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  • jQuery re-checking check boxes

    - by Jacob
    Hi, I having problems with re-checking some checkboxes after and ajax call updates a table. I have a table of what the project calls 'shares'. I want to: 1) check for and save any checked shares to an array 2) Do my ajax call to update the table of shares 3) Re-check any there we checked before the ajax update. My code is not working and I can't see why? Any tips, help or advise much appreciated. // Array to hold our checked share ids var savedShareIDs = new Array(); // Add checked share ids into array $("input:checkbox[name=share_ids]:checked").each(function() { savedShareIDs.push($(this).val()); }); // Do ajax update Dajaxice.pagination_shares('Dajax.process',{'id':1, 'page':1}) // Re-check any that were checked before ajax update $("input:checkbox[name=share_ids]").each(function() { if ( $.inArray( $(this).val(), savedShareIDs) > -1 ) { $(this).attr('checked',true) } }); The problem is the checkboxes are not checking. I'm pretty sure the loop is working and the inArray check works. Just not checking the checkboxes. Can anyone see where I'm going wrong? Thanks.

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  • Calling a jQuery plugin inside itself

    - by Real Tuty
    I am trying to create a comet like thing. I have a plugin that collects data from a php page. The problem is that i dont know how to call the plugin inside itself. If it were a function i could go like this: function j () {setTimeout(j(), 1000);}, but i am using a jQuery plugin. Here is my plugin code: (function($) { $.fn.watch = function(ops) { var $this_ = this, setngs = $.extend({ 'type' : 'JSON', 'query' : 'GET', 'url' : '', 'data' : '', 'wait' : 1000 }, ops); if (setngs.type === '') { return false; } else if (setngs.query === '') { return false; } else if (setngs.url === '') { return false; } else if (setngs.wait === '') { return false; } else if (setngs.wait === 0) { setngs.wait = 1000; } var xhr = $.ajax({ type : setngs.query, dataType : setngs.type, url : setngs.url, success : function(data) { var i = 0; for (i = 0; i < data.length; i++) { var html = $this_.html(), str = '<li class="post" id="post-' + data[i].id + '"><div class="inner"><div class="user">' + data[i].user + '</div><div class="body">' + data[i].body + '</div></div></li>'; $this_.html(str + html); } setTimeout($this_, 1000); } }); }; })(jQuery); where it says setTimeout($this_, 1000); this is where im having trouble. I don't know what to call the plugin as. $this_ is what I thought might work but I am wrong. That is what i need to replace. Thanks for your help.

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  • IE 7 activex object (or xmlhttprequest?) open method using POST takes 20-30 seconds to return

    - by Toddeman
    i have a problem that only shows itself in IE7. its a simple ajax call. i got my object (accounting for the browser) so in 7 i SHOULD have an ActiveXObject. when i call open with POST, it takes 20-30 seconds to return. i am using a TON of GET calls to populate information and all of these work (finally, after some bug fixing), but i am NOT a web developer so much like the other bugs i had to fix, i figured i was just missing another IE anomaly. this is not a consistent bug either, which makes it harder to find for me. most times the POST functions like it does in Firefox or Chrome, but maybe 1 out of 4 or 5 will take 20-30 seconds to return. it DOES return correctly when it returns, it just takes a long time. am i missing something simple? or is there a smarter way for me to find out exactly what is going on (like the equivalent of the firebug 'net' tab for windows?).

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  • Why does this simple MySQL procedure take way too long to complete?

    - by Howard Guo
    This is a very simple MySQL stored procedure. Cursor "commission" has only 3000 records, but the procedure call takes more than 30 seconds to run. Why is that? DELIMITER // DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS apply_credit// CREATE PROCEDURE apply_credit() BEGIN DECLARE done tinyint DEFAULT 0; DECLARE _pk_id INT; DECLARE _eid, _source VARCHAR(255); DECLARE _lh_revenue, _acc_revenue, _project_carrier_expense, _carrier_lh, _carrier_acc, _gross_margin, _fsc_revenue, _revenue, _load_count DECIMAL; DECLARE commission CURSOR FOR SELECT pk_id, eid, source, lh_revenue, acc_revenue, project_carrier_expense, carrier_lh, carrier_acc, gross_margin, fsc_revenue, revenue, load_count FROM ct_sales_commission; DECLARE CONTINUE HANDLER FOR NOT FOUND SET done = 1; DELETE FROM debug; OPEN commission; REPEAT FETCH commission INTO _pk_id, _eid, _source, _lh_revenue, _acc_revenue, _project_carrier_expense, _carrier_lh, _carrier_acc, _gross_margin, _fsc_revenue, _revenue, _load_count; INSERT INTO debug VALUES(concat('row ', _pk_id)); UNTIL done = 1 END REPEAT; CLOSE commission; END// DELIMITER ; CALL apply_credit(); SELECT * FROM debug;

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  • Why is my jQuery event not being triggered when the button is clicked?

    - by Ankur
    I am trying to call the .ajax() method when a button with id=go is clicked. This button is displayed when another jQuery event is triggered, namely that a button with a class called predicate is clicked. The button with id=go is displayed without any problems but on clicking it, there is no call to the alert() or getResults() method which are supposed to occur. Howver if I hard code the button with id=go into the page and don't have it generated by jQuery then the thing works fine. Why does the generated code cause a problem. $(document).ready( function() { $(".predicate").click( function() { makeQuery(this.id); //alert(this.id); }); $(".object").click( function() { //alert(this.id); }); var variables = 0; var queryString = ""; var noOfResults; var formValues=""; var goBegin = ""; var goEnd = "<br/><input name='go' id='go' type='button' value='go'/>"; function makeQuery(value) { queryString = queryString + "val" + variables + "=" + value + "&"; formValues=formValues+"<input type='hidden' name='val"+variables+"' value='"+value+"' />"; variables = variables + 1; $("#resultCount").html(goBegin+formValues+queryString+goEnd); } function getResults(){ $.ajax( { type : "GET", url : "ObjectCount", data : queryString + "count=" + variables, success : function(results) { noOfResults = results; $("#resultCount").html(results - 1 + " results"); } }); } $("#go").click( function() { alert("We have been alerted"); getResults(); }); });

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  • ControlCollection extension method optimization

    - by Johan Leino
    Hi, got question regarding an extension method that I have written that looks like this: public static IEnumerable<T> FindControlsOfType<T>(this ControlCollection instance) where T : class { T control; foreach (Control ctrl in instance) { if ((control = ctrl as T) != null) { yield return control; } foreach (T child in FindControlsOfType<T>(ctrl.Controls)) { yield return child; } } } public static IEnumerable<T> FindControlsOfType<T>(this ControlCollection instance, Func<T, bool> match) where T : class { return FindControlsOfType<T>(instance).Where(match); } The idea here is to find all controls that match a specifc criteria (hence the Func<..) in the controls collection. My question is: Does the second method (that has the Func) first call the first method to find all the controls of type T and then performs the where condition or does the "runtime" optimize the call to perform the where condition on the "whole" enumeration (if you get what I mean). secondly, are there any other optimizations that I can do to the code to perform better. An example can look like this: var checkbox = this.Controls.FindControlsOfType<MyCustomCheckBox>( ctrl => ctrl.CustomProperty == "Test" ) .FirstOrDefault();

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  • How to protect a form HTML/PHP with JS callback to AS3

    - by Jk_
    Hi guys, I'm developing a Flash website (as3) where I need to be able to upload directly to YouTube by using the DATA API. However in order to do so, I had to use a proper HTML form on top of my flash object. Why? Because of the Browser Based Upload restictions. I first hide the form using JQuery and with a little CSS the form is display just where I want it. Within flash I use ExternalInterface.call() to show/hide the form when I need it! ExternalInterface.call("YTUploader.showIt"); The upload process is working great my only problem is that the form can be displayed easily... You just need a tool like firebug and you can use the form wherever you want on my flash app. So I was wandering which will be the best way to 'protect' this form or the best way to limit its access. Any advices will be appreciated. Thanks for your time. Jk.

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  • Windows/C++: how to use a COM dll which is not registered

    - by Albert
    Hi, In our application, we need to use a COM dll (namely msdia100.dll) which was not registered in the system before. Earler, we have just called the DLL by calling its DllRegisterServer via this code: // Register DIA DLL required by Breakpad std::string diaLibPath = "msdia100"; HMODULE diaLib = LoadLibrary(diaLibPath.c_str()); if( diaLib == NULL ) { errors << "Cannot load DLL " << diaLibPath << endl; return; } typedef HRESULT ( __stdcall * regServer_t )(void); regServer_t regServer = (regServer_t)GetProcAddress(diaLib, "DllRegisterServer"); if( regServer == NULL ) { errors << "Cannot get method DllRegisterServer from " << diaLibPath << endl; FreeLibrary(diaLib); return; } if( regServer() != S_OK ) { errors << "Cannot call DllRegisterServer from " << diaLibPath << endl; } FreeLibrary(diaLib); This doesn't work anymore on Windows 7 (maybe also Vista, didn't tried) because to call this function, it needs Administrator privileges. All solutions to this problem I have found where about getting those Admin rights. That is no possible solution for us because our application must also work if the user is not able to get those Admin rights. It is also no solution for us to suddenly need an installer for our application which registeres this DLL. So, what possibilities are there? How can I use this DLL without Admin rights? Do I have to recode COM which works without the need to register a DLL first?

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  • Calling jQuery method from onClick attribute in HTML

    - by Russell
    I am relatively new to implementing JQuery throughout an entire system, and I am enjoying the opportunity. I have come across one issue I would love to find the correct resolve for. Here is a simple case example of what I want to do: I have a button on a page, and on the click event I want to call a jquery function I have defined. Here is the code I have used to define my method (Page.js): (function($) { $.fn.MessageBox = function(msg) { alert(msg); }; }); And here is my HTML page: <HTML> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="C:\Sandpit\jQueryTest\jquery-1.3.2.js"></script> <script language="javascript" src="Page.js"></script> </head> <body> <div class="Title">Welcome!</div> <input type="button" value="ahaha" onclick="$().MessageBox('msg');" /> </body> </HTML> (The above code displays the button, but clicking does nothing.) I am aware I could add the click event in the document ready event, however it seems more maintainable to put events in the HTML element instead. However I have not found a way to do this. Is there a way to call a jquery function on a button element (or any input element)? Or is there a better way to do this? Thanks

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  • How to use a rewrite rule to force calls for "domain.tld/subdir/file.html" to show as "subdir.domain.tld/file.html"?

    - by Wion
    Hi! First time poster. Very new to mod_rewrite. I'm on a shared server and the context of this problem is with a virtual directory under my root account. The domain (domain.tld) will have subdirectories representing annual mini-sites of static .html files. Subdirectory names (yyyy) will be the 4-digit year (e.g., "2010"). I want any call to domain.tld/yyyy/file.html to appear as yyyy.domain.tld/file.html in the browser address bar, and (of course) for the page to load properly. I already force dropping “www” by using… RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www\.domain\.tld [NC] RewriteRule (.*) http://domain.tld/$1 [R=301,L] So far so good. But no matter what I try after that, I can’t get the subdomain to force to the front of the domain. Here’s one of the more complicated examples I’ve tried (no doubt wrong)… RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^domain\.tld/([0-9]+)/([a-z-]+)\.html [NC] RewriteRule (.*) %1.domain.tld/%2.html [NC] This doesn’t break anything (that I can tell), but it doesn’t do what I want either. I.e., if I type yyyy.domain.tld, I’ll see yyyy.domain.tld in the address bar, and navigating around will give me yyyy.domain.tld/file.html, etc. Fine. But if also type domain.tld/yyyy I’ll see domain.tld/yyyy, etc, which is not how I want people to see it. It doesn’t redirect or mask or alias or whatever you call it. Is it even possible to force one look over the other like that? Should I be handling this with DNS instead? Thanks in advance!

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  • JasperReports reports access image via authenticated URL

    - by user363115
    Hi all, I am hoping that this is a simple issue with a simple solution and that I have missed something obvious. Let me explain the problem; We have an application that generates PDF reports (using Jasper). These reports contain data from our database, as well as imagery (photographs). These photographs are stored in S3. We use signed URLs to access these photographs. We link these photographs into our Jasper reports using these S3 URLs. Because the S3 URLs are signed and time-limited (by design), the process is as follows; User requests a report to be generated, Report is filled, and goes to our database (at which time UUIDs to any required images are retrieved), For each UUID an S3 signed URL must be generated, To do this the URL behind each report image is a call to an authenticated URL in our app (/get_img?uuid=foo), The controller behind this URL generates a signed S3 URL and returns it, Reports loads the image. The problem is with step (4) - the call to the authenticated URL fails because Jasper does not pass any authentication information with the request. Is there a solution here? Thanks all for your time. Ben

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  • Passing NULL value

    - by FFXIII
    Hi. I use an instance of NSXMLParser. I store found chars in NSMutableStrings that are stored in an NSMutableDictionary and these Dicts are then added to an NSMutableArray. When I test this everything seems normal: I count 1 array, x dictionnaries and x strings. In a detailview controller file I want to show my parsed results. I call the class where everthing is stored but I get (null) returned. This is what I do (wrong): XMLParser.h @interface XMLParser : NSObject { NSMutableArray *array; NSMUtableDictionary *dictionary; NSSMutabletring *element; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableArray *array; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableDictionary *dictionary; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableString *element; XMLParser.m @synthesize array, dictionary, element; //parsing goes on here & works fine //so 'element' is filled with content and stored in a dict in an array //and released at the end of the file In my controller file I do this: controller.h @class XMLParser; @interface controller : UIViewController { XMLParser *aXMLParser; } @property (nonatomic, retain) XMLParser *aXMLParser; controller.m #import "XMLParser.h" @synthesize aXMLParser; - (void)viewDidLoad { NSLog(@"test array: %@", aXMLParser.array); NSLog(@"test dict: %@", aXMLParser.dictionary); NSLog(@"test element: %@", aXMLParser.element); } When I test the value of my array, a dict or an element in the XMLParser.h file I get my result. What am I doing wrong so I can't call my results in my controller file? Any help is welcome, because I'm pretty stuck right now :/

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  • How to store and remove dynamically and automatic variable of generic data type in custum list data

    - by Vineel Kumar Reddy
    Hi I have created a List data structure implementation for generic data type with each node declared as following. struct Node { void *data; .... .... } So each node in my list will have pointer to the actual data(generic could be anything) item that should be stored in the list. I have following signature for adding a node to the list AddNode(struct List *list, void* eledata); the problem is when i want to remove a node i want to free even the data block pointed by *data pointer inside the node structure that is going to be freed. at first freeing of datablock seems to be straight forward free(data) // forget about the syntax..... But if data is pointing to a block created by malloc then the above call is fine....and we can free that block using free function int *x = (int*) malloc(sizeof(int)); *x = 10; AddNode(list,(void*)x); // x can be freed as it was created using malloc what if a node is created as following int x = 10; AddNode(list,(void*)&x); // x cannot be freed as it was not created using malloc Here we cannot call free on variable x!!!! How do i know or implement the functionality for both dynamically allocated variables and static ones....that are passed to my list.... Thanks in advance...

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  • Castle Windsor: Reuse resolved component in OnCreate, UsingFactoryMethod or DynamicParameters

    - by shovavnik
    I'm trying to execute an action on a resolved component before it is returned as a dependency to the application. For example, with this graph: public class Foo : IFoo { } public class Bar { IFoo _foo; IBaz _baz; public Bar(IFoo foo, IBaz baz) { _foo = foo; _baz = baz; } } When I create an instance of IFoo, I want the container to instantiate Bar and pass the already-resolved IFoo to it, along with any other dependencies it requires. So when I call: var foo = container.Resolve<IFoo>(); The container should automatically call: container.Resolve<Bar>(); // should pass foo and instantiate IBaz I've tried using OnCreate, DynamicParameters and UsingFactoryMethod, but the problem they all share is that they don't hold an explicit reference to the component: DynamicParameters is called before IFoo is instantiated. OnCreate is called after, but the delegate doesn't pass the instance. UsingFactoryMethod doesn't help because I need to register these components with TService and TComponent. Ideally, I'd like a registration to look something like this: container.Register<IFoo, Foo>((kernel, foo) => kernel.Resolve<Bar>(new { foo })); Note that IFoo and Bar are registered with the transient life style, which means that the already-resolved instance has to be passed to Bar - it can't be "re-resolved". Is this possible? Am I missing something?

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  • XPath expression exception

    - by fftoolbar
    Hi I am not really sure if i am doing this right with XPath expression. I am trying to locate a text on DOM and this text is assingned to a variable. I have text stored in SQLite and i have retrievd the text and i am trying to locate it on the webpage which actually contains the text. so i ahve the following code: var searchText = dataset[x]['selectedText']; alert(dataset[x]['selectedText']); var res = googbar_frames[0].contentDocument.evaluate("//*[.=searchText]",googbar_frames[0].contentDocument.body,null,XPathResult.ANY_TYPE,null); alert(res.snapshotLength); And i get the following error. Error: Permission denied for <http://en.wikipedia.org> to call method XPathException.toString on <>. Error: Permission denied for <http://en.wikipedia.org> to call method XPathException.toString on <>. Have got the expression correct. I am trying to look for the text on DOM. Or am i going wrong somwehere? cheers

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  • How to get an embedded function to run multiple times

    - by Guy Montag
    The question I have is how to I get multiple instances of a function to run. Here is my function below - A simple fade function. Problem I'm having is that when it is called a second time it abandons the first call. So if a user clicks on a button it will display a message which fades. If the user clicks on another button the previous fading message just stops at the current opacity level. Try it here - www.arcmarks.com ( please do not repost this domain name) click on SignUp and than quickly click on SignIn with out typing anything. You will see the previous message simply halts. ? What is the stopping mechanism? Where did the previous function go? The function function newEffects(element, direction, max_time ) { newEffects.arrayHold = []; newEffects.arrayHold[element.id] = 0; function next() { newEffects.arrayHold[element.id] += 10; if ( direction === 'up' ) { element.style.opacity = newEffects.arrayHold[element.id] / max_time; } else if ( direction === 'down' ) { element.style.opacity = ( max_time - newEffects.arrayHold[element.id] ) / max_time; } if ( newEffects.arrayHold[element.id] <= max_time ) { setTimeout( next, 10 ); } } next(); return true; }; The Call newEffects(this.element, 'down', 4000 );

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  • Why is my JavaScript function "a" not defined?

    - by 4l3x
    When I call my JavaScript function B, the javascript console in firefox said that function A is not defined, but on chrome browser if defined. And when I call function "A" in body segment: <input type="button" onclick="A()" value=" ..A.. "> , firefox said that function B is not defined? :S <html> <head> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> function B(){ alert(" hi B "); document.write('<br><br><input type="button" onClick="A()" value=" ..A..">'); }; function A(){ alert(" hi A"); document.write('<br><br><input type="button" onclick="B()" value=" ..b..">'); if (window.WebCL == undefined) { alert("Unfortunately your system does not support WebCL. "); return false; } } </script> </head> <body> <input type="button" onclick="B()" value=" ..B.. "> </body> </html>

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  • iPhone and iPad : Doing a "select * from something" query in a SQLite database

    - by Abramodj
    Hi folks, i'm trying to use the SQLite data base in my iPad app, and here's my function to make a query: - (void)executeQuery:(char*)query { NSString *file = [self getWritableDBPath]; NSFileManager *fileManager = [NSFileManager defaultManager]; BOOL success = [fileManager fileExistsAtPath:file]; // If its not a local copy set it to the bundle copy if(!success) { //file = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:DATABASE_TITLE ofType:@"db"]; [self createEditableCopyOfDatabaseIfNeeded]; } dataArray = NULL; dataArray = [NSMutableArray array]; sqlite3 *database = NULL; if (sqlite3_open([file UTF8String], &database) == SQLITE_OK) { sqlite3_exec(database, query, loadTimesCallback, dataArray, NULL); } sqlite3_close(database); [self logResults]; } if I call [self executeQuery:"select name from table1"]; everything is working fine. But if i call [self executeQuery:"select * from cars"]; the app crashes telling me that the NSMutableArray dataArray is not the right kind of variable where to set the query results. So, how can i do a "select * form table1" query, and store the results? Thanks! EDIT: Here's my loadTimesCallback method: static int loadTimesCallback(void *context, int count, char **values, char **columns) { NSMutableArray *times = (NSMutableArray *)context; for (int i=0; i < count; i++) { const char *nameCString = values[i]; [times addObject:[NSString stringWithUTF8String:nameCString]]; } return SQLITE_OK; }

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  • Applying correct bindings to WPF datatemplate to maximize reusability

    - by johncatfish
    Hi. I have a WPF application. I want to apply that datatemplate to a Listbox filled with records from Table02. Then, for each listboxitem I need to bind the combobox to the same database table (Table01), but for each listboxitem the selected item will vary. It will be a foreign key to Table01. <DataTemplate x:Key="Table01DataTemplate"> <Grid> <ComboBox ItemsSource="{Binding Model.IQueryable_Table01, RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type Window}}}" SelectedValue="{Binding Table01_ForeignKey}" DisplayMemberPath="name" SelectedValuePath="id" /> <!-- Other stuff --> </Grid> </DataTemplate> <ListBox x:Name="lbTest" ItemTemplate="{StaticResource Table01DataTemplate}" /> <!-- In .cs file lbTest.DataContext = this; --> Notes: Model.IQueryable_Table01 is a property which encapsulates a Linq-to-sql call returning a IQueryable. lbTest will be filled by setting ItemsSource with a Linq-to-sql call. Is this a good way to do the bindings in a data template for a maximum reusability? I also thought of replacing AncestorType={x:Type Window} with lbTest.DataContext = this; AncestorType={x:Type Application} and lbTest.DataContext = App.Current; But it didn't work (Exception on loading) and I don't know if there's any caveats or down-sides to this approach. Is this good? Any suggestions or improvements? Thanks.

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  • How do I bind to a custom view in Cocoa using Xcode 4?

    - by Newt
    I'm a beginner when it comes to writing Mac apps and working with Cocoa, so please forgive my ignorance. I'm looking to create a custom view, that exposes some properties, which I can then bind to an NSObjectController. Since it's a custom view, the Bindings Inspector obviously doesn't list any of the properties I've added to the view that I can then bind to using Interface Builder. After turning to the Stackoverflow/Google for help, I've stumbled across a couple of possible solutions, but neither seem to be quite right for my situation. The first suggested creating an IBPlugin, which would then mean my bindings would be available in the Bindings Inspector. I could then bind the view to the controller using IB. Apparently IBPlugins aren't supported in Xcode 4, so that one's out the window. I'm also assuming (maybe wrongly) that IBPlugins are no longer supported because there's a better way of doing such things these days? The second option was to bind the controller to the view programmatically. I'm a bit confused as to exactly how I would achieve this. Would it require subclassing NSObjectController so I can add the calls to bind to the view? Would I need to add anything to the view to support this? Some examples I've seen say you'd need to override the bind method, and others say you don't. Also, I've noticed that some example custom views call [self exposeBinding:@"bindingName"] in the initializer. From what I gather from various sources, this is something that's related to IBPlugins and isn't something I need to do if I'm not using them. Is that correct? I've found a post on Stackoverflow here which seems to discuss something very similar to my problem, but there wasn't any clear winner as to the best answer. The last comment by noa on 12th Sept seems interesting, although they mention you should be calling exposeBinding:. Is this comment along the right track? Is the call to exposeBinding really necessary? Apologies for any dumb questions. Any help greatly appreciated.

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  • Managed .NET Equivalent to CreateFile & WriteFile from WinBase (kernel32.dll)

    - by StevenH
    I am working with a legacy file format. The file is created using unmanaged C++ that utilizes the WinBase.h CreateFile() & WriteFile() functions (found in the kernel32.dll). I have been using P/Invoke interop to access these native functions like so: [DllImport("kernel32.dll")] public static extern bool WriteFile( IntPtr hFile, byte[] lpBuffer, uint nNumberOfBytesToWrite, out uint lpNumberOfBytesWritten, [In] ref NativeOverlapped lpOverlapped); [DllImport("kernel32.dll", SetLastError = true)] public static extern bool WriteFileEx( IntPtr hFile, byte[] lpBuffer, uint nNumberOfBytesToWrite, [In] ref NativeOverlapped lpOverlapped, WriteFileCompletionDelegate lpCompletionRoutine); [DllImport("kernel32.dll", SetLastError = true)] public static extern IntPtr CreateFile( string lpFileName, uint dwDesiredAccess, uint dwShareMode, IntPtr lpSecurityAttributes, uint dwCreationDisposition, uint dwFlagsAndAttributes, IntPtr hTemplateFile); [DllImport("kernel32.dll", SetLastError = true)] public static extern bool CloseHandle(IntPtr hObject); public delegate void WriteFileCompletionDelegate( UInt32 dwErrorCode, UInt32 dwNumberOfBytesTransfered, ref NativeOverlapped lpOverlapped); The issue with this is when I call WriteFile(), the file is always overwritten by the proceeding call. I need to find a compatible .NET equivalent that would allow me to produce the exact same format of output. Thanks.

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  • MapView EXC_BAD_ACCESS (SIGSEGV) and KERN_INVALID_ADDRESS

    - by user768113
    I'm having some 'issues' with my application... well, it crashes in an UIViewController that is presented modally, there the user enters information through UITextFields and his location is tracked by a MapView. Lets call this view controller "MapViewController" When the user submits the form, I call a different ViewController - modally again - that processes this info and a third one answers accordingly, then go back to a MenuVC using unwinding segues, which then calls MapViewController and so on. This sequence is repeated many times, but it always crashes in MapViewController. Looking at the crash log, I think that the MapView can be the problem of this or some element in the UI (because of the UIKit framework). I tried to use NSZombie in order to track a memory issue but it doesn't give me a clue about whats happening. Here is the crash log Hardware Model: iPad3,4 Process: MyApp [2253] OS Version: iOS 6.1.3 (10B329) Report Version: 104 Exception Type: EXC_BAD_ACCESS (SIGSEGV) Exception Codes: KERN_INVALID_ADDRESS at 0x00000044 Crashed Thread: 0 Thread 0 name: Dispatch queue: com.apple.main-thread Thread 0 Crashed: 0 IMGSGX554GLDriver 0x328b9be0 0x328ac000 + 56288 1 IMGSGX554GLDriver 0x328b9b8e 0x328ac000 + 56206deallocated instance 2 IMGSGX554GLDriver 0x328bc2f2 0x328ac000 + 66290 3 IMGSGX554GLDriver 0x328baf44 0x328ac000 + 61252 4 libGPUSupportMercury.dylib 0x370f86be 0x370f6000 + 9918 5 GLEngine 0x34ce8bd2 0x34c4f000 + 629714 6 GLEngine 0x34cea30e 0x34c4f000 + 635662 7 GLEngine 0x34c8498e 0x34c4f000 + 219534 8 GLEngine 0x34c81394 0x34c4f000 + 205716 9 VectorKit 0x3957f4de 0x394c7000 + 754910 10 VectorKit 0x3955552e 0x394c7000 + 582958 11 VectorKit 0x394d056e 0x394c7000 + 38254 12 VectorKit 0x394d0416 0x394c7000 + 37910 13 VectorKit 0x394cb7ca 0x394c7000 + 18378 14 VectorKit 0x394c9804 0x394c7000 + 10244 15 VectorKit 0x394c86a2 0x394c7000 + 5794 16 QuartzCore 0x354a07a4 0x35466000 + 239524 17 QuartzCore 0x354a06fc 0x35466000 + 239356 18 IOMobileFramebuffer 0x376f8fd4 0x376f4000 + 20436 19 IOKit 0x344935aa 0x34490000 + 13738 20 CoreFoundation 0x33875888 0x337e9000 + 575624 21 CoreFoundation 0x338803e4 0x337e9000 + 619492 22 CoreFoundation 0x33880386 0x337e9000 + 619398 23 CoreFoundation 0x3387f20a 0x337e9000 + 614922 24 CoreFoundation 0x337f2238 0x337e9000 + 37432 25 CoreFoundation 0x337f20c4 0x337e9000 + 37060 26 GraphicsServices 0x373ad336 0x373a8000 + 21302 27 UIKit 0x3570e2b4 0x356b7000 + 357044 28 MyApp 0x000ea12e 0xe9000 + 4398 29 MyApp 0x000ea0e4 0xe9000 + 4324 I think thats all, additionally, I would like to ask you: if you are using unwind segues then you are releasing view controllers from the memory heap, right? Meanwhile, performing segues let you instantiate those controllers. Technically, MenuVC should be the only VC alive in the heap during the app life cycle if you understand me.

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  • How to read a parameter passed to a facelet from a backing bean

    - by Antonio
    Hi, I've written a facelet, and a corresponding backing bean, that implements user management (addition, deletion and so on). I'd want to be able to perform some custom processing when, for instance, a new user is added. There is a "create" button in the facelet, whose click event is handled by its backing bean. At the end of the event handler, I'd want to be able to call a method of another backing bean, which is not known because ideally the facelet can be used in several pages, with different custom processing. I thought to implement this feature by providing to the facelet a backing bean name and a method name, like this: <myfacelet:subaccounts backingBean="myBackingBean" createListener="createListener" /> and at the end of the event handler call #{myBackingBean.createListener} someway. I'm using this method (along with some overloads) to obtain a MethodExpression: protected MethodExpression getMethodExpression(String beanName, String methodName, Class<?> expectedReturnType, Class<?>[] expectedParamTypes) { ExpressionFactory expressionFactory; MethodExpression method; ELContext elContext; String el; el = String.format("#{%s['%s']}", beanName, methodName); expressionFactory = getApplication().getExpressionFactory(); elContext = getFacesContext().getELContext(); method = expressionFactory.createMethodExpression(elContext, el, expectedReturnType, expectedParamTypes); return method; } and the click event handler should look like: public void saveSubaccountListener(ActionEvent event) { MethodExpression method; ... method = getMethodExpression( "backingBean", "createSubaccountListener", SubuserBean.class); if (method != null) method.invoke( getFacesContext().getELContext(), new Object[] { _editedSubuser }); } That works fine as long as I provide an existing bean name (myBackingBean), but if I use backingBean the invoke() doesn't work due to the following error: javax.el.PropertyNotFoundException: Target Unreachable, identifier 'backingBean' resolved to null Is there a way I can retrieve from the facelet backing bean the value of a parameter that has been passed to the facelet? In my case, the value of backingBean, which should be myBackingBean? I've searched for and tried different solutions, but with no luck yet.

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  • Java: design for using many executors services and only few threads

    - by Guillaume
    I need to run in parallel multiple threads to perform some tests. My 'test engine' will have n tests to perform, each one doing k sub-tests. Each test result is stored for a later usage. So I have n*k processes that can be ran concurrently. I'm trying to figure how to use the java concurrent tools efficiently. Right now I have an executor service at test level and n executor service at sub test level. I create my list of Callables for the test level. Each test callable will then create another list of callables for the subtest level. When invoked a test callable will subsequently invoke all subtest callables test 1 subtest a1 subtest ...1 subtest k1 test n subtest a2 subtest ...2 subtest k2 call sequence: test manager create test 1 callable test1 callable create subtest a1 to k1 testn callable create subtest an to kn test manager invoke all test callables test1 callable invoke all subtest a1 to k1 testn callable invoke all subtest an to kn This is working fine, but I have a lot of new treads that are created. I can not share executor service since I need to call 'shutdown' on the executors. My idea to fix this problem is to provide the same fixed size thread pool to each executor service. Do you think it is a good design ? Do I miss something more appropriate/simple for doing this ?

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  • Calling a javascript function from an aspx.cs code behind

    - by David Hodgson
    Hi, I would like to call a javascript function from an aspx control. For instance, suppose I had: <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title>Untitled Page</title> <script type="text/javascript"> function test(x, y) { } </script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" Text="Button" onclick="Button1_Click"/> </div> </form> </body> </html> and in the code behind: protected void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // do stuff (really going to a database to fill x and y) int[] x = new int[] { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 }; int[] y = new int[] { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 }; // call javascript function as test(x,y); } Is there a way to do it? DUPLICATE:calling-a-javascript-function-at-the-end-of-button-click-code-behind

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