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  • Error : Number of Rows In Section in UITableView in iPhone SDK

    - by Meghan
    I am getting this error while I am trying to load the data into my table view. Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: 'Invalid update: invalid number of rows in section 0. The number of rows contained in an existing section after the update (73) must be equal to the number of rows contained in that section before the update (71), plus or minus the number of rows inserted or deleted from that section (3 inserted, 0 deleted). What could be wrong? Thanks EDIT : I am initializing the array on ViewWillAppear and adding new objects to the same array on Tableview's didSelectRowAtIndexPath method Here is the code On viewWillAppear : cellTextArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; [cellTextArray addObjectsFromArray:newPosts]; Here is the code which modifies the array on didSelectRowAtIndexPath : [cellTextArray addObjectsFromArray:newPosts]; NSMutableArray *insertIndexPaths = [NSMutableArray array]; for (NSUInteger item = count; item < count + newCount; item++) { [insertIndexPaths addObject:[NSIndexPath indexPathForRow:item inSection:0]]; } [self.table beginUpdates]; [self.table insertRowsAtIndexPaths:insertIndexPaths withRowAnimation:UITableViewRowAnimationFade]; [self.table endUpdates]; [self.table scrollToRowAtIndexPath:indexPath atScrollPosition:UITableViewScrollPositionNone animated:YES]; NSIndexPath *selected = [self.table indexPathForSelectedRow]; if (selected) { [self.table deselectRowAtIndexPath:selected animated:YES]; } Here newPosts is an array which has the values that are added to cellTextArray on didSelectRowAtIndexPath method and viewWillAppear method.

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  • NGINX SSL Certificate Not Working

    - by LeSamAdmin
    I've been working on SSL stuff and getting nowhere from like 4 tutorials... I've bought an SSL for pingrglobe.com, and now trying to apply it to my servers. Here's my nginx code: http { server { listen 80; server_name pingrglobe.com; rewrite ^(.*) http://www.pingrglobe.com$1 permanent; } server { listen 443; ssl on; ssl_certificate /etc/nginx/ssl/pingrglobe.crt; ssl_certificate_key /etc/nginx/ssl/pingrglobe.key; #enables SSLv3/TLSv1, but not SSLv2 which is weak and should no longer be used. ssl_protocols SSLv3 TLSv1; #Disables all weak ciphers ssl_ciphers ALL:!aNULL:!ADH:!eNULL:!LOW:!EXP:RC4+RSA:+HIGH:+MEDIUM; server_name www.pingrglobe.com; root /var/www/pingrglobe.com; index index.html index.php; location / { try_files $uri $uri/ @extensionless-php; add_header Access-Control-Allow-Origin *; } rewrite ^/blog/blogpost/(.+)$ /blog/blogpost?post=$1 last; rewrite ^/viewticket/(.+)/(.*)$ /viewticket?tid=$1&$2 last; rewrite ^/vemail/(.+)$ /vemail?eid=$1 last; rewrite ^/serversettings/(.+)$ /serversettings?srvid=$1 last; rewrite ^/notification/(.+)$ /notification?id=$1 last; rewrite ^/viewreport/(.+)$ /viewreport?srvid=$1 last; rewrite ^/removeserver/(.+)$ /removeserver?srvid=$1 last; rewrite ^/staffviewticket/(.+)/(.*)$ /staffviewticket?tid=$1&$2 last; rewrite ^/activate/(.*)/(.*)/(.*)$ /activate?user=$1&code=$2&email=$3 last; rewrite ^/activate2/(.*)/(.*)/(.*)$ /activate2?user=$1&code=$2&email=$3 last; rewrite ^/passwordtoken/(.+)/(.*)/(.*)$ /passwordtoken?user=$1&token=$2&email=$3 last; location ~ \.php$ { try_files $uri =404; fastcgi_pass unix:/var/run/php5-fpm.sock; fastcgi_param SCRIPT_FILENAME $document_root$fastcgi_script_name; include fastcgi_params; } location @extensionless-php { rewrite ^(.*)$ $1.php last; } location ~ /\. { deny all; } } } SSL doesn't work as you see here: https://www.pingrglobe.com

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  • Heroku only initializes some of my models.

    - by JayX
    So I ran heroku db:push And it returned Sending schema Schema: 100% |==========================================| Time: 00:00:08 Sending indexes schema_migrat: 100% |==========================================| Time: 00:00:00 projects: 100% |==========================================| Time: 00:00:00 tasks: 100% |==========================================| Time: 00:00:00 users: 100% |==========================================| Time: 00:00:00 Sending data 8 tables, 70,551 records groups: 100% |==========================================| Time: 00:00:00 schema_migrat: 100% |==========================================| Time: 00:00:00 projects: 100% |==========================================| Time: 00:00:00 tasks: 100% |==========================================| Time: 00:00:02 authenticatio: 100% |==========================================| Time: 00:00:00 articles: 100% |==========================================| Time: 00:08:27 users: 100% |==========================================| Time: 00:00:00 topics: 100% |==========================================| Time: 00:01:22 Resetting sequences And when I went to heroku console This worked >> Task => Task(id: integer, topic: string, content: string, This worked >> User => User(id: integer, name: string, email: string, But the rest only returned something like >> Project NameError: uninitialized constant Project /home/heroku_rack/lib/console.rb:150 /home/heroku_rack/lib/console.rb:150:in `call' /home/heroku_rack/lib/console.rb:28:in `call' >> Authentication NameError: uninitialized constant Authentication /home/heroku_rack/lib/console.rb:150 /home/heroku_rack/lib/console.rb:150:in `call' update 1: And when I typed >> ActiveRecord::Base.connection.tables it returned => ["projects", "groups", "tasks", "topics", "articles", "schema_migrations", "authentications", "users"] Using heroku's SQL console plugin I got SQL> show tables +-------------------+ | table_name | +-------------------+ | authentications | | topics | | groups | | projects | | schema_migrations | | tasks | | articles | | users | +-------------------+ So I think they are existing in heroku's database already. There is probably something wrong with rack db:migrate update 2: I ran rack db:migrate locally in both production and development modes and nothing wrong happened. But when I ran it on heroku it only returned: $ heroku rake db:migrate (in /disk1/home/slugs/389817_1c16250_4bf2-f9c9517b-bdbd-49d9-8e5a-a87111d3558e/mnt) $ Also, I am using sqlite3 update 3: so I opened up heroku console and typed in the following command class Authentication < ActiveRecord::Base;end Amazingly I was able to call Authentication class, but once I exited, nothing was changed.

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  • Retain numerical precision in an R data frame?

    - by David
    When I create a dataframe from numeric vectors, R seems to truncate the value below the precision that I require in my analysis: data.frame(x=0.99999996) returns 1 (see update 1) I am stuck when fitting spline(x,y) and two of the x values are set to 1 due to rounding while y changes. I could hack around this but I would prefer to use a standard solution if available. example Here is an example data set d <- data.frame(x = c(0.668732936336141, 0.95351462456867, 0.994620622127435, 0.999602102672081, 0.999987126195509, 0.999999955814133, 0.999999999999966), y = c(38.3026509783688, 11.5895099585560, 10.0443344234229, 9.86152339768516, 9.84461434575695, 9.81648333804257, 9.83306725758297)) The following solution works, but I would prefer something that is less subjective: plot(d$x, d$y, ylim=c(0,50)) lines(spline(d$x, d$y),col='grey') #bad fit lines(spline(d[-c(4:6),]$x, d[-c(4:6),]$y),col='red') #reasonable fit Update 1 Since posting this question, I realize that this will return 1 even though the data frame still contains the original value, e.g. > dput(data.frame(x=0.99999999996)) returns structure(list(x = 0.99999999996), .Names = "x", row.names = c(NA, -1L), class = "data.frame") Update 2 After using dput to post this example data set, and some pointers from Dirk, I can see that the problem is not in the truncation of the x values but the limits of the numerical errors in the model that I have used to calculate y. This justifies dropping a few of the equivalent data points (as in the example red line).

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  • Best way to run multiple queries per second on database, performance wise?

    - by Michael Joell
    I am currently using Java to insert and update data multiple times per second. Never having used databases with Java, I am not sure what is required, and how to get the best performance. I currently have a method for each type of query I need to do (for example, update a row in a database). I also have a method to create the database connection. Below is my simplified code. public static void addOneForUserInChannel(String channel, String username) throws SQLException { Connection dbConnection = null; PreparedStatement ps = null; String updateSQL = "UPDATE " + channel + "_count SET messages = messages + 1 WHERE username = ?"; try { dbConnection = getDBConnection(); ps = dbConnection.prepareStatement(updateSQL); ps.setString(1, username); ps.executeUpdate(); } catch(SQLException e) { System.out.println(e.getMessage()); } finally { if(ps != null) { ps.close(); } if(dbConnection != null) { dbConnection.close(); } } } And my DB connection private static Connection getDBConnection() { Connection dbConnection = null; try { Class.forName(DB_DRIVER); } catch (ClassNotFoundException e) { System.out.println(e.getMessage()); } try { dbConnection = DriverManager.getConnection(DB_CONNECTION, DB_USER,DB_PASSWORD); return dbConnection; } catch (SQLException e) { System.out.println(e.getMessage()); } return dbConnection; } This seems to be working fine for now, with about 1-2 queries per second, but I am worried that once I expand and it is running many more, I might have some issues. My questions: Is there a way to have a persistent database connection throughout the entire run time of the process? If so, should I do this? Are there any other optimizations that I should do to help with performance? Thanks

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  • Move Items per rule after they are one day old

    - by Jeff F.
    I'm not even sure if this is possible with Outlook's current rule set but I thought I'd ask. I'd like emails that meet certain characteristics to automatically be moved from my inbox after they are a day old. I get a lot of notification emails that I end up having to remove the next day manually since I get new ones to replace them each day. So a rule would be like: If the email is from [email protected] and older then 1 day move to already read folder.

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  • How to effectively execute this cron job?

    - by Lost_in_code
    I have a table with 200 rows. I'm running a cron job every 10 minutes to perform some kind of insert/update operation on the table. The operation needs to be performed only on 5 rows at a time every time the cron job runs. So in first 10 mins records 1-5 are updated, records 5-10 in the 20th minute and so on. When the cron job runs for the 20th time, all the records in the table would have been updated exactly once. This is what is to be achieved at least. And the next cron job should repeat the process again. The problem: is that, every time a cron job runs, the insert/update operation should be performed on N rows (not just 5 rows). So, if N is 100, all records would've been updated by just 2 cron jobs. And the next cron job would repeat the process again. Here's an example: This is the table I currently have (200 records). Every time a cron job executes, it needs to pick N records (which I set as a variable in PHP) and update the time_md5 field with the current time's MD5 value. +---------+-------------------------------------+ | id | time_md5 | +---------+-------------------------------------+ | 10 | 971324428e62dd6832a2778582559977 | | 72 | 1bd58291594543a8cc239d99843a846c | | 3 | 9300278bc5f114a290f6ed917ee93736 | | 40 | 915bf1c5a1f13404add6612ec452e644 | | 599 | 799671e31d5350ff405c8016a38c74eb | | 56 | 56302bb119f1d03db3c9093caf98c735 | | 798 | 47889aa559636b5512436776afd6ba56 | | 8 | 85fdc72d3b51f0b8b356eceac710df14 | | .. | ....... | | .. | ....... | | .. | ....... | | .. | ....... | | 340 | 9217eab5adcc47b365b2e00bbdcc011a | <-- 200th record +---------+-------------------------------------+ So, the first record(id 10) should not be updated more than once, till all 200 records are updated once - the process should start over once all the records are updated once. I have some idea on how this could be achieved, but I'm sure there are more efficient ways of doing it. Any suggestions?

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  • ASP ListView - Eval() as formatted number, Bind() as unformatted?

    - by chucknelson
    I have an ASP ListView, and have a very simple requirement to display numbers as formatted w/ a comma (12,123), while they need to bind to the database without formatting (12123). I am using a standard setup - ListView with a datasource attached, using Bind(). I converted from some older code, so I'm not using ASP.NET controls, just form inputs...but I don't think it matters for this: <asp:SqlDataSource ID="MySqlDataSource" runat="server" ConnectionString='<%$ ConnectionStrings:ConnectionString1 %>' SelectCommand="SELECT NUMSTR FROM MY_TABLE WHERE ID = @ID" UpdateCommand= "UPDATE MY_TABLE SET NUMSTR = @NUMSTR WHERE ID = @ID"> </asp:SqlDataSource> <asp:ListView ID="MyListView" runat="server" DataSourceID="MySqlDataSource"> <LayoutTemplate> <div id="itemplaceholder" runat="server"></div> </LayoutTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <input type="text" name="NUMSTR" ID="NUMSTR" runat="server" value='<%#Bind("NUMSTR")%>' /> <asp:Button ID="UpdateButton" runat="server" Text="Update" Commandname="Update" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:ListView> In the example above, NUMSTR is a number, but stored as a string in a SqlServer 2008 database. I'm also using the ItemTemplate as read and edit templates, to save on duplicate HTML. In the example, I only get the unformatted number. If I convert the field to an integer (via the SELECT) and use a format string like Bind("NUMSTR", "{0:###,###}"), it writes the formatted number to the database, and then fails when it tries to read it again (can't convert with the comma in there). Is there any elegant/simple solution to this? It's so easy to get the two-way binding going, and I would think there has to be a way to easily format things as well... Oh, and I'm trying to avoid the standard ItemTemplate and EditItemTemplate approach, just for sheer amount of markup required for that. Thanks!

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  • Performance of stored proc when updating columns selectively based on parameters?

    - by kprobst
    I'm trying to figure out if this is relatively well-performing T-SQL (this is SQL Server 2008). I need to create a stored procedure that updates a table. The proc accepts as many parameters as there are columns in the table, and with the exception of the PK column, they all default to NULL. The body of the procedure looks like this: CREATE PROCEDURE proc_repo_update @object_id bigint ,@object_name varchar(50) = NULL ,@object_type char(2) = NULL ,@object_weight int = NULL ,@owner_id int = NULL -- ...etc AS BEGIN update object_repo set object_name = ISNULL(@object_name, object_name) ,object_type = ISNULL(@object_type, object_type) ,object_weight = ISNULL(@object_weight, object_weight) ,owner_id = ISNULL(@owner_id, owner_id) -- ...etc where object_id = @object_id return @@ROWCOUNT END So basically: Update a column only if its corresponding parameter was provided, and leave the rest alone. This works well enough, but as the ISNULL call will return the value of the column if the received parameter was null, will SQL Server optimize this somehow? This might be a performance bottleneck on the application where the table might be updated heavily (insertion will be uncommon so the performance there is not a problem). So I'm trying to figure out what's the best way to do this. Is there a way to condition the column expressions with something like CASE WHEN or something? The table will be indexed up the wazoo as well for read performance. Is this the best approach? My alternative at this point is to create the UPDATE expression in code (e.g. inline SQL) and execute it against the server. This would solve my doubts about performance, but I'd rather leave this in a stored proc if possible.

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  • newbie hibernate first level cache confusion

    - by Bruce
    Hi all I'm just geting to grips with hibernate. Little bit confused. I just wanted to watch the operation of the first level cache, which I understood to batch up queries until the end of the session. But if I create an object, hibernate saves it immediately, so that when I later update it in the same transaction, it has to do an update too: Session session = factory.getCurrentSession(); session.beginTransaction(); Test1 test1 = new Test1(); test1.setName("Test 1"); test1.setValue(10); // Touch it session.save(test1); System.out.println("At checkpoint 1"); test1.setValue(20); session.getTransaction().commit(); I see the sql for the save, then 'At checkpoint 1', then the sql for the update. Do I have something set up wrong or am I misunderstanding hibernate's first level cache? Is there a good document on the first level cache - I didn't find anything in the hibernate docs, but I could easily have missed it.. Thanks!

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  • UpdateModelFromDatabaseException when trying to add a table to Entity Framework model

    - by Agent_9191
    I'm running into a weird issue with Entity Framework in .NET 3.5 SP1 within Visual Studio 2008. I created a database with a few tables in SQL Server and then created the associated .edmx Entity Framework model and had no issues. I then created a new table in the database that has a foreign key to an existing table and needed to be added to the .edmx. So I opened the .edmx in Visual Studio and in the models right-clicked and chose "Update Model From Database...". I saw the new table in the "add" tab, so I checked it and clicked finish. However I get an error message with the following text: --------------------------- Microsoft Visual Studio --------------------------- An exception of type 'Microsoft.Data.Entity.Design.Model.Commands.UpdateModelFromDatabaseException' occurred while attempting to update from the database. The exception message is: 'Cannot update from the database. Cannot resolve the Name Target for ScalarProperty 'ID <==> CustomerID'.'. --------------------------- OK --------------------------- For reference, here's the tables seem to be the most pertinent to the error. CustomerPreferences already exists in the .edmx. Diets is the table that was added afterwards and trying to add to the .edmx. CREATE TABLE [dbo].[CustomerPreferences]( [ID] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [LastUpdatedTime] [datetime] NOT NULL, [LastUpdatedBy] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [ID] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Diets]( [ID] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [CustomerID] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [Description] [nvarchar](50) NOT NULL, [LastUpdatedTime] [datetime] NOT NULL, [LastUpdatedBy] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [ID] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Diets] WITH CHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_Diets_CustomerPreferences] FOREIGN KEY([CustomerID]) REFERENCES [dbo].[CustomerPreferences] ([ID]) GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Diets] CHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_Diets_CustomerPreferences] GO This seems like a fairly common use case, so I'm not sure where I'm going wrong.

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  • codeigniter cron job with http access

    - by user1313850
    Sorry if this is a duplicate question...I've searched around and found similar advice but nothing that helps my exact problem. And please excuse the noob questions, CRON is a new thing for me. I have a codeigniter script that scrapes the html DOM of another site and stores some of that in a database. I'd like to run this script at a regular interval. This has lead me to looking into cron jobs. The page I have is at myserver.com/index.php/update I realize I can run a cron job with curl and run this page. If I want to be a bit more secure I can put a string at the end like: myserver.com/index.php/update/asdfh2784fufds And check for that in my CI controller. This seems like it would be mostly secure, but doesn't seem like the "right" way to do things. I've looked into running CI from the command line, and can execute basic pages like: php index.php mycontroller But when I try to do: php index.php update It doesn't work. I suspect this is because it needs to use HTTP to scrape the DOM of the outside page. So, my question: How do I securely run a codeigniter script with a cron job that needs HTTP access?

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  • How to allow devise users to edit their profil?

    - by user1704926
    I have a namespace called "backend" which is protected by Devise. I would like now to allow users to edit their profil. So I created a users_controller in Backend. Here's the users_controllercode : class Backend::UsersController < ApplicationController layout 'admin' before_filter :authenticate_user! def index @users = Backend::User.all respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.json { render json: @users } end end def show @user = Backend::User.find(params[:id]) respond_to do |format| format.html # show.html.erb format.json { render json: @user } end end def edit @user = Backend::User.find(params[:id]) end def update @user = Backend::User.find(params[:id]) respond_to do |format| if @user.update_attributes(params[:user]) format.html { redirect_to @user, notice: 'Article was successfully updated.' } format.json { head :no_content } else format.html { render action: "edit" } format.json { render json: @user.errors, status: :unprocessable_entity } end end end end When I go on backend_users_path there is a list of all the users. I would like to permit to edit only his own profil. So I go on the Edit page : <%= link_to "Edit", edit_backend_user_path(backend_user.id) %> . Here's the Edit page code : <%= simple_form_for @user do |f| %> <div><%= f.label :email %><br /> <%= f.input :email, :autofocus => true %></div> <div><%= f.submit "Update" %></div> <% end %> And there is my problem : when I try to modify the email address, nothing happen. The update fails. How can I do this ? I'm quite lost. Thanks by advance.

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  • How to run a javascript function before postback of asp.net button?

    - by Curtis White
    I'm using Javascript to create a DIV element and open up a new page by using onclientclick. This works great. Now, I need to write to it from the server side and this element must be created before it is posted back. How do I get the javascript to execute before the postback? Currently, I have to press the button twice because the element doesn't exist to write too on the first click. To be clear, I need this to execute before the "OnClick" of the button. Update: It looks like the Javascript function is called before the postback but the element is not updated until I run the second postback. Hmm Update: Unfortunately it is a bit more complicated then this. I'm creating a div tag in javascript to open a new window. Inside the div tag, I'm using a databinding syntax <%=Preview% so that I can get access to this element on the server side. From the server side, I'm injecting the code. I'm thinking this may be a chicken-egg problem but not sure. UPDATE! It is not the Javascript not running first. It is the databinding mechanism which is reading the blank variable before I'm able to set it. Hmm

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  • Is there a better way to do updates in LinqToSQL?

    - by Vaccano
    I have a list (that comes to my middleware app from the client) that I need to put in my database. Some items in the list may already be in the db (just need an update). Others are new inserts. This turns out to be much harder than I thought I would be. Here is my code to do that. I am hoping there is a better way: public void InsertClients(List<Client> clients) { var comparer = new LambdaComparer<Client>((x, y) => x.Id == y.Id); // Get a listing of all the ones we will be updating var alreadyInDB = ctx.Clients .Where(client => clients.Contains(client, comparer)); // Update the changes for those already in the db foreach (Client clientDB in alreadyInDB) { var clientDBClosure = clientDB; Client clientParam = clients.Find(x => x.Id == clientDBClosure.Id); clientDB.ArrivalTime = clientParam.ArrivalTime; clientDB.ClientId = clientParam.ClientId; clientDB.ClientName = clientParam.ClientName; clientDB.ClientEventTime = clientParam.ClientEventTime; clientDB.EmployeeCount = clientParam.EmployeeCount; clientDB.ManagerId = clientParam.ManagerId; } // Get a list of all clients that are not in my the database. var notInDB = clients.Where(x => alreadyInDB.Contains(x, comparer) == false); ctx.Clients.InsertAllOnSubmit(notInDB); ctx.SubmitChanges(); } This seems like a lot of work to do a simple update. But maybe I am just spoiled. Anyway, if there is a easier way to do this please let me know. Note: If you are curious the code to the LambdaComparer is here: http://gist.github.com/335780#file_lambda_comparer.cs

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  • java.lang.IllegalStateException: The content of the adapter has changed but ListView.... inspite of calling notifydatasetchanged()

    - by Mistaken
    What are the best practices to be followed to update the contents of a listactivty by a background thread (Async Task) ? 1) Am calling the notifyDataSetChanged() to update the adapter as soon as i manipulate the contents of the adapter but still my app force closes while the user scrolls or click on the list. Any pointers to prevent this would be very helpfull. Logcat: java.lang.IllegalStateException: The content of the adapter has changed but ListView did not receive a notification. 2) Where exaclty should i update contents of the listactivity ? inside the doInBackground() or onProgressUpdate()? 3) Am experiencing regular crashes when the user clicks the list item. So will disabling click events on the listactivty during the background operation solve the problem ? If so am not sure how to remove or set item click listeners dynamically to the listactivity. Please instruct me on the too. 4) I dont think blocking all ui interactions during the background async task execution is the only way to solve the problem. I know there is a simple way of doing this but need some help. Thanks in advance. This is my onCreate... protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.fa); tvStatus=(TextView) findViewById(R.id.tvStatus); adapter = new SimpleAdapter( this, mostPopularList, R.layout.list_item, new String[] {"title","author","views","date"}, new int[] {R.id.textView1,R.id.textView2,R.id.textView4,R.id.textView3}); //populateList(); setListAdapter(adapter); } My async task... private class LongOperation extends AsyncTask<String, Void, String> { @Override protected String doInBackground(String... params) { // code for adding new listactivty items } @Override protected void onPostExecute(String networkStatus) { adapter.notifyDataSetChanged(); } @Override protected void onPreExecute() { } @Override protected void onProgressUpdate(Void... values) { } }

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  • Listening to PHP function calls to intercept the returned value

    - by Lansen Q
    I am working on making use of a Web Services API offered by the hosts of our internal system. I am accessing it via PHP with the built-in SOAP offering. The API session is initiated by a remote call to a function that returns some session tokens; every call to any function thereafter will return a new session token, which must accompany the next request. I have an API Client class that is doing the bulk of the work; what I would like to do is to set something up whereby any SOAP call that is made will make sure to update the API Client class' $session variable with the new session details, and then pass the data along. So far the only way I can think of doing this is creating a new class extending the SoapClient class, with a __call function wrapper to execute the function, update the new session token, and return the results nonetheless. I'm not sure that this will a) work b) be the best way to go about this. The wrapper class would be identical to making a SOAP call, and it would return an identical result, just it would update the session token before you get your result back. Thanks! Hope I explained myself properly.

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  • Deleting object in NSMutableSet Core Data

    - by Luke
    Hi I am having trouble deleting an object in an NSMutableSet using core Data... I am trying to delete a "player" object in the second section of my tableview. I am getting the error Invalid update: invalid number of rows in section 1. The number of rows contained in an existing section after the update (6) must be equal to the number of rows contained in that section before the update (6), plus or minus the number of rows inserted or deleted from that section (0 inserted, 1 deleted) and plus or minus the number of rows moved into or out of that section (0 moved in, 0 moved out Take a look at my code. - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView commitEditingStyle:(UITableViewCellEditingStyle)editingStyle forRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { if (editingStyle == UITableViewCellEditingStyleDelete) { if (indexPath.section==0){ }else{ Player *p = [self.fetchedResultsController.fetchedObjects objectAtIndex: indexPath.section]; [_team removePlayersObject:p]; [_team.players removeObject:p]; AppDelegate *delegate = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; _managedObjectContext = delegate.managedObjectContext; [_managedObjectContext deleteObject:p]; [self.tableView deleteRowsAtIndexPaths:[NSArray arrayWithObject:indexPath] withRowAnimation:UITableViewRowAnimationTop]; } } } - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { switch(section){ case 0: return 7; case 1: return [self.fetchedResultsController.fetchedObjects count]; } return 0; }

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  • Skype silent chat message

    - by D Moberg
    Reason: I have a contact that I know is busy, but still want notifications so he is in "online"-mode and not DND-mode. I want to write "OK" to him, without having to disturb him (having him to open and look in skype to see if it was something important, which it is not). Question: Is there any way to send a message that won't trigger a notification at the receiver's end? Something like a "silent message".

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  • IDENTITY_INSERT ON inside of cursor does not allow inserted id

    - by Mac
    I am trying to set some id's for a bunch of rows in a database where the id column is an identity. I've created a cursor to loop through the rows and update the ids with incrementing negative numbers (-1,-2,-3 etc). When I updated just one row turning on the IDENTITY_INSERT it worked fine but as soon as I try and use it in a cursor, it throws the following error. Msg 8102, Level 16, State 1, Line 22 Cannot update identity column 'myRowID'. DECLARE @MinId INT; SET @MinId = (SELECT MIN(myRowId) FROM myTable)-1; DECLARE myCursor CURSOR FOR SELECT myRowId FROM dbo.myTable WHERE myRowId > 17095 OPEN myCursor DECLARE @myRowId INT FETCH NEXT FROM myCursor INTO @myRowId WHILE (@@FETCH_STATUS <> -1) BEGIN SET IDENTITY_INSERT dbo.myTable ON; --UPDATE dbo.myTable --SET myRowId = @MinId --WHERE myRowId = @myRowId; PRINT (N'ID: ' + CAST(@myRowId AS VARCHAR(10)) + N' NewID: ' + CAST(@MinId AS VARCHAR(4))); SET @MinId = @MinId - 1; FETCH NEXT FROM myCursor INTO @myRowId END CLOSE myCursor DEALLOCATE myCursor GO SET IDENTITY_INSERT dbo.myTable OFF; GO Does anyone know what I'm doing wrong?

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  • Need help getting buttons to work...

    - by Mike Droid
    I am trying to get my first button to update a display number in my view when clicked. This view will have several buttons and "outputs" displayed. After reading examples and Q's here, I finally put something together that runs, but my first button is still not working; public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.ship_layout); mSwitcher = (TextSwitcher) findViewById(R.id.eng_val); } private TextSwitcher mSwitcher; // Will be connected with the buttons via XML void onClick(View v){ switch (v.getId()) { case R.id.engplus: engcounter++; updateCounter(); break; case R.id.engneg: engcounter--; updateCounter(); break; } } private void updateCounter() { mSwitcher.setText(String.valueOf(engcounter)); } The .xml for this button is; <TextSwitcher android:id="@+id/eng_val" android:visibility="visible" android:paddingTop="9px" android:paddingLeft="50px" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_below="@+id/build" android:layout_toRightOf="@+id/engeq" android:textColor="#DD00ff00" android:textSize="24sp"/> This is within a Relative Layout that appears otherwise OK. When I had set the view to have a TextView with the number set as a string , the number displayed, but I could not figure out how to update the text with a numerical field. That may be my real problem. I have gone through many examples generally referenced from the dev. site (UI, Common Tasks, various samples), and I am still not seeing the connection here... Again, this is simply a try at getting variables to respond to buttons and update on the view. So, a few Q's for anyone that can help; 1) Is there any easier way of doing this (ie. send numerical value to View) ? 2) Why isn't my TextSwitcher displaying the number? 3) Should I be using a TextSwitcher here? 4) Any examples of this you can point me to?

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  • Two references to the same domain/entity model

    - by Sbossb
    Problem I want to save the attributes of a model that have changed when a user edits them. Here's what I want to do ... Retrieve edited view model Get domain model and map back updated value Call the update method on repository Get the "old" domain model and compare values of the fields Store the changed values (in JSON) into a table However I am having trouble with step number 4. It seems that the Entity Framework doesn't want to hit the database again to get the model with the old values. It just returns the same entity I have. Attempted Solutions I have tried using the Find() and the SingleOrDefault() methods, but they just return the model I currently have. Example Code private string ArchiveChanges(T updatedEntity) { //Here is the problem! //oldEntity is the same as updatedEntity T oldEntity = DbSet.SingleOrDefault(x => x.ID == updatedEntity.ID); Dictionary<string, object> changed = new Dictionary<string, object>(); foreach (var propertyInfo in typeof(T).GetProperties()) { var property = typeof(T).GetProperty(propertyInfo.Name); //Get the old value and the new value from the models var newValue = property.GetValue(updatedEntity, null); var oldValue = property.GetValue(oldEntity, null); //Check to see if the values are equal if (!object.Equals(newValue, oldValue)) { //Values have changed ... log it changed.Add(propertyInfo.Name, newValue); } } var ser = new System.Web.Script.Serialization.JavaScriptSerializer(); return ser.Serialize(changed); } public override void Update(T entityToUpdate) { //Do something with this string json = ArchiveChanges(entityToUpdate); entityToUpdate.AuditInfo.Updated = DateTime.Now; entityToUpdate.AuditInfo.UpdatedBy = Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name; base.Update(entityToUpdate); }

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  • Can I get away with this or is it just too crude and unpractical ?

    - by The_AlienCoder
    I spent the whole of last night searching for a free AspNet web chat control that I could simply drag into my website. Well the search was in vain as I could not find a control that matched my needs i.e List of users, 1 to 1 chat, Ability to kick out users.. In the end I decided to create my own control from scractch. Although it works well on my machine Im concerned that It maybe a little crude and unpractical on a shared hosting enviroment. Basically this is what I did : Created an sql database that stores the chat messages. Wrote the stored procedures and and included a statement that clears old messages Then the 'crude' part : Dragged an update panel and timer control on my page Dragged a Repeater databound to the chat messages table inside the update panel Dragged another update panel and inside it put a textbox and a button Configured the timer control to tick every 5 seconds. ..and then I made it all work like this In the timer tick event I 'refreshed' the messages display by invoking Databind() on my repeater i.e protected void Timer1_Tick(object sender, EventArgs e) { MyRepeater.DataBind(); } Then in my send button click event protected void btnSend_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { MyDataLayer.InsertMessage(Message, Sender, CurrTime); } Well It works well on my machine and Ive got the other functionalities(users list, kick out user..) to work by simply creating more tables. But like I said it seems a little crude to me. so I need a proffesional opinion. Should I run with this or try another Approach ?

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  • How: Start an Activity inside a Thread and use finish() to get back.

    - by Kirk Becker
    Hello, I am programming a game on android. I'm using a Thread while calling a Surface View class to update and draw my game. Inside the update I wanted to start an activity based on if the game has just started and this would launch my MENUS. My Thread for the most part.. while (myThreadRun) { Canvas c = null; try { gameTime = System.currentTimeMillis(); c = myThreadSurfaceHolder.lockCanvas(null); synchronized (myThreadSurfaceHolder) { // Update Game. myThreadSurfaceView.onUpdate(); // Draw Game. myThreadSurfaceView.onDraw(c); You can see there where I am updating the game... here is onUpdate(); protected void onUpdate() { // Test if menu needs to be displayed. while (thread.getMenu()) { // Test if menu activity has been started. if (thread.getMenuRunning() == false) { Intent menuIntent = new Intent(this.getContext(), MyMenu.class); ((Activity) cxt).startActivityForResult(menuIntent, 1); thread.setMenuRunning(true); } } I am using a while loop because if I didn't use it the thread just keeps going. Basically I just don't know how to implement my menus using a thread as a game loop. Everywhere I look it seems like that's best practice. In my menu activity I just display the menu layout and a few buttons and when the person wants to start the game it uses finish() to go back to my thread where they play the game. I am very new to this so any insight will be helpful, Thanks

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