CGContextFillRect(context, arect); } ... //viewController.m ... - (void)viewDidLoad { [drawingView setX:10]; [drawingView setY:10]; [drawingView setR:0.0]; [drawingView setG:0.0]; [drawingView setB:0.0]; [super viewDidLoad]; [drawingView setNeedsDisplay]; } Once I figure out how to display one pixel, I'd like to know how to go about updating the view by adding another pixel (once calculated). Once all the variables change, how do I keep the current view as is but add another pixel? Thanks, Brett

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  • Rails: unable to set any attribute of child model

    - by Bryan Roth
    I'm having a problem instantiating a ListItem object with specified attributes. For some reason all attributes are set to nil even if I specify values. However, if I specify attributes for a List, they retain their values. Attributes for a List retain their values: >> list = List.new(:id => 20, :name => "Test List") => #<List id: 20, name: "Test List"> Attributes for a ListItem don't retain their values: >> list_item = ListItem.new(:id => 17, :list_id => 20, :name => "Test Item") => #<ListItem id: nil, list_id: nil, name: nil> UPDATE #1: I thought the id was the only attribute not retaining its value but realized that setting any attribute for a ListItem gets set to nil. list.rb: class List < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :list_items, :dependent => :destroy accepts_nested_attributes_for :list_items, :reject_if => lambda { |a| a[:name].blank? }, :allow_destroy => true end list_item.rb: class ListItem < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :list validates_presence_of :name end schema.rb ActiveRecord::Schema.define(:version => 20100506144717) do create_table "list_items", :force => true do |t| t.integer "list_id" t.string "name" t.datetime "created_at" t.datetime "updated_at" end create_table "lists", :force => true do |t| t.string "name" t.datetime "created_at" t.datetime "updated_at" end end

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  • Custom title of PreferenceActivity (problem)

    - by Emerald214
    I have the same problem like this question: Custom title bar in PreferenceActivity ?? After extending PreferenceActivity, I write this code in onCreate(), it just shows a blank grey title. I think it is a bug (because this solution works well with Activity). requestWindowFeature(Window.FEATURE_CUSTOM_TITLE); getWindow().setFeatureInt(Window.FEATURE_CUSTOM_TITLE, R.layout.window_title); super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); addPreferencesFromResource(R.xml.main_pref); Edited: window_title.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:orientation="horizontal" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:background="@color/titleBar" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:gravity="center_vertical" android:paddingLeft="5dip" android:paddingRight="5dip"> <ImageView android:id="@+id/imageView1" android:src="@drawable/megadict_icon" android:layout_height="35dip" android:layout_width="35dip" android:layout_gravity="center_vertical"> </ImageView> <TextView android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:id="@+id/textView1" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:textColor="@color/white" android:textSize="16dip" android:layout_weight="1" android:layout_gravity="center_vertical" android:text="@string/appName" android:paddingLeft="5dip" android:paddingRight="5dip"> </TextView> <ProgressBar style="?android:attr/progressBarStyleSmall" android:id="@+id/progressBar" android:layout_width="28dip" android:layout_height="28dip" android:layout_gravity="center_vertical" android:visibility="invisible"> </ProgressBar> </LinearLayout> main_pref.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <PreferenceScreen xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:title="@string/mainPrefTitle"> <ListPreference android:entries="@array/languageStrings" android:entryValues="@array/languageValues" android:dialogTitle="@string/languagePrefTitle" android:title="@string/mainPrefTitle" android:key="languagePrefKey"> </ListPreference> </PreferenceScreen>

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  • Django formsets: make first required?

    - by Mark
    These formsets are exhibiting exactly the opposite behavior that I want. My view is set up like this: def post(request): # TODO: handle vehicle formset VehicleFormSetFactory = formset_factory(VehicleForm, extra=1) if request.POST: vehicles_formset = VehicleFormSetFactory(request.POST) else: vehicles_formset = VehicleFormSetFactory() And my template looks like this: <div id="vehicle_forms"> {{ vehicles_formset.management_form }} {% for form in vehicles_formset.forms %} <h4>Vehicle {{forloop.counter}}</h4> <table> {% include "form.html" %} </table> {% endfor %} </div> That way it initially generates only 1 form, like I want. But I want that one form to be required! When I dynamically add blank forms with JavaScript and vehicles_formset.empty_form all those extra forms are required, which I don't want. From the docs: The formset is smart enough to ignore extra forms that were not changed. This is the behavior the first form is exhibiting (not what I want) but not the behavior that the extra forms are exhibiting (what I do want). Is there some attribute I can can change to at least make one form required?

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  • Avoiding CheckStyle magic number errors in JDBC queries.

    - by Dan
    Hello, I am working on a group project for class and we are trying out CheckStyle. I am fairly comfortable with Java but have never touched JDBC or done any database work before this. I was wondering if there is an elegant way to avoid magic number errors in preparedStatement calls, consider: preparedStatement = connect.prepareStatement("INSERT INTO shows " + "(showid, showtitle, showinfo, genre, youtube)" + "values (default, ?, ?, ?, ?);"); preparedStatement.setString(1, title); preparedStatement.setString(2, info); preparedStatement.setString(3, genre); preparedStatement.setString(4, youtube); result = preparedStatement.executeUpdate(); The setString methods get flagged as magic numbers, so far I just added the numbers 3-10 or so to the ignore list for magic numbers but I was wondering if there was a better way to go about inserting those values into the statement. I also beg you for any other advice that comes to mind seeing that code, I'd like to avoid developing any nasty habits, e.g. should I be using Statement or is PreparedStatement fine? Will that let me refer to column names instead? Is that ideal? etc... Thanks!

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  • c# Deserializing an element based on it's parent node's name

    - by daveharnett
    The XML I'm working with has the following structure: <fixture_statistics> <home_player_1 id="2306143" teamid="2"> <element_1>Some Data</element_1> <element_2>Some Data</element_2> </home_player_1> <home_player_2 id="2306144" teamid="2"> <element_1>Some Data</element_1> <element_2>Some Data</element_2> </home_player_2> </fixture_statistics> Now the code to deserialize it would normally look like this: [XmlRootAttribute("fixture_statistics", Namespace = "", IsNullable = false)] public class FixtureRoot { [XmlElement("home_player_1")] [XmlElement("home_player_2")] public List<FixtureStats> fixtures { get; set; } } public class FixtureStats { public string element_1; [XMLElement("element_2")] public string elementTwo; } Here's the question: I'd like the FixtureStats class to have a 'position' property which corrosponds to it's parent's element name (so the FixtureStat object corrosponding to home_player_1 would have position=1). Can this be done with the built-in serialization atrributes? If it's not possible, what's the cleanest workaround? Bear in mind that each document will have about 50 player elements, each with about 50 'child' data elements.

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  • jackson failing to map empty array with No content to map to Object due to end of input

    - by ijabz
    I send a query to an api and map the json results to my classes using Jackson. When I get some results it works fine, but when there are no results it fails with java.io.EOFException: No content to map to Object due to end of input at org.codehaus.jackson.map.ObjectMapper._initForReading(ObjectMapper.java:2766) at org.codehaus.jackson.map.ObjectMapper._readMapAndClose(ObjectMapper.java:2709) at org.codehaus.jackson.map.ObjectMapper.readValue(ObjectMapper.java:1854) at com.jthink.discogs.query.DiscogsServerQuery.mapQuery(DiscogsServerQuery.java:382) at com.jthink.discogs.query.SearchQuery.mapQuery(SearchQuery.java:37)* But the thing is the api isn't returning nothing at all, so I dont see why it is failing. Here is the query: http://api.discogs.com/database/search?page=1&type=release&release_title=nude+and+rude+the+best+of+iggy+pop this is what I get back { "pagination": { "per_page": 50, "pages": 1, "page": 1, "urls": {}, "items": 0 }, "results": [] } and here is the top level object Im trying to map to public class Search { private Pagination pagination; private Result[] results; public Pagination getPagination() { return pagination; } public void setPagination(Pagination pagination) { this.pagination = pagination; } public Result[] getResults() { return results; } public void setResults(Result[] results) { this.results = results; } } Im guessing the problem is something to do with the results array being returned being blank, but cant see what Im doing wrong EDIT: The comment below was correct, although I usually receive { "pagination": { "per_page": 50, "pages": 1, "page": 1, "urls": {}, "items": 0 }, "results": [] } and in these cases there is no problem but sometimes I seem to just get an empty String. Now Im wondering if the problem is how I read from the inputstream if (responseCode == HttpURLConnection.HTTP_OK) InputStreamReader in= new InputStreamReader(uc.getInputStream()); BufferedReader br= new BufferedReader(in); while(br.ready()) { String next = br.readLine(); sb.append(next); } return sb.toString(); } although I dont read until I get the response code, is it possible that the first time I call br.ready() that I call it before it is ready, and therefore I don't read the input EDIT 2: Changing above code to simply String line; while ((line = br.readLine()) != null) { sb.append(line); } resolved the issue.

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  • Send Email from worker role (Azure) with attachment in c#

    - by simplyvaibh
    I am trying to send an email(in c#) from worker role(Azure) with an attachment(from blob storage). I am able to send an email but attachment(word document) is blank. The following function is called from worker role. public void sendMail(string blobName) { InitStorage();//Initialize the storage var storageAccount = CloudStorageAccount.FromConfigurationSetting("DataConnectionString"); container = blobStorage.GetContainerReference("Container Name"); CloudBlockBlob blob = container.GetBlockBlobReference(blobName); if (File.Exists("demo.doc")) File.Delete("demo.doc"); FileStream fs = new FileStream("demo.doc", FileMode.OpenOrCreate); blob.DownloadToStream(fs); Attachment attach = new Attachment(fs,"Report.doc"); System.Net.Mail.MailMessage Email = new System.Net.Mail.MailMessage("[email protected]", "[email protected]"); Email.Subject = "Text fax send via email"; Email.Subject = "Subject Of email"; Email.Attachments.Add(attach); Email.Body = "Body of email"; System.Net.Mail.SmtpClient client = new SmtpClient("smtp.live.com", 25); client.DeliveryMethod = SmtpDeliveryMethod.Network; client.EnableSsl = true; client.Credentials = new NetworkCredential("[email protected]", Password); client.Send(Email); fs.Flush(); fs.Close(); Email.Dispose(); } Please tell me where I am doing wrong?

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  • Adding database results to array

    - by Jason
    Hi all, I am having a mental blank here and cannot for the life of me figure out a solution. My scenario is that I am programming in PHP and MySQL. I have a database table returning the results for a specific orderid. The query can return a maximum of 4 rows per order and a minimum of 1 row. Here is an image of how I want to return the results. I have all the orderdetails (Name, address) ect stored in a table named "orders". I have all the packages for that order stored in a table named "packages". What I need to do is using a loop I need to have access to each specific element of the database results (IE package1, itemstype1, package2, itemtype2) ect I am using a query like this to try and get hold of just the "number of items: $sql = "SELECT * FROM bookings_onetime_packages WHERE orderid = '".$orderid."' ORDER BY packageid DESC"; $total = $db-database_num_rows($db-database_query($sql)); $query = $db-database_query($sql); $noitems = ''; while($info = $db-database_fetch_assoc($query)){ $numberitems = $info['numberofitems']; for($i=0; $i $noitems .= $numberitems[$i]; } } print $noitems; I need to have access to each specific element because I them need to create fill out a pdf template using "fpdf". I hope this makes sense. Any direction would be greatly appreciated.

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