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  • Making a jQuery plugin to feed Tumblr to site

    - by tylorreimer
    I have some experience with PHP and a little with JS but I'm far from anything proficient. I'm trying to make a jQuery plugin for my site that I can call in my HTML via something like this: $('.new').tumble({username: "tylor", count: 9}); Which would basically put the Tumblr list the code should make into the DIV with class 'new' in this case. Here is my code so far; the problem seems to be how to get it to pick up class/id from the original call (in the HTML) and use that in the jQuery. Here's the code so far: (function($) { $.fn.tumble = function(options){ var settings = $.extend({ username: null, // [string or array] required to get url for tumblr account count: 3, // [integer] how many posts to display? }, options); //url construction var url = "http://" + settings.username + ".tumblr.com"; var jsonurl = url + "/api/read/json?num=" + settings.count + "&callback=?"; $.getJSON(jsonurl, function(data) { var items = []; $.each(data.posts, function(id, url) { // Goes over each post in the JSON document retrieved from data URL var url = this.url; // Just assigns a variable to the url to avoid constantly writing "this.whatever" var photourl = this['photo-url-250']; // photo-url-xxx needs to be called this way due to integers in the name items.push('<li><a href="' + url + '">' + photourl + '</a></li>'); }); $('<ul/>', { // Creates an empty list html: items.join('') // Takes the values in the item array and puts 'em together }).appendTo('.new'); // I don't want this to have the class set in the jQuery itself }); //end json }; })( jQuery ); Any help you can lend would be wonderful. Thank you

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  • C# - Naming a value combined "getter/setter" method (WebForms & Binding)

    - by tyndall
    Looking for some help on some names for a project I'm currently working on. I don't have a compsci degree so I don't know what to call this. I have a method called TryToGetSetValue(Direction direction, object value, object valueOnFail) Then there would be a Direction enum public enum Direction { ModelToForm, FormToModel } Background This is a legacy ASP.NET application. The models, database, and mainframe are designed poorly. I can't put in MVP or MVC patterns yet (too much work). ASP.NET code is a ridiculous mess (partial pages, single-page design, 5x the normal amount of jQuery, everything is a jQuery UI dialog). I'm just trying to put in a bridge so then I can do more refactoring over the next year. I have ~200 fields that need to be set on a GET and written back on a POST. I trying not to x2 these 200 fields and have 400 lines of code to support. What would you call my method? enum? Is there so other form of binding that would be easy to use instead? I'm not a fan of the DetailsView or FormView built-ins of ASP.NET WebForms.

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  • What is the right pattern for a async data fetching method in .net async/await

    - by s093294
    Given a class with a method GetData. A few other clients call GetData, and instead of it fetching data each time, i would like to create a pattern where the first call starts the task to get the data, and the rest of the calls wait for the task to complete. private Task<string> _data; private async Task<string> _getdata() { return "my random data from the net"; //get_data_from_net() } public string GetData() { if(_data==null) _data=_getdata(); _data.wait(); //are there not a problem here. cant wait a task that is already completed ? if(_data.status != rantocompletion) _data.wait() is not any better, it might complete between the check and the _data.wait? return _data.Result; } How would i do the pattern correctly? (Solution) private static object _servertime_lock = new object(); private static Task<string> _servertime; private static async Task<string> servertime() { try { var thetvdb = new HttpClient(); thetvdb.Timeout = TimeSpan.FromSeconds(5); // var st = await thetvdb.GetStreamAsync("http://www.thetvdb.com/api/Updates.php?type=none"); var response = await thetvdb.GetAsync("http://www.thetvdb.com/api/Updates.php?type=none"); response.EnsureSuccessStatusCode(); Stream stream = await response.Content.ReadAsStreamAsync(); XDocument xdoc = XDocument.Load(stream); return xdoc.Descendants("Time").First().Value; } catch { return null; } } public static async Task<string> GetServerTime() { lock (_servertime_lock) { if (_servertime == null) _servertime = servertime(); } var time = await _servertime; if (time == null) _servertime = null; return time; }

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  • parse xml with elementtree, custom sorting

    - by microspace
    I want to parse xml file in utf-8 and sort it by some field. Soring is made by custom alphabet (s1 from sourcecode). History of question is here: sorting of list containing utf-8 charachters. I've found how to sort xml here. Sorting work correctly, the problem is with elementtree, I must admit that it doesn't work on python3 Here is source code: #!/usr/bin/env python # -*- coding: utf-8 -*- #import xml.etree.ElementTree as ET # Python 2.5 import elementtree.ElementTree as ET s1='aáàAâÂbBcCçÇdDeéEfFgGgGhHiIîÎíiiIjJkKlLmMnNóoOöÖpPqQrRsSsStTuUûúÛüÜvVwWxXyYzZ' s2='11111122334455666aabbccddeeeeeeffgghhiijjkklllllmmnnooppqqrrsssssttuuvvwwxxyy' trans = str.maketrans(s1, s2) def unikey(seq): return seq[0].translate(trans) tree = ET.parse("tosort.xml") container = tree.find("entries") data = [] for elem in container: keyd = elem.findtext("k") data.append((keyd, elem)) print (data) data.sort(key=unikey) print (data) container[:] = [item[-1] for item in data] tree.write("sorted.xml", encoding="utf-8") Here are instructions to import elementtree module. When I import module this way :import xml.etree.ElementTree as ET, I get a message: Traceback (most recent call last): File "pcs.py", line 19, in <module> container[:] = [item[-1] for item in data] File "/usr/lib/python3.1/xml/etree/ElementTree.py", line 210, in __setitem__ assert iselement(element) AssertionError When I use this method to import: import elementtree.ElementTree as ET, I get this message: Traceback (most recent call last): File "pcs.py", line 4, in <module> import elementtree.ElementTree as ET File "/usr/local/lib/python3.1/dist-packages/elementtree/ElementTree.py", line 794, in <module> _escape = re.compile(eval(r'u"[&<>\"\u0080-\uffff]+"')) File "<string>", line 1 u"[&<>\"\u0080-\uffff]+" ^ SyntaxError: invalid syntax I use Python 3.1.3 (r313:86834, Nov 28 2010, 11:28:10). In python2.6 elementtree work without a problem. Content of tosort.xml: <xdxf> <entries> <ar><k>zaaaa</k>definition1</ar> <ar><k>saaaa</k>definition2</ar> ... ... </entries> </xdxf>

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  • Facebook Application with PHP running loosing session

    - by ArneRie
    Iam trying to build an Facebook Application based on PHP. The Application is running under php on my own Webhost inside an Canvas as iFrame. I have included the newest Client Library for PHP from Facebook: facebook-php-sdk-94fcb13 To Authorize the user inside my application iam trying to use Facebook Connect, like the example shipped with the Client. Everything works fine the 1st Login, but when i hit the F5 Key to reload the page, the session is lost and i have to login again. When i call my application outside of the Facebook Canvas everything is fine. Iam not sure, but i think my Browser (Chrome/FireFox - Ubuntu) is not allowing to store an cookie inside an iFrame. Does someone knows an solution for this Problem? Here are some Parts of the Sourcecode: $facebook = new Facebook(array( 'appId' => 'x', 'secret' => 'x', 'cookie' => 'true', )); $session = $facebook->getSession(); $facebook->setSession($session); $me = null; // Session based API call. if ($session) { try { $uid = $facebook->getUser(); $me = $facebook->api('/me'); } catch (FacebookApiException $e) { error_log($e); } } // login or logout url will be needed depending on current user state. if ($me) { $logoutUrl = $facebook->getLogoutUrl(); } else { $loginUrl = $facebook->getLoginUrl(); }

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  • Running mysql query using node blocks the whole process and then timesout

    - by lobengula3rd
    I have a node javascript that uses mysql npm (Felix). I have a procedure stored in my DB which I call when the user selects an option to kind of create its own instance of the program. The user chooses for how long he wants that data to be initialized for him. This is suppsoed to be between 1 and 2 years. So if he choose 1 year this query will insert around 20,000 rows into 1 table. If I run this query and a local DB this takes around 30 seconds (I suppose it is reasonable because its a big query which should be done only once in 1 or 2 years so its ok). For some reason my node script freezes as if it can't handle any more calls from other users. The even worse problem is that after like 2 minutes my client ui gets like an error from the server. At this point not all the data that was supposed to enter the DB is entered. After waiting like another minute all the data finally gets to the DB and only then it will accept new requests. This is my connection: this.connection = mysql.createConnection({ host : '********rds.amazonaws.com', user : 'admin', password : '******', database : '*****' }); and this is my query function: this.createCourts = function (req, res, next){ connection.query('CALL filldates("' + req.body['startDate'] + '","' + req.body['endDate'] + '","' + req.body['numOfCourts'] + '","' + req.body['duration'] + '","' + req.body['sundayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['mondayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['tuesdayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['wednesdayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['thursdayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['fridayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['saturdayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['sundayClose'] + '","' + req.body['mondayClose'] + '","' + req.body['tuesdayClose'] + '","' + req.body['wednesdayClose'] + '","' + req.body['thursdayClose'] + '","' + req.body['fridayClose'] + '","' + req.body['saturdayClose'] + '");', function(err){ if (err){ console.log(err); } else return res.send(200); }); }; what am i missing here? as i understand connection.query should by async so why is it actually blocking my node script? thanks.

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  • Working with Decimal fields in SSIS

    - by CoffeeAddict
    I'm using SQL Server 2008 w/SP2. I've got an incoming decimal(9,2) field incoming through my OLE DB transformation to my recordset destination transformation. It's like it's reading it as something other than a decimal? I don't know..I'm not an SSIS guru. So continuing on...the problem I have starts here with me trying to stuff the value into a variable for this decimal field. In a foreach loop, I have a variable to represent this decimal field so I can work with it. The first problem that I believe is pretty well known is SSIS variables do not have a decimal type. And from my own testing and what I've read out there, people are using type object for the variable to make SSIS "happy" with decimal values? It makes mine happy. But, then in my foreach loop, I have a for loop. And inside that I'm using an E*xecute SQL Task transformation*. In it, I need to create a parameter mapping to my variable so I can work with that decimal field in my T-SQL call in here. So now I see a type decimal for the parameter and use it and set that to point to my variable. When I run SSIS and it hits my SQL call, I get this in my output window.: The type is not supported.DBTYPE_DECIMAL So I am hitting a wall here. All I wanna do is work with a decimal!!!

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  • Generic Singleton Façade design pattern

    - by Paul
    Hi I try write singleton façade pattern with generics. I have one problem, how can I call method from generic variable. Something like this: T1 t1 = new T1(); //call method from t1 t1.Method(); In method SingletonFasadeMethod I have compile error: Error 1 'T1' does not contain a definition for 'Method' and no extension method 'Method' accepting a first argument of type 'T1' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) Any advace? Thank, I am beginner in C#. All code is here: namespace GenericSingletonFasade { public interface IMyInterface { string Method(); } internal class ClassA : IMyInterface { public string Method() { return " Calling MethodA "; } } internal class ClassB : IMyInterface { public string Method() { return " Calling MethodB "; } } internal class ClassC : IMyInterface { public string Method() { return "Calling MethodC"; } } internal class ClassD : IMyInterface { public string Method() { return "Calling MethodD"; } } public class SingletonFasade<T1,T2,T3> where T1 : class,new() where T2 : class,new() where T3 : class,new() { private static T1 t1; private static T2 t2; private static T3 t3; private SingletonFasade() { t1 = new T1(); t2 = new T2(); t3 = new T3(); } class SingletonCreator { static SingletonCreator() { } internal static readonly SingletonFasade<T1,T2,T3> uniqueInstace = new SingletonFasade<T1,T2,T3>(); } public static SingletonFasade<T1,T2,T3> UniqueInstace { get { return SingletonCreator.uniqueInstace; } } public string SingletonFasadeMethod() { //Problem is here return t1.Method() + t2.Method() + t3.Method(); } } } I use this for my problem. public class SingletonFasade<T1, T2, T3> where T1 : class, IMyInterface, new() where T2 : class, IMyInterface, new() where T3 : class, IMyInterface, new() {//...} Is any solution without Interfaces ??

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  • How can I prevent default_environment variables from getting set by Capistrano's sudo action?

    - by Logan Koester
    My deploy.rb sets some environment variables to use the regular user's local Ruby rather than the system-wide one. set :default_environment, { :PATH => '/home/myapp/.rvm/bin:/home/myapp/.rvm/bin:/home/myapp/.rvm/rubies/ruby-1.9.1-p378/bin:/home/myapp/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.1-p378/bin:/home/myapp/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.1-p378%global/bin:/home/myapp/bin:/usr/bin:/opt/local/bin:/opt/local/sbin:/usr/local/bin:/usr/local/sbin:/usr/sbin:/sbin:/bin:/usr/games', :RUBY_VERSION => 'ruby-1.9.1-p378', :GEM_HOME => '/home/myapp/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.1-p378', :GEM_PATH => '/home/myapp/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.1-p378:/home/myapp/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.1-p378%global' } Naturally, when a task is using sudo, I would expect the system-wide ruby to be used instead. But it seems the environment variables are being set anyway, which is obviously invalid for the root user and returns an error: executing "sudo -p 'sudo password: ' /etc/init.d/god stop" servers: ["myapp.com"] [myapp.com] executing command command finished failed: "env PATH=/home/myapp/.rvm/bin:/home/myapp/.rvm/bin:/home/myapp/.rvm/rubies/ruby-1.9.1-p378/bin:/home/myapp/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.1-p378/bin:/home/myapp/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.1-p378%global/bin:/home/myapp/bin:/usr/bin:/opt/local/bin:/opt/local/sbin:/usr/local/bin:/usr/local/sbin:/usr/sbin:/sbin:/bin:/usr/games RUBY_VERSION=ruby-1.9.1-p378 GEM_HOME=/home/myapp/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.1-p378 GEM_PATH=/home/myapp/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.1-p378:/home/myapp/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.1-p378%global sh -c 'sudo -p '\\''sudo password: '\\'' /etc/init.d/god stop'" on myapp.com It makes no difference whether I use capistrano's sudo "system call" or the regular run "sudo system call". How can I avoid this?

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  • Dumping an ADODB recordset to XML, then back to a recordset, then saving to the db

    - by Mark Biek
    I've created an XML file using the .Save() method of an ADODB recordset in the following manner. dim res dim objXML: Set objXML = Server.CreateObject("MSXML2.DOMDocument") 'This returns an ADODB recordset set res = ExecuteReader("SELECT * from some_table) With res Call .Save(objXML, 1) Call .Close() End With Set res = nothing Let's assume that the XML generated above then gets saved to a file. I'm able to read the XML back into a recordset like this: dim res : set res = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.recordset") res.open server.mappath("/admin/tbl_some_table.xml") And I can loop over the records without any problem. However what I really want to do is save all of the data in res to a table in a completely different database. We can assume that some_table already exists in this other database and has the exact same structure as the table I originally queried to make the XML. I started by creating a new recordset and using AddNew to add all of the rows from res to the new recordset dim outRes : set outRes = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.recordset") dim outConn : set outConn = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") dim testConnStr : testConnStr = "DRIVER={SQL Server};SERVER=dev-windows\sql2000;UID=myuser;PWD=mypass;DATABASE=Testing" outConn.open testConnStr outRes.activeconnection = outConn outRes.cursortype = adOpenDynamic outRes.locktype = adLockOptimistic outRes.source = "product_accessories" outRes.open while not res.eof outRes.addnew for i=0 to res.fields.count-1 outRes(res.fields(i).name) = res(res.fields(i).name) next outRes.movefirst res.movenext wend outRes.updatebatch But this bombs the first time I try to assign the value from res to outRes. Microsoft OLE DB Provider for ODBC Drivers error '80040e21' Multiple-step OLE DB operation generated errors. Check each OLE DB status value, if available. No work was done. Can someone tell me what I'm doing wrong or suggest a better way for me to copy the data loaded from XML to a different database?

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  • Opening port 80 with Java application on Ubuntu

    - by Featheast
    What I need to do is running a Java application which is a RESTful service server side writtern by Restlet. And this service will be called by another app running on Google App Engine. Because of the restriction of GAE, every http call is limited to port 80 and 443 (http and https) with HttpUrlConnection class. As a result, I have to deploy my server side application on port 80 or 443. However, because the app is running on Ubuntu, and those ports under 1024 cannot be accessed by non-root user, then a Access Denied exception will be thrown when I run my app. The solutions that have come into my mind includs: Changing the security policy of JRE, which is the files resides in /lib/security/java.policy, to grantjava.net.SocketPermission "*.80" "listen, connect, accept, resolve" permission?However, neither using command line to include this file or overrides the content in JRE's java.policy file, the same exception keeps coming out. try to login as a root user, however because my unfamiliarity with Unix, I don't know how to do it. another solution I haven't try is to map all calls to 80 to a higher port like 1234, then I can deploy my app on 1234 without problem, and GAE call send request to port 80. But how to connect the missing gap is still a problem. Currently I am using a "hacking" method, which is to package the application into a jar file, and sudo running the jar file with root privilege. It works now, but definitely not appropriate in the real deployment environment. So if anyone have any idea about the solution, thanks very much!

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  • How can I create objects based on dump file memory in a WinDbg extension?

    - by pj4533
    I work on a large application, and frequently use WinDbg to diagnose issues based on a DMP file from a customer. I have written a few small extensions for WinDbg that have proved very useful for pulling bits of information out of DMP files. In my extension code I find myself dereferencing c++ class objects in the same way, over and over, by hand. For example: Address = GetExpression("somemodule!somesymbol"); ReadMemory(Address, &addressOfPtr, sizeof(addressOfPtr), &cb); // get the actual address ReadMemory(addressOfObj, &addressOfObj, sizeof(addressOfObj), &cb); ULONG offset; ULONG addressOfField; GetFieldOffset("somemodule!somesymbolclass", "somefield", &offset); ReadMemory(addressOfObj+offset, &addressOfField, sizeof(addressOfField), &cb); That works well, but as I have written more extensions, with greater functionality (and accessing more complicated objects in our applications DMP files), I have longed for a better solution. I have access to the source of our own application of course, so I figure there should be a way to copy an object out of a DMP file and use that memory to create an actual object in the debugger extension that I can call functions on (by linking in dlls from our application). This would save me the trouble of pulling things out of the DMP by hand. Is this even possible? I tried obvious things like creating a new object in the extension, then overwriting it with a big ReadMemory directly from the DMP file. This seemed to put the data in the right fields, but freaked out when I tried to call a function. I figure I am missing something...maybe c++ pulls some vtable funky-ness that I don't know about? My code looks similar to this: SomeClass* thisClass = SomeClass::New(); ReadMemory(addressOfObj, &(*thisClass), sizeof(*thisClass), &cb);

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  • AVAudioPlayer not unloading cached memory after each new allocation

    - by Rob
    I am seeing in Instruments that when I play a sound via the standard "AddMusic" example method that Apple provides, it allocates 32kb of memory via the prepareToPlay call (which references the AudioToolBox framework's Cache_DataSource::ReadBytes function) each time a new player is allocated (i.e. each time a different sound is played). However, that cached data never gets released. This obviously poses a huge problem if it doesn't get released and you have a lot of sound files to play, since it tends to keep allocating memory and eventually crashes if you have enough unique sound files (which I unfortunately do). Have any of you run across this or what am I doing wrong in my code? I've had this issue for a while now and it's really bugging me since my code is verbatim of what Apple's is (I think). How I call the function: - (void)playOnce:(NSString *)aSound { // Gets the file system path to the sound to play. NSString *soundFilePath = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:aSound ofType:@"caf"]; // Converts the sound's file path to an NSURL object NSURL *soundURL = [[NSURL alloc] initFileURLWithPath: soundFilePath]; self.soundFileURL = soundURL; [soundURL release]; AVAudioPlayer * newAudio=[[AVAudioPlayer alloc] initWithContentsOfURL: soundFileURL error:nil]; self.theAudio = newAudio; // automatically retain audio and dealloc old file if new m4a file is loaded [newAudio release]; // release the audio safely // this is where the prior cached data never gets released [theAudio prepareToPlay]; // set it up and play [theAudio setNumberOfLoops:0]; [theAudio setVolume: volumeLevel]; [theAudio setDelegate: self]; [theAudio play]; } and then theAudio gets released in the dealloc method of course.

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  • .NET Remoting Connecting to Wrong Host

    - by Dark Falcon
    I have an application I wrote which has been running well for 4 years. Yesterday they moved all their servers around and installed about 60 pending Windows updates, and now it is broken. The application makes use of remoting to update some information on another server (10.0.5.230), but when I try to create my remote object, I get the following exception: Note that it is trying to connect to 127.0.0.1, not the proper server. The server (10.0.5.230) is listening on port 9091 as it should. This same error is happening on all three terminal servers where this application is installed. Here is the code which registers the remoted object: public static void RegisterClient() { string lServer; RegistryKey lKey = Registry.CurrentUser.OpenSubKey("SOFTWARE\\Shoreline Teleworks\\ShoreWare Client"); if (lKey == null) throw new InvalidOperationException("Could not find Shoretel Call Manager"); object lVal = lKey.GetValue("Server"); if (lVal == null) throw new InvalidOperationException("Shoretel Call Manager did not specify a server name"); lServer = lVal.ToString(); IDictionary props = new Hashtable(); props["port"] = 0; string s = System.Guid.NewGuid().ToString(); props["name"] = s; ChannelServices.RegisterChannel(new TcpClientChannel(props, null), false); RemotingConfiguration.RegisterActivatedClientType(typeof(UpdateClient), "tcp://" + lServer + ":" + S_REMOTING_PORT + "/"); RemotingConfiguration.RegisterActivatedClientType(typeof(Playback), "tcp://" + lServer + ":" + S_REMOTING_PORT + "/"); } Here is the code which calls the remoted object: UpdateClient lUpdater = new UpdateClient(Settings.CurrentSettings.Extension.ToString()); lUpdater.SetAgentState(false); I have verified that the following URI is passed to RegisterActivatedClientType: "tcp://10.0.5.230:9091/" Why does this application try to connect to the wrong server?

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  • Using unset member variables within a class or struct

    - by Doug Kavendek
    It's pretty nice to catch some really obvious errors when using unset local variables or when accessing a class or struct's members directly prior to initializing them. In visual studio 2008 you get an "uninitialized local variable used" warning at compile-time and get a run-time check failure at the point of access when debugging. However, if you access an uninitialized struct's member variable through one of its functions, you don't get any warnings or assertions. Obviously the easiest solution is don't do that, but nobody's perfect. For example: struct Test { float GetMember() const { return member; } float member; }; Test test; float f1 = test.member; // Raises warning, asserts in VS debugger at runtime float f2 = test.GetMember(); // No problem, just keeps on going This surprised me, but it makes some sense -- the compiler can't assume calling a function on an unused struct is an error, or how else would you initialize or construct it? And anything fancier just quickly brings up so many other complications that it makes sense that it wouldn't bother classifying which functions are ok to call and when, especially just as a debugging help. I know I can set up my own assertions or error checking within the class itself, but that can complicate some simpler structs. Still, it would seem like within the context of the function call, wouldn't it know insides GetMember() that member wasn't initialized yet? I'm assuming it's not only relying on static compile-time deduction, given the Run-Time Check Failure #3 it raises during execution, so based on my current understanding of it it would seem reasonable for the same checks to apply. Is this just a limitation of this specific compiler/debugger (Visual Studio 2008), or more tied to how C++ works?

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  • Conditionally overriding a system method via categories in Objective-C?

    - by adib
    Hi Is there a way to provide a method implementation (that bears the exact same name of a method defined by the framework) only when the method isn't already defined in the system? For example method [NSSomeClass someMethod:] exists only in Mac OS X 10.6 and if my app runs in 10.5, I will provide that method's definition in a category. But when the app runs in 10.6, I want the OS-provided method to run. Background: I'm creating an app targeted for both 10.5 and 10.6. The problem is that I recently realized that method +[NSSortDescriptor sortDescriptorWithKey:ascending:] only exists in 10.6 and my code is already littered by that method call. I could provide a default implementation for it (since this time it's not too difficult to implement it myself), but I want the "native" one to be called whenever my app runs on 10.6. Furthermore if I encounter similar problems in the future (with more difficult-to-implement-myself methods), I might not be able to get away with providing a one-liner replacement. This question vaguely similar to Override a method via ObjC Category and call the default implementation? but the difference is that I want to provide implementations only when the system doesn't already has one. Thanks.

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  • Focus behavior in Applet-Javascript interaction

    - by Dan
    I have a web page with an applet that opens a popup window and also makes Javascript calls. When that Javascript call results in a focus() call on an HTML input, that causes the browser window to push itself in front of the applet window. But only on certain browsers, namely MSIE. On Firefox the applet window remains on top. How can I keep that behavior consistent in MSIE? Note that using the old Microsoft VM for Java also achieves the desired (applet window in front) result. HTML code: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> function focusMe() { document.getElementById('mytext').focus(); } </script> </head> <body> <applet id="myapplet" mayscript code="Popup.class" ></applet> <form> <input type="text" id="mytext"> <input type="button" onclick="document.getElementById('myapplet').showPopup()" value="click"> </form> </body> </html> Java code: public class Popup extends Applet { Frame frame; public void start() { frame = new Frame("Test Frame"); frame.setLayout(new BorderLayout()); Button button = new Button("Push Me"); frame.add("Center", button); button.addActionListener(new ActionListener(){ public void actionPerformed(ActionEvent e) { frame.setVisible(false); } }); frame.pack(); } public void showPopup() { frame.setVisible(true); JSObject.getWindow(this).eval("focusMe()"); } }

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  • Can I force Apache 2.2 connection close from inside a C module?

    - by Amos Shapira
    Hello, We'd like to have a more fine-grained control on the connections we serve in a C++ Apache 2.2 module (on CentOS 5). One of the connections needs to stay alive for a few multiple requests, so we set "KeepAlive" to "On" and set a short keep-alive period. But for every such connection we have a few more connections from the browser which we don't need to leave behind and instead want to force them to close after a single request. Some of these connections are on different ports (so we can distinguish them by port, since KeepAlive can be set per virtual host) and some request a different URL (so we can tell from the path and parameters that we don't want to leave them behind). Also for the one we do want to keep alive, we know that after a certain request we'd like to close it too. But so far the only way we found to "cancel" the keep-alive is to send a polite "Connection: close" header to the client. If the client is not well behaved, or malicious, then they can keep it open and waste our resources. Is there a way to tell Apache to close the connection from the server side? The documentation advises against just plain close(2) call on the socket since Apache needs to do some clean up before that's done. But is there some API or a trick to "override" the static "KeepAlive On" configuration dynamically (and convince Apache to call close(2))? Thanks.

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  • Qt Creator CONFIG (debug, release) switches does NOT work

    - by killdaclick
    Problem: CONFIG(debug,debug|release) and CONFIG(release,deubg|release) are always evaluated wherever debug or release is choosen in Qt Creator 2.8.1 for Linux. My configuration in Qt Creator application (stock - default for new project): Projects->Build Settings->Debug Build Steps: qmake build configuration: Debug Effective qmake call: qmake2 proj.pro -r -spec linux-gnueabi-oe-g++ CONFIG+=debug Projects->Build Settings->Release Build Steps: qmake build configuration: Release Effective qmake call: qmake2 proj.pro -r -spec linux-gnueabi-oe-g++ My configuration in proj.pro: message(Variable CONFIG:) message($$CONFIG) CONFIG(debug,debug|release) { message(Debug build) } CONFIG(release,debug|release) { message(Release build) } Output on console for Debug: Project MESSAGE: Variable CONFIG: Project MESSAGE: lex yacc warn_on debug uic resources warn_on release incremental link_prl no_mocdepend release stl qt_no_framework debug console Project MESSAGE: Debug build Project MESSAGE: Release build Output on console for Release: Project MESSAGE: Variable CONFIG: Project MESSAGE: lex yacc warn_on uic resources warn_on release incremental link_prl no_mocdepend release stl qt_no_framework console Project MESSAGE: Debug build Project MESSAGE: Release build Under Windows 7 I didnt experienced any problem with such .pro configuration and it worked fine. I was desperate and modified .pro file: CONFIG = test message(Variable CONFIG:) message($$CONFIG) CONFIG(debug,debug|release) { message(Debug build) } CONFIG(release,debug|release) { message(Release build) } and I was suprised with the output: Project MESSAGE: Variable CONFIG: Project MESSAGE: test Project MESSAGE: Debug build Project MESSAGE: Release build so even if I completly clean CONFIG variable it still see debug and release configuration. What Im doing wrong?

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  • Specifying both multiple targets and multiple build files with ant or subant in 1.6

    - by Paul Marshall
    I'm trying to unify a build process, running one build to get multiple packages. My first shot at this is just having a central build script call <ant or <subant on each project's build.xml file. I'm using Ant 1.6, and I've run into a funny problem: either I use the <ant task, and I can specify multiple targets but not multiple build files, or I use the <subant task, and I can specify multiple build files but not multiple targets. I realize there's a few solutions here already: Just upgrade to Ant 1.7 already; <antcall can do multiple targets there. Edit the separate project build files to have a variety of top-level targets, so I can call each individual file with just one target, and use <antcall. Copy-paste a lot of <ant tasks, with a little help from <macrodef to help the sanity. Is there something I've missed, that will allow me to do what I want from this single central build.xml without a) editing individual project files, b) writing lots of repetitive code, or c) upgrading Ant, and that d) doesn't require editing every time I add a new project?

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  • Fitting title for my position

    - by lithander
    In the last 2 years my company has developed a boxed and full-price computer game. All the software development has been done collaboratively by me and my co-developer. We know each other from university and got hired at the same day to equal conditions and we share the same responsibilites including the decisions of what technology to license and how to spend development resources and even how team-workflow is organized. But I struggle to find the correct wording for my position. Can I call myself a senior developer with only 3 years working-experience? Can I call myself lead programmer if I don't really have a team to "lead"? All these fancy names used in the industry (Technical Lead, Development Lead, Software Architect) seem to imply that you aren't actually coding anymore or have staff under you. On the other hand titles like "Programmer" or "Software Engineer" seem to imply that there's someone between you and the project management. That makes it hard to fill out a resume or even the badges you typically wear on conferences... people tend to judge you by your title and I'd like to avoid confusion where possible.

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  • OO Objective-C design with XML parsing

    - by brainfsck
    Hi, I need to parse an XML record that represents a QuizQuestion. The "type" attribute tells the type of question. I then need to create an appropriate subclass of QuizQuestion based on the question type. The following code works ([auto]release statements omitted for clarity): QuizQuestion *question = [[QuizQuestion alloc] initWithXMLString:xml]; if( [ [question type] isEqualToString:@"multipleChoiceQuestion"] ) { [myQuestions addObject:[[MultipleChoiceQuizQuestion alloc] initWithXMLString:xml]; } //QuizQuestion.m -(id)initWithXMLString:(NSString*)xml { self.type = ...// parse "type" attribute from xml // parse the rest of the xml } //MultipleChoiceQuizQuestion.m -(id)initWithXMLString:(NSString*)xml { if( self= [super initWithXMLString:xml] ) { // multiple-choice stuff } } Of course, this means that the XML is parsed twice: once to find out the type of QuizQuestion, and once when the appropriate QuizQuestion is initialized. To prevent parsing the XML twice, I tried the following approach: // MultipleChoiceQuizQuestion.m -(id)initWithQuizRecord:(QuizQuestion*)record { self=record; // record has already parsed the "type" and other parameters // multiple-choice stuff } However, this fails due to the "self=record" assignment; whenever the MultipleChoiceQuizQuestion tries to call an instance-method, it tries to call the method on the QuizQuestion class instead. Can someone tell me the correct approach for parsing XML into the appropriate subclass when the parent class needs to be initialized to know which subclass is appropriate?

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  • Connection

    - by pepersview
    Hello, I would like to ask you about NSURLConnection in objective-c for iPhone. I have one app that needs to connect to one webservice to receive data (about YouTube videos), Then I have all the things that I need to connect (Similar to Hello_Soap sample code in the web). But now, my problem is that I create a class (inherits from NSObject) named Connection and I have implemented the methods: didReceiveResponse, didReceiveData, didFailWithError and connectionDidFinishLoading. Also the method: -(void)Connect:(NSString *) soapMessage{ NSLog(soapMessage); NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:@"http://....."]; NSMutableURLRequest *theRequest = [NSMutableURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; NSString *msgLength = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", [soapMessage length]]; [theRequest addValue: @"text/xml; charset=utf-8" forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Type"]; [theRequest addValue: msgLength forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Length"]; [theRequest setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; [theRequest setHTTPBody: [soapMessage dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; NSURLConnection *theConnection = [[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:theRequest delegate:self]; if( theConnection ) { webData = [[NSMutableData data] retain]; } else { NSLog(@"theConnection is NULL"); } } But when from my AppDelegate I create one Connection object: Connection * connect = [[Connection alloc] Init:num]; //It's only one param to test. [connect Connect:method.soapMessage]; And I call this method, when this finishes, it doesn't continue calling didReceiveResponse, didReceiveData, didFailWithError or connectionDidFinishLoading. I'm trying to do this but I can't for the moment. The thing I would like to do is to be able to call this class "Connection" each time that I want to receive data (after that to be parsed and displayed in UITableViews). Thank you.

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  • How to get resultset with stored procedure calls over two linked servers?

    - by räph
    I have problems filling a temporary table with the resultset from a procedure call on a linked server, in which again a procedure on another server is called. I have a Stored Procedure sproc1 with the following code, which calls another procedure sproc2 on a linked server. SET @sqlCommand = 'INSERT INTO #tblTemp ( ModuleID, ParamID) ' + '( SELECT * FROM OPENQUERY(' + @targetServer + ', ' + '''SET FMTONLY OFF; EXEC ' + @targetDB + '.usr.sproc2 ' + @param + ''' ) )' exec ( @sqlCommand ) Now in the called sproc2 I again call a third procedure sproc3 on another linked server, which returns my resultset. SET @sqlCommand = 'EXEC ' + @targetServer +'.database.usr.sproc3 ' + @param exec ( @sqlCommand ) The whole thing doen't work, as I get an SQL error 7391 The operation could not be performed because OLE DB provider "%ls" for linked server "%ls" was unable to begin a distributed transaction. I already checked the hints at this microsoft article, but without success. But maybe, I can change the code in sproc1. Would there be some alternative to the temp table and the open query? Just calling stored procedures from server A to B to C and returning the resultset is working (I do this often in the application). But this special case with the temp table and openquery doesn't work! Or is it just not possible what I am trying to do? The microsft article states: Check the object you refer on the destination server. If it is a view or a stored procedure, or causes an execution of a trigger, check whether it implicitly references another server. If so, the third server is the source of the problem. Run the query directly on the third server. If you cannot run the query directly on the third server, the problem is not actually with the linked server query. Resolve the underlying problem first. Is this my case? PS: I can't avoid the architecture with the three servers.

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  • Sending an email with browser capabilities and screen size etc.

    - by talkingnews
    A lot of my visitors are blind (with it being a site for the blind), and often when trying to diagnose problems, I'd like to know what version of browser etc they're using, whether flash is installed. Because more often than not, someone will swear they are using X, when in fact Y is installed. Currently, I'm using http://jsbrwsniff.sourceforge.net/usage.html piped into an email, but I've got 2 problems here: First of all, jsbrwsniff is quite "heavy" and hasn't been updated since early 2007, so there's a lot of -1's in the result. Secondly, if I call it as follows, the page reloads: <a href="#" onclick="sendEmail()">Email feedback</a> And if I call it like this, the page goes blank and looks like it's trying to infinitely load a blank page: <a href="javascript:sendEmail()">Email feedback</a> See the nightmare for yourself here: http://kingston.talking-newspapers.co.uk/ Now, I know there are 1001 articles and comments here and elsewhere saying "don't use browser sniffers, they can be spoofed (etc)", but honestly, you'll have to trust me that this is a significantly useful tool when you're talking someone in their more "senior years" and using a screenreader through "help about", when they've clicked the wrong window to start with! I'm using jquery anyway in the site, and I'm aware of $jQuery.browser and $jQuery.support, but these don't tell me the elements I need (like whether Flash is installed, and what version etc). I've looked everywhere for a jquery plugin for my needs, with no luck. Finally, if I have to stick to the current method of jsbrwsniff then it's not the end of the world, but if anyone knows a way of launching the user's email client populated with the information I need but WITHOUT refreshing or blanking the page, I'd love to know. BTW - there's a good reason for not using a webform, which is simply because it's easier for the screen-reader user to use an email client they are used to. Thanks!

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