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  • How does jquery display an image received from an ajax request?

    - by Gnee
    I have this working great, but I'd like a deeper understanding of what is actually going on behind the scenes. I am using Jquery's Ajax method to pull 5 blog posts (returning only the title and first photo). A PHP script grabs the blog posts' title and first photo and sticks it in an array and sends it back to my browser as JSON. Upon receiving the JSON object, Jquery grabs the first member of the JSON object and displays it's title and photo. In a gallery I made, using buttons – the user can iterate the 1-5 posts. So the actual AJAX call happens right away, and only once. I am basically using this kind of setup: $('my_div').html(json_obj[i]) and each click does a i++. So jquery is plucking these blog posts from my computers memory, my web browsers cache, or some kind of cache in the Javascript engine? One of the things it's returning is a pretty gnarly animated gif. I just wonder if it constantly running in the background (but not visible), stealing processing cycles...etc. Or Javascript just inserting (say a flash movie) into the DOM, but before hand does nothing but take up a little memory (no processing). Anyway, I'm just curious. If someone is a guru on this, I'd love to hear your take. Thanks!!

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  • How to Show detail section only with out any space in Active Report

    - by Sunil Naudiyal
    i have a active report without any Page Header , Report Header and no any Footer type section. for more detail see attached image. Now issue is that When we run this report we got space before report detail. for more detail see attached image Below is my code Assembly asm = Assembly.GetAssembly(this.GetType()); System.IO.Stream stre = asm.GetManifestResourceStream(asm.GetName().Name + ".CoverPage.rpx"); using (XmlTextReader xr = new XmlTextReader(stre)) { arCoverPage.LoadLayout(xr); } //Get detail for Cover Page AddingReportSection(report, HeaderType.CoverPage); arCoverPage.DataSource = lstCoverPage; arCoverPage.Run(); I want remove this space.so please give me any suggestion/idea I also tried to set height of page but i am not get sucess. arCoverPage.PageSettings.DefaultPaperSize = false; arCoverPage.PageSettings.Gutter = 3.0F; arCoverPage.PageSettings.Orientation = DataDynamics.ActiveReports.Document.PageOrientation.Portrait; arCoverPage.PageSettings.PaperHeight = 5.0F; this.viReport.Document = arCoverPage.Document;

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  • Authentification-None for one folder(page) when the project is under FormsAuthentifications

    - by Sirius Lampochkin
    I have a WebApplication on asp.net 2.0 with namespace Admin. I have Form Authentification mode for the project. <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms name="ASP_XML_Form" loginUrl="Login.aspx" protection="All" timeout="30" path="/" requireSSL="false" slidingExpiration="true" cookieless="AutoDetect"> </forms> </authentication> Now, I try to share one folder (one inside page) for not Authentificatied users: <location path="Recovery"> <system.web> <roleManager enabled="false" > </roleManager> <authentication mode="None"> </authentication> <authorization> <allow users="*" /> </authorization> <httpHandlers> <remove verb="GET" path="image.aspx" /> <remove verb="GET" path="css.aspx" /> </httpHandlers> </system.web> </location> But when I create the page inside the shared folder, it can't get access to the assembly. And I see the error like this: Could not load file or assembly 'Admin' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. It also shows me the error: ASP.NET runtime error: It is an error to use a section registered as allowDefinition='MachineToApplication' beyond application level. This error can be caused by a virtual directory not being configured as an application in IIS. Does anybody know how to share (Authentification None) one folder(page) when the project is under FormsAuthentifications?

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  • Side by side madness - running binaries on different computer (with a twist)

    - by sbk
    Here's my configuration: Computer A - Windows 7, MS Visual Studio 2005 patched for Win7 compatibility (8.0.50727.867) Computer B - Windows XP SP2, MS Visual Studio 2005 installed (8.0.50727.42) My project has some external dependencies (prebuilt DLLs - either build on A or downloaded from the Internet), a couple of DLLs built from sources and one executable. I am mostly developing on A and all is fine there. At some point I try to build my project on computer B, copying the prebuilt DLLs to the output folder. Everything builds fine, but trying to start my application I get The application failed to initialize properly (0xc0150002).... The event log contains two of those: Dependent Assembly Microsoft.VC80.CRT could not be found and Last Error was The referenced assembly is not installed on your system. plus the slightly more amusing Generate Activation Context failed for some.dll. Reference error message: The operation completed successfully. At this point I'm trying my Google-Fu, but in vain - virtually all hits are about running binaries on machines without Visual Studio installed. In my case, however, the executables fail to run on the computer they are built. Next step was to try dependency walker and it baffled me even more - my DLLs built from sources on the same box cannot find MSVCR80.DLL and MSVCP80.DLL, however the executable seems to be alright in respect to those two DLLs i.e. when I open the executable with dependency walker it shows that the MSVC?80.DLLs can be found, but when I open one of my DLLs it says they cannot. That's where I am completely out of ideas what to do so I'm asking you, dear stackoverflow :) I admit I'm a bit blurry on the whole side-by-side thing, so general reading on the topic will also be appreciated.

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  • How can I prevent/make it hard to download my flash video?

    - by Billy
    I want to at least prevent normal users to download my flash video. What's the best way to do it? Create a httphandler, add a token (e.g. timeid), set the cache control to no-cache so that only the users with correct token can view the correct video. Is that feasible? It is the requirement from client that the video should not be downloaded by users and should be watched only in the particular website. I want to know if this works: http://www.somesite.com/video.swf?time=1248319067 Server will generate a token(time in the above example) so that user can only have one request to this link. If the user wants to watch the video again, he needs to go to our website to get the token again. Is this okay to prevent novices from downloading? I can't download this flash video by the downloadHelper firefox plugin: http://news.bbc.co.uk/2/hi/americas/8164177.stm Updated (13:49 pm 2009/07/23): The above file can be downloaded using some video download software. The video files of following Chinese sites are well protected (I can't download it using many video download software): http://programme.tvb.com/drama/abrideforaride/video/ Do you know how it is done?

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  • Nhibernate join on a table twice

    - by Zuber
    Consider the following Class structure... public class ListViewControl { public int SystemId {get; set;} public List<ControlAction> Actions {get; set;} public List<ControlAction> ListViewActions {get; set;} } public class ControlAction { public string blahBlah {get; set;} } I want to load class ListViewControl eagerly using NHibernate. The mapping using Fluent is as shown below public UIControlMap() { Id(x => x.SystemId); HasMany(x => x.Actions) .KeyColumn("ActionId") .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan() .AsBag() .Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); HasMany(x => x.ListViewActions) .KeyColumn("ListViewActionId") .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan() .AsBag() .Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); } This is how I am trying to load it eagerly var baseActions = DetachedCriteria.For<ListViewControl>() .CreateCriteria("Actions", JoinType.InnerJoin) .SetFetchMode("BlahBlah", FetchMode.Eager) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()); var listViewActions = DetachedCriteria.For<ListViewControl>() .CreateCriteria("ListViewActions", JoinType.InnerJoin) .SetFetchMode("BlahBlah", FetchMode.Eager) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()); var listViews = DetachedCriteria.For<ListViewControl>() .SetFetchMode("Actions", FetchMode.Eager) .SetFetchMode("ListViewActions",FetchMode.Eager) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()); var result = _session.CreateMultiCriteria() .Add("listViewActions", listViewActions) .Add("baseActions", baseActions) .Add("listViews", listViews) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()) .GetResult("listViews"); Now, my problem is that the class ListViewControl get the correct records in both Actions and ListViewActions, but there are multiple entries of the same record. The number of records is equal to the number of joins made to the ControlAction table, in this case two. How can I avoid this? If I remove the SetFetchMode from the listViews query, the actions are loaded lazily through a proxy which I don't want.

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  • How to deploy ClickOnce .Net 3.5 application on 3.0 machine

    - by Buthrakaur
    I have .Net 3.5 SP1 WPF application which I'm successfully deploying to client computers using ClickOnce. Now I got new requirement - one of our clients need to run the application on machines equipped just with .Net 3.0 and it's entirely impossible to upgrade or install anything on the machines. I already tried to run the 3.5 application with some of the 3.5FW DLLs copied to the application directory and it worked without any problems. The only problem at the moment is ClickOnce. I already made it to include the 3.5FW System.*.dll files in list of application files, but it always aborts installation on 3.0 machine with this error message: Unable to install or run the application. The application requires that assembly System.Core Version 3.5.0.0 be installed in the Global Assembly Cache (GAC) first. Please contact your system administrator. I already tried to tweak prerequisites on Publish tab of my project, but no combination solved the issue. What part of ClickOnce is responsible for checking prerequisites? I already tried to deploy using mageui.exe, but the 3.5FW error is still present. What should I do to fore ClickOnce to stop checking any prerequisites at all? The project is created using VS2010.

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  • new Statefull session bean instance without calling lookup

    - by kislo_metal
    Hi! Scenario: I have @Singleton UserFactory (@Stateless could be) , it`s method createSession() generating @Statefull UserSession bean by manual lookup. If I am injecting by DI @EJB - i will get same instance during calling fromFactory() method(as it should be) What I want - is to get new instance of UserSession without preforming lookup. Q1: how could I call new instance of @Statefull session bean? Code: @Singleton @Startup @LocalBean public class UserFactory { @EJB private UserSession session; public UserFactory() { } @Schedule(second = "*/1", minute = "*", hour = "*") public void creatingInstances(){ try { InitialContext ctx = new InitialContext(); UserSession session2 = (UserSession) ctx.lookup("java:global/inferno/lic/UserSession"); System.out.println("in singleton UUID " +session2.getSessionUUID()); } catch (NamingException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } @Schedule(second = "*/1", minute = "*", hour = "*") public void fromFactory(){ System.out.println("in singleton UUID " +session.getSessionUUID()); } public UserSession creatSession(){ UserSession session2 = null; try { InitialContext ctx = new InitialContext(); session2 = (UserSession) ctx.lookup("java:global/inferno/lic/UserSession"); System.out.println("in singleton UUID " +session2.getSessionUUID()); } catch (NamingException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } return session2; } } As I understand, calling of session.getClass().newInstance(); is not a best idea Q2 : is it true? I am using glassfish v3, ejb 3.1.

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  • Installing a Windows Service from a separate GUI - how to install .config file along with it?

    - by Shaul
    I have written a GUI (call it MyGUI) for ClickOnce deployment on any given client site. That GUI installs and configures a Windows Service (MyService), using the method described here by @Marc Gravell. Here's my code, run from inside MyGUI, which contains a reference to MyService: using (var inst = new AssemblyInstaller(typeof(MyService.Program).Assembly, new string[] { })) { IDictionary state = new Hashtable(); inst.UseNewContext = true; try { if (uninstall) { inst.Uninstall(state); } else { inst.Install(state); inst.Commit(state); } } catch { try { inst.Rollback(state); } catch { } throw; } } Take note of that first line: I'm grabbing the assembly for MyService, and installing that. Now, trouble is, the way I've done the deployment, I'm effectively referencing the service's EXE file from the GUI's app folder. So now the service fires up and starts looking for stuff in the MyService.config file, and can't find it, because it's living in someone else's app folder, with only the GUI's MyGUI.config file present. So, how do I get MyService.config to be available to the service?

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  • A little confusion about AJAX and inserting into DOM..

    - by Gnee
    I have this working great, but I'd like a deeper understanding of what is actually going on behind the scenes. I am using Jquery's Ajax method to pull 5 blog posts (returning only the title and first photo). A PHP script grabs the blog posts' title and first photo and sticks it in an array and sends it back to my browser as JSON. Upon receiving the JSON object, Jquery grabs the first member of the JSON object and displays it's title and photo. In a gallery I made, using buttons – the user can iterate the 1-5 posts. So the actual AJAX call happens right away, and only once. I am basically using this kind of setup: $('my_div').html(json_obj[i]) and each click does a i++. So jquery is plucking these blog posts from my computers memory, my web browsers cache, or some kind of cache in the Javascript engine? One of the things it's returning is a pretty gnarly animated gif. I just wonder if it constantly running in the background (but not visible), stealing processing cycles...etc. Or Javascript just inserting (say a flash movie) into the DOM, but before hand does nothing but take up a little memory (no processing). Anyway, I'm just curious. If someone is a guru on this, I'd love to hear your take. THanks!!

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  • Open the Word Application from a button on a web page

    - by Andrea
    I'm developing a proof of concept web application: A web page with a button that opens the Word Application installed on the user's PC. I'm stuck with a C# project in Visual Studio 2008 Express (Windows XP client, LAMP server). I've followed the Writing an ActiveX Control in .NET tutorial and after some tuning it worked fine. Then I added my button for opening Word. The problem is that I can reference the Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word from the project, but I'm not able to access it from the web page. The error says "That assembly does not allow partially trusted callers". I've read a lot about security in .NET, but I'm totally lost now. Disclaimer: I'm into .NET since 4 days ago. I've tried to work around this issue but I cannot see the light!! I don't even know if it will ever be possible! using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Drawing; using System.Data; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Forms; using Word = Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word; using System.IO; using System.Security.Permissions; using System.Security; [assembly: AllowPartiallyTrustedCallers] namespace OfficeAutomation { public partial class UserControl1 : UserControl { public UserControl1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void openWord_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { Word.Application Word_App = null; Word_App = new Word.Application(); Word_App.Visible = true; } catch (Exception exc) { MessageBox.Show("Can't open Word application (" + exc.ToString() + ")"); } } } }

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  • How to test for existence of a script-scoped variable in PowerShell?

    - by Damian Powell
    Is it possible to test for the existence of a script-scoped variable in PowerShell? I've been using the PowerShell Community Extensions (PSCX) but I've noticed that if you import the module while Set-PSDebug -Strict is set, an error is produced: The variable '$SCRIPT:helpCache' cannot be retrieved because it has not been set. At C:\Users\...\Modules\Pscx\Modules\GetHelp\Pscx.GetHelp.psm1:5 char:24 While investigating how I might fix this, I found this piece of code in Pscx.GetHelp.psm1: #requires -version 2.0 param([string[]]$PreCacheList) if ((!$SCRIPT:helpCache) -or $RefreshCache) { $SCRIPT:helpCache = @{} } This is pretty straight forward code; if the cache doesn't exist or needs to be refreshed, create a new, empty cache. The problem is that calling $SCRIPT:helpCache while Set-PSDebug -Strict is in force casues the error because the variable hasn't been defined yet. Ideally, we could use a Test-Variable cmdlet but such a thing doesn't exist! I thought about looking in the variable: provider but I don't know how to determine the scope of a variable. So my question is: how can I test for the existence of a variable while Set-PSDebug -Strict is in force, without causing an error?

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  • Yet another "What is this code doing"-type of Perl code

    - by Mike
    I have inherited some code from a guy whose favorite past time was to shorten every line to its absolute minimum (and sometimes only to make it look cool). His code is hard to understand but I managed to understand (and rewrite) most of it. Now I have stumbled on a piece of code which, no matter how hard I try, I cannot understand. my @heads = grep {s/\.txt$//} OSA::Fast::IO::Ls->ls($SysKey,'fo','osr/tiparlo',qr{^\d+\.txt$}) || (); my @selected_heads = (); for my $i (0..1) { $selected_heads[$i] = int rand scalar @heads; for my $j (0..@heads-1) { last if (!grep $j eq $_, @selected_heads[0..$i-1]); $selected_heads[$i] = ($selected_heads[$i] + 1) % @heads; #WTF? } my $head_nr = sprintf "%04d", $i; OSA::Fast::IO::Cp->cp($SysKey,'',"osr/tiparlo/$heads[$selected_heads[$i]].txt","$recdir/heads/$head_nr.txt"); OSA::Fast::IO::Cp->cp($SysKey,'',"osr/tiparlo/$heads[$selected_heads[$i]].cache","$recdir/heads/$head_nr.cache"); } From what I can understand, this is supposed to be some kind of randomizer, but I never saw a more complex way to achieve randomness. Or are my assumptions wrong? At least, that's what this code is supposed to do. Select 2 random files and copy them. === NOTES === The OSA Framework is a Framework of our own. They are named after their UNIX counterparts and do some basic testing so that the application does not need to bother with that.

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  • How can I protect my .NET assemblies from decompilation?

    - by Holli
    One if the first things I learned when I started with C# was the most important one. You can decompile any .NET assembly with Reflector or other tools. Many developers are not aware of this fact and most of them are shocked when I show them their source code. Protection against decompilation is still a difficult task. I am still looking for a fast, easy and secure way to do it. I don't want to obfuscate my code so my method names will be a,b,c or so. Reflector or other tools should be unable to recognize my application as .NET assembly at all. I know about some tools already but they are very expensive. Is there any other way to protect my applications? EDIT: The reason for my question is not to prevent piracy. I only want to stop competitors from reading my code. I know they will and they already did. They even told me so. Maybe I am a bit paranoid but business rivals reading my code doesn't make me feel good.

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  • File Handler returning garbled files.

    - by forcripesake
    For the past 3 months my site has been using a PHP file handler in combination with htaccess. Users accessing the uploads folder of the site would be redirected to the handler as such: RewriteRule ^(.+)\.*$ downloader.php?f=%{REQUEST_FILENAME} [L] The purpose of the file handler is pseudo coded below, followed by actual code. //Check if file exists and user is downloading from uploads directory; True. //Check against a file type white list and set the mime type(); $ctype = mime type; header("Pragma: public"); // required header("Expires: 0"); header("Cache-Control: must-revalidate, post-check=0, pre-check=0"); header("Cache-Control: private",false); // required for certain browsers header("Content-Type: $ctype"); header("Content-Disposition: attachment; filename=\"".basename($filename)."\";" ); header("Content-Transfer-Encoding: binary"); header("Content-Length: ".filesize($filename)); readfile("$filename"); As of yesterday, the handler started returning garbled files, unreadable images, and had to be bypassed. I'm wondering what settings could have gone awry to cause this.

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  • Python C API from C++ app - know when to lock

    - by Alex
    Hi Everyone, I am trying to write a C++ class that calls Python methods of a class that does some I/O operations (file, stdout) at once. The problem I have ran into is that my class is called from different threads: sometimes main thread, sometimes different others. Obviously I tried to apply the approach for Python calls in multi-threaded native applications. Basically everything starts from PyEval_AcquireLock and PyEval_ReleaseLock or just global locks. According to the documentation here when a thread is already locked a deadlock ensues. When my class is called from the main thread or other one that blocks Python execution I have a deadlock. Python Cfunc1() - C++ func that creates threads internally which lead to calls in "my class", It stuck on PyEval_AcquireLock, obviously the Python is already locked, i.e. waiting for C++ Cfunc1 call to complete... It completes fine if I omit those locks. Also it completes fine when Python interpreter is ready for the next user command, i.e. when thread is calling funcs in the background - not inside of a native call I am looking for a workaround. I need to distinguish whether or not the global lock is allowed, i.e. Python is not locked and ready to receive the next command... I tried PyGIL_Ensure, unfortunately I see hang. Any known API or solution for this ? (Python 2.4)

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  • Does ASP.NET need to be configured for Full Trust to implement 'PageHandlerFactory' ?

    - by Kev
    Our hosting platform (running IIS6/ASP.NET 2.0) is configured to run under partial trust. In the machine wide web.config file we set the ASP.NET trust level to Medium (and lock to prevent overrides) and use a modified policy file. When trying to add a custom HttpHandler to handle .aspx requests for a website running in this configuration I get the following security exception: Security Exception Description: The application attempted to perform an operation not allowed by the security policy. To grant this application the required permission please contact your system administrator or change the application's trust level in the configuration file. Exception Details: System.Security.SecurityException: Request failed. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [SecurityException: Request failed.] System.Reflection.Assembly._GetType(String name, Boolean throwOnError, Boolean ignoreCase) +0 System.Reflection.Assembly.GetType(String name, Boolean throwOnError, Boolean ignoreCase) +42 System.Web.Compilation.CompilationUtil.GetTypeFromAssemblies(AssemblyCollection assembliesCollection, String typeName, Boolean ignoreCase) +172 System.Web.Compilation.BuildManager.GetType(String typeName, Boolean throwOnError, Boolean ignoreCase) +291 System.Web.Configuration.ConfigUtil.GetType(String typeName, String propertyName, ConfigurationElement configElement, XmlNode node, Boolean checkAptcaBit, Boolean ignoreCase) +52 I'm using a class derived from PageHandlerFactory, for example: public class MyPageHandlerFactory : PageHandlerFactory { public override System.Web.IHttpHandler GetHandler(System.Web.HttpContext context, string requestType, string virtualPath, string path) { // CustomPageHandler derives from System.Web.UI.Page return new CustomPageHandler(); } } My web.config httpHandler configuration is as follow: <httpHandlers> <add verb="*" path="*.aspx" type="MyPageHandler.MyPageHandlerFactory" /> </httpHandlers> The documentation for PageHandlerFactory shows that PageHandlerFactory is decorated with the following attributes: [PermissionSetAttribute(SecurityAction.LinkDemand, Unrestricted = true)] [PermissionSetAttribute(SecurityAction.InheritanceDemand, Unrestricted = true)] public class PageHandlerFactory : IHttpHandlerFactory Does this mean that I need to set ASP.NET to run at Full Trust to be able to create my own PageHandlerFactory classes?

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  • Equivalent Carbon 32-bit call for using in 64-bit application - GetApplicationEventTarget().

    - by Dheeraj
    Hi All, I'm writing a 64-bit Cocoa application. I need to register for global key events. So I wrote this piece of code : - (void)awakeFromNib { EventHotKeyRef gMyHotKeyRef; EventHotKeyID gMyHotKeyID; EventTypeSpec eventType; eventType.eventClass=kEventClassKeyboard; eventType.eventKind=kEventHotKeyPressed; eventType.eventClass=kEventClassKeyboard; eventType.eventKind=kEventHotKeyPressed; InstallApplicationEventHandler(&MyHotKeyHandler,1,&eventType,NULL,NULL); gMyHotKeyID.signature='htk1'; gMyHotKeyID.id=1; RegisterEventHotKey(49, cmdKey+optionKey, gMyHotKeyID, **GetApplicationEventTarget**(), 0, &gMyHotKeyRef); } But since GetApplicationEventTarget() is not supported for 64-bit applications I'm getting errors. If I declare it, then I don't get any errors but the application crashes. Is there any equivalent method for GetApplicationEventTarget() (defined in Carbon framework) to use in 64-bit applications. Or is there any way to get the global key events using cocoa calls? Any help is appreciated. Thanks, Dheeraj.

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  • How to safely transfer reference to object across window?

    - by Morgan Cheng
    I'm debugging a web application. Javasript in one window create one object and use it as argument to invoke global method in another window. Pseudo code is like below. var obj = new Foo(); anotherWin.bar(obj); In anotherWin, the argument is stored in global variable. var g_obj; function bar(obj) { g_obj = obj; ... } When other function tries to reference g_obj.Id, it throws exception "Cannot evaluate expression". This happens in IE8.0.7600.16385 on Windows 7. In Visual Studio debugger, when this exception happens, the g_obj shows as {...} It looks all its properties are lost. Perhaps the root reason is the object is created in one window but only referenced in another window. The object might be garbage-collected at any time. Is there any way to work around this?

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  • Apache module, is it possible to have asynchronous processing

    - by prashant2361
    Hi, I have a requirement where I need to send continous updates to my clients. Client is browser in this case. We have some data which updates every sec, so once client connects to our server, we maintain a persistent connection and keep pushing data to the client. I am looking for suggestions of this implementation at the server end. Basically what I need is this: 1. client connects to server. I maintain the socket and metadata about the socket. metadata contains what updates need to be send to this client 2. server process now waits for new client connections 3. One other process will have the list of all the sockets opened and will go through each of them and send the updates if required. Can we do something like this in apache module: 1. apache process gets the new connection. It maintains the state for the connection. It keeps the state in some global memory and returns back to root process to signify that it is done so that it can accept the new connection 2. the apache process though has returned the status to root process but it is also executing parallely where it going through its global store and sending updates to the client, if any. So can a apache process do these things: 1. Have more than one connection associated with it 2. Asynchronously waiting for new connection and at the same time processing the previous connections? Regards Prashant

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  • Is it wise to use temporary tables?

    - by Industrial
    Hi guys, We have a mySQL database table for products. We are utilizing a cache layer to reduce database load, but we think that it's a good idea to minimize the actual data needed to be stored in the cache layer to speed up the application further. All the products in the database, that is visible to visitors have a price attached to them: The prices are stored in a different table, called prices . There are multiple price categories depending on which discount level each visitor (customer) applies to. From time to time, there are campaigns which means that a special price for each product is available. The special prices are stored in a table called specials. Is it a bad to make a temp table that binds the tables together? It would only have the neccessary information and would ofcourse be cached. -------------|-------------|------------ | productId | hasPrice | hasSpecial -------------|-------------|------------ 1 | 1 | 0 2 | 1 | 1 By doing such, it would be super easy to know if the specific product really has a price, without having to iterate through the complete prices or specials table each time a product should be listed or presented. Are temp tables a common thing for web applications or is it just bad design?

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  • ASP.NET MVC2 and Browser Caching

    - by Dan
    Hi I have a web application that fetches a lot of content via ajax. For example when a user edits some data, the browser will send the changes using an ajax post and then do an ajax get to get fresh content and replace an existing div on the page with that content. This was working just find with MVC1, but in MVC2 I would get inconsistent results. I've found that MVC1 by default included an Expires item in the response headers set to the current time, but in MVC2 the Expires header is missing. This is a problem with some browsers (IE8) actually using the cached version of the ajax get instead of the fresh version. To deal with the problem I created a simple ActionFilterAttribute that sets the reponse cache to NoCache (see below), which works, but it seems kind of sillly to decorate every controller with this attribute. Is there a global way to set this for every controller? Is this a bug in MVC2 and it really should be setting the expires on every ActionResult/view/page? Don't most MVC programs deal with data entry where stale data is a very bad thing? Thanks Dan public class ResponseNoCachingAttribute : ActionFilterAttribute { public override void OnResultExecuted(ResultExecutedContext filterContext) { base.OnResultExecuted(filterContext); filterContext.HttpContext.Response.Cache.SetCacheability(System.Web.HttpCacheability.NoCache); } }

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  • Client Web Browser Behavior When Handling 301 Redirect

    - by Jon Swanson
    The RFC seems to suggest that the client should permanently cache the response: http://www.w3.org/Protocols/rfc2616/rfc2616-sec10.html 10.3.2 301 Moved Permanently The requested resource has been assigned a new permanent URI and any future references to this resource SHOULD use one of the returned URIs. Clients with link editing capabilities ought to automatically re-link references to the Request-URI to one or more of the new references returned by the server, where possible. This response is cacheable unless indicated otherwise. The new permanent URI SHOULD be given by the Location field in the response. Unless the request method was HEAD, the entity of the response SHOULD contain a short hypertext note with a hyperlink to the new URI(s). If the 301 status code is received in response to a request other than GET or HEAD, the user agent MUST NOT automatically redirect the request unless it can be confirmed by the user, since this might change the conditions under which the request was issued. Note: When automatically redirecting a POST request after receiving a 301 status code, some existing HTTP/1.0 user agents will erroneously change it into a GET request. I'm having a hard time finding concrete browser documentation for any major browser that states how they handle these. I've started digging through the source code of firefox, but quickly got lost. Is the following scenario true for which (if any) browsers, and is there definitive documentation for either Firefox or IE that states as much?: First Time Around: 1.1: User enters link to site A, or clicks on a link directed at Site A 1.2: Browser interprets link at Site A, first time, no cache. Sends GET to Site A. 1.2: Site A responds with 301 Redirect to Site B 1.3: Browser sends GET to Site B. Any Subsequent Times Around: 2.2: User clicks on a link directed at Site A 2.2: Browser sees that, due to a past 301 redirect, Site A should now be Site B. 2.3: Without initiating any request whatsoever at Site A, browser initiates GET at Site B.

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  • Symfony 1.2 to 2.3 migration

    - by Bonswouar
    I've got a pretty big Symfony 1.2 project to migrate. First, I modified my .htaccess so I can have some pages handled by Symfony 2. What I'd like to do, to make the migration smoother, is to be able to render some SF2 action/templates/methods/... inside SF1. I added the autoloader to the SF1 app, so I can access to twig rendering methods and other stuff. But how can I call a SF2 action ? For example, if I want to migrate only the footer first, I would also need some php methods, not only rendering. That was previously in SF1 component, where should it be now ? If you've got any suggestion about the way of migrating, don't hesitate ! EDIT 1 : Apparently, the only way to do something like that is to render a full twig template, and/or in this template call some other partial twig templates with render(url, params). Here is my SF1 code to be able to render twig templates : public static function getTwig() { require_once __DIR__.'SF2_PATH/vendor/twig/extensions/lib/Twig/Extensions/Autoloader.php'; Twig_Autoloader::register(); $loader = new Twig_Loader_Filesystem( __DIR__.'SF2_PATH/sf2/src/VENDOR/BUNDLE/'); $twig = new Twig_Environment($loader, array( 'cache' => __DIR__.'SF2_PATH/sf2/app/cache/dev/twig', )); return $twig; } And so : $twig->loadTemplate('header.html.twig'); EDIT 2 : That doesn't seem to work, if in a twig template I try to render an other one with {{render(controller('BUNDLE:CONTROLER:ACTION', {})) }} for example Twig_Error : The function "controller" does not exist. And if I try to render the url Unknown tag name "render". I guess Symfony 2 twig functionalities are not loaded, how can I do that ? EDIT 3 : Ok, now I can do it, but I've got the following message... Twig_Error_Runtime An exception has been thrown during the rendering of a template ("Rendering a fragment can only be done when handling a master Request.") in ...

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  • Load collections eagerly in NHibernate using Criteria API

    - by Zuber
    I have an entity A which HasMany entities B and entities C. All entities A, B and C have some references x,y and z which should be loaded eagerly. I want to read from the database all entities A, and load the collections of B and C eagerly using criteria API. So far, I am able to fetch the references in 'A' eagerly. But when the collections are loaded, the references within them are lazily loaded. Here is how I do it AllEntities_A = _session.CreateCriteria(typeof(A)) .SetFetchMode("x", FetchMode.Eager) .SetFetchMode("y", FetchMode.Eager) .List<A>().AsQueryable(); The mapping of entity A using Fluent is as shown below. _B and _C are private ILists for B & C respectively in A. Id(c => c.SystemId); Version(c => c.Version); References(c => c.x).Cascade.All(); References(c => c.y).Cascade.All(); HasMany<B>(Reveal.Property<A>("_B")) .AsBag() .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan() .Not.LazyLoad() .Inverse() .Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); HasMany<C>(Reveal.Property<A>("_C")) .AsBag() .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan() .LazyLoad() .Inverse() .Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); I don't want to make changes to the mapping file, and would like to load the entire entity A eagerly. i.e. I should get a List of A's where there will be List of B's and C's whose reference properties will also be loaded eagerly

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