on call - Page 277 - Developer IT

Can Win32_NetworkAdapterConfiguration.EnableStatic() be used to set more than one IP address?

- by Andrew J. Brehm

I ran into this problem in a Visual Basic program that uses WMI but could confirm it in PowerShell. Apparently the EnableStatic() method can only be used to set one IP address, despite taking two parameters IP address(es) and subnetmask(s) that are arrays. I.e. $a=get-wmiobject win32_networkadapterconfiguration -computername myserver This gets me an array of all network adapters on "myserver". After selecting a specific one ($a=$a[14] in this case), I can run $a.EnableStatic() which has this signature System.Management.ManagementBaseObject EnableStatic(System.String[] IPAddress, System.String[] SubnetMask) I thought this implies that I could set several IP addresses like this: $ips="192.168.1.42","192.168.1.43" $a.EnableStatic($ips,"255.255.255.0") But this call fails. However, this call works: $a.EnableStatic($ips[0],"255.255.255.0") It looks to me as if EnableStatic() really takes two strings rather than two arrays of strings as parameters. In Visual Basic it's more complicated and arrays must be passed but the method appears to take into account only the first element of each array. Am I confused again or is there some logic here?

Read the article

Import CSV to class structure as the user defines

- by Assimilater

I have a contact manager program and I would like to offer the feature to import csv files. The problem is that different data sources order the fields in different ways. I thought of programming an interface for the user to tell it the field order and how to handle exceptions. Here is an example line in one of many possible field orders: "ID#","Name","Rank","Address1","Address2","City","State","Country","Zip","Phone#","Email","Join Date","Sponsor ID","Sponsor Name" "Z1234","Call, Anson","STU","1234 E. 6578 S.","","Somecity","TX","United States","012345","000-000-0000","[email protected]","5/24/2010","z12343","Quantum Independence" Notice that in one data field "Name" there is a comma to separate last name and first name and in another there is not. My plan is to have a line for each field (ie ID, Name, City etc.) and a statement "import to" and list box with options like: Don't Import, BusinessJoin Date, First Name, Zip and the program recognizes those as properties of an object... I'd also like the user to be able to record preset field orders so they can re-use them for csv files from the same download source. Then I also need it to check if a record all ready exists (is there a record for Anson Call all ready?) and allow the user to tell it what to do if there is a record (ie mailing address may have changes, so if that field is filled overwrite it, or this mailing address is invalid, leave the current data untouched for this person, overwrite the rest). While I'm capable of coding this...i'm not very excited about it and I'm wondering if there's a tool or set of tools out there to all ready perform most of this functionality... I hope this makes sense...

Read the article

how to convert video from one format to another using php

- by Meena

hi i want to include the vedio download option in my webpage. I am using ffmpeg, but it seems to work very slow. Is there is any other way to do this or how to spead up the ffmpeg. i am using this code to get the frames from the vedio. to convert the vedio $call="ffmpeg -i ".$_SESSION['video_to_convert']." -vcodec libvpx -r 30 -b ".$quality." -acodec libvorbis -ab 128000 -ar ".$audio." -ac 2 -s ".$size." ".$converted_vids.$name.".".$type." -y 2> log/".$name.".txt"; $convert = (popen("start /b ".$call, "r")); pclose($convert); to get the frame from the vedio exec("ffmpeg -vframes 1 -ss ".$time_in_seconds." -i $converted_vids video_images.jpg -y 2>); but this code does not generate any error its loading continously.

Read the article

Stored Procedure: Reducing Table Data

- by SumGuy

Hi Guys, A simple question about Stored Procedures. I have one stored procedure collecting a whole bunch of data in a table. I then call this procedure from within another stored procedure. I can copy the data into a new table created in the calling procedure but as far as I can see the tables have to be identical. Is this right? Or is there a way to insert only the data I want? For example.... I have one procedure which returns this: SELECT @batch as Batch, @Count as Qty, pd.Location, cast(pd.GL as decimal(10,3)) as [Length], cast(pd.GW as decimal(10,3)) as Width, cast(pd.GT as decimal(10,3)) as Thickness FROM propertydata pd GROUP BY pd.Location, pd.GL, pd.GW, pd.GT I then call this procedure but only want the following data: DECLARE @BatchTable TABLE ( Batch varchar(50), [Length] decimal(10,3), Width decimal(10,3), Thickness decimal(10,3), ) INSERT @BatchTable (Batch, [Length], Width, Thickness) EXEC dbo.batch_drawings_NEW @batch So in the second command I don't want the Qty and Location values. However the code above keeps returning the error: "Insert Error: Column name or number of supplied values does not match table"

Read the article

incorrect height in Chrome when "-webkit-appearance: none" and value="" on <input> tag

- by Avi Steiner

In Chrome v17.0.963.79 on Windows 7, I seem to be having an inexplicable problem when applying the -webkit-appearance: none style to an <input> tag. The problem is as follows: I have a stylesheet, let's call it potatofoot.css, which consists of the code .tbl { display: table; } .tblRow { display: table-row; } .tblCell { display: table-cell; } input { -webkit-appearance: none; }? and I have an html file, let's call it blech.html, which contains the code <div class="tbl"> <div class="tblRow"> <label class="tblCell">Name</label> <input type="text" class="tblCell" value="I'M NOT EMPTY! OH, YEAH!"> </div> </div> This displays fine (see this jsfiddle). But when I empty the value attribute, as in this jsfiddle, the entire table grows from a height of 26px to a height of 31px, the label moves to the bottom, and the input stays at the top. However, if I remove -webkit-appearance: none;, everything shows up the same with and without out the value attribute being filled. What's going on?

Read the article

jquery dialog is clearing my form fields and I need to return a value from a jquery dialog

- by Seth

1.) I have a jQuery dialog that is opened whenever a particular textbox is focused. The dialog's contents are loaded from ajax and the unique ID of the textbox that was focused is passed in the ajax call (like this): $('[name=start_airport[]],[name=finish_airport[]]').click(function(){ var id = $(this).attr('id'); if($('#use_advanced_airport_selector').attr('checked')) { $('#advanced_airport_selector').dialog({ open : function() { $(this).load('/flight-booker/advanced-airport-selector.php?callerID='+id); } }); $('#advanced_airport_selector').dialog('open'); } }); (where advanced_airport_selector is an empty div) THAT PART WORKS FINE. However, when I make my ajax call within my dialog, all my form values are reset! No matter what I do, when that dialog opens, all form values are reset (not just the value of the textbox that was focused). I simply don't understand what would cause this behavior! But that's only issue #1. 2.) I need to be able to return a value from that dialog box. I am passing the ID in the ajax query so that I can use a jquery selector to update the caller's value after certain actions are performed within the dialog box. However, I can't actually access that textbox because of DOM_ERRORS that I've never come across. It doesn't make any sense! There's way to much code to post, and it's really hard to explain, so sorry if I'm unclear as to what I'm asking.

Read the article

Should a C++ constructor do real work?

- by Wade Williams

I'm strugging with some advice I have in the back of my mind but for which I can't remember the reasoning. I seem to remember at some point reading some advice (can't remember the source) that C++ constructors should not do real work. Rather, they should initialize variables only. The advice when on to explain that real work should be done in some sort of init() method, to be called separately after the instance was created. The situation is I have a class that represents a hardware device. It makes logical sense to me for the constructor to call the routines that query the device in order to build up the instance variables that describe the device. In other words, once new instantiates the object, the developer receives an object which is ready to be used, no separate call to object-init() required. Is there a good reason why constructors shouldn't do real work? Obviously it could slow allocation time, but that wouldn't be any different if calling a separate method immediately after allocation. Just trying to figure out what gotchas I not currently considering that might have lead to such advice.

Read the article

How do I change the viewport of a window in win32?

- by Colen

Hi, I have a window with child windows inside in it. The child windows take up about 1000 pixels of vertical space. However, our users don't always have 1000 pixels of vertical space available - they might have as little as 500 or 600 pixels. I want to be able to display this window at a size of 500 pixels high, and have the user "scroll" up and down the window to see the full contents. The window should always be 500 pixels high, but the view within it should change. Assume I can add a scroll bar somewhere so the user can choose which part of the window he wants to see. Windows will normally paint the window contents from height 0 to height 500; how do I tell it instead to "paint from height 250 to height 750", for example? I know that I can set the viewport with functions like SetViewportOrgEx etc, but those functions require a device context - when do I call them if I want them to be "permanent"? Do I call them when I get the WM_PAINT message from windows? Or at some other time? And which functions from that family do I want to use? Thanks.

Read the article

Javascript cloned object looses its prototype functions

- by Jake M

I am attempting to clone an object in Javascript. I have made my own 'class' that has prototype functions. My Problem: When I clone an object, the clone cant access/call any prototype functions. I get an error when I go to access a prototype function of the clone: clone.render is not a function Can you tell me how I can clone an object and keep its prototype functions This simple JSFiddle demonstrates the error I get: http://jsfiddle.net/VHEFb/1/ function cloneObject(obj) { // Handle the 3 simple types, and null or undefined if (null == obj || "object" != typeof obj) return obj; // Handle Date if (obj instanceof Date) { var copy = new Date(); copy.setTime(obj.getTime()); return copy; } // Handle Array if (obj instanceof Array) { var copy = []; for (var i = 0, len = obj.length; i < len; ++i) { copy[i] = cloneObject(obj[i]); } return copy; } // Handle Object if (obj instanceof Object) { var copy = {}; for (var attr in obj) { if (obj.hasOwnProperty(attr)) copy[attr] = cloneObject(obj[attr]); } return copy; } throw new Error("Unable to copy obj! Its type isn't supported."); } function MyObject(name) { this.name = name; // I have arrays stored in this object also so a simple cloneNode(true) call wont copy those // thus the need for the function cloneObject(); } MyObject.prototype.render = function() { alert("Render executing: "+this.name); } var base = new MyObject("base"); var clone = cloneObject(base); clone.name = "clone"; base.render(); clone.render(); // Error here: "clone.render is not a function"

Read the article

Nhibernate Fluent domain Object with Id(x => x.id).GeneratedBy.Assigned not saveable

- by urpcor

Hi there, I am using for some legacy db the corresponding domainclasses with mappings. Now the Ids of the entities are calculated by some stored Procedure in the DB which gives back the Id for the new row.(Its legacy, I cant change this) Now I create the new entity , set the Id and Call Save. But nothing happens. no exeption. Even NH Profiler does not say a bit. its as the Save call does nothing. I expect that NH thinks that the record is already in the db because its got an Id already. But I am using Id(x = x.id).GeneratedBy.Assigned() and intetionally the Session.Save(object) method. I am confused. I saw so many samples there it worked. does any body have any ideas about it? public class Appendix { public virtual int id { get; set; } public virtual AppendixHierarchy AppendixHierachy { get; set; } public virtual byte[] appendix { get; set; } } public class AppendixMap : ClassMap<Appendix> { public AppendixMap () { WithTable("appendix"); Id(x => x.id).GeneratedBy.Assigned(); References(x => x.AppendixHierachy).ColumnName("appendixHierarchyId"); Map(x => x.appendix); } }

Read the article

unexpected behaviour of object stored in web service Session

- by draconis

Hi. I'm using Session variables inside a web service to maintain state between successive method calls by an external application called QBWC. I set this up by decorating my web service methods with this attribute: [WebMethod(EnableSession = true)] I'm using the Session variable to store an instance of a custom object called QueueManager. The QueueManager has a property called ChangeQueue which looks like this: [Serializable] public class QueueManager { ... public Queue<QBChange> ChangeQueue { get; set; } ... where QBChange is a custom business object belonging to my web service. Now, every time I get a call to a method in my web service, I use this code to retrieve my QueueManager object and access my queue: QueueManager qm = (QueueManager)Session[ticket]; then I remove an object from the queue, using qm.dequeue() and then I save the modified query manager object (modified because it contains one less object in the queue) back to the Session variable, like so: Session[ticket] = qm; ready for the next web service method call using the same ticket. Now here's the thing: if I comment out this last line //Session[ticket] = qm; , then the web service behaves exactly the same way, reducing the size of the queue between method calls. Now why is that? The web service seems to be updating a class contained in serialized form in a Session variable without being asked to. Why would it do that? When I deserialize my Queuemanager object, does the qm variable hold a reference to the serialized object inside the Session[ticket] variable?? This seems very unlikely.

Read the article

Member function overloading/template specialization issue

- by Ferruccio

I've been trying to call the overloaded table::scan_index(std::string, ...) member function without success. For the sake of clarity, I have stripped out all non-relevant code. I have a class called table which has an overloaded/templated member function named scan_index() in order to handle strings as a special case. class table : boost::noncopyable { public: template <typename T> void scan_index(T val, std::function<bool (uint recno, T val)> callback) { // code } void scan_index(std::string val, std::function<bool (uint recno, std::string val)> callback) { // code } }; Then there is a hitlist class which has a number of templated member functions which call table::scan_index(T, ...) class hitlist { public: template <typename T> void eq(uint fieldno, T value) { table* index_table = db.get_index_table(fieldno); // code index_table->scan_index<T>(value, [&](uint recno, T n)->bool { // code }); } }; And, finally, the code which kicks it all off: hitlist hl; // code hl.eq<std::string>(*fieldno, p1.to_string()); The problem is that instead of calling table::scan_index(std::string, ...), it calls the templated version. I have tried using both overloading (as shown above) and a specialized function template (below), but nothing seems to work. After staring at this code for a few hours, I feel like I'm missing something obvious. Any ideas? template <> void scan_index<std::string>(std::string val, std::function<bool (uint recno, std::string val)> callback) { // code }

Read the article

SQL Server 2008 Stored Proc suddenly returns -1

- by aaginor

I use the following stored procedure from my SQL Server 2008 database to return a value to my C#-Program ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[getArticleBelongsToCatsCount] @id int AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; DECLARE @result int; set @result = (SELECT COUNT(*) FROM art_in_cat WHERE child_id = @id); return @result; END I use a SQLCommand-Object to call this Stored Procedure public int ExecuteNonQuery() { try { return _command.ExecuteNonQuery(); } catch (Exception e) { Logger.instance.ErrorRoutine(e, "Text: " + _command.CommandText); return -1; } } Till recently, everything works fine. All of a sudden, the stored procedure returned -1. At first, I suspected, that the ExecuteNonQuery-Command would have caused and Exception, but when stepping through the function, it shows that no Exception is thrown and the return value comes directly from return _command.ExecuteNonQuery(); I checked following parameters and they were as expected: - Connection object was set to the correct database with correct access values - the parameter for the SP was there and contained the right type, direction and value Then I checked the SP via SQLManager, I used the same value for the parameter like the one for which my C# brings -1 as result (btw. I checked some more parameter values in my C' program and they ALL returned -1) but in the manager, the SP returns the correct value. It looks like the call from my C# prog is somehow bugged, but as I don't get any error (it's just the -1 from the SP), I have no idea, where to look for a solution.

Read the article

Access is denied. Javascript error on request to secured page

- by ihorko

On SomePage.aspx page by javascript (XMLHttpRequest) I call SecuredPage.aspx used next code: var httpRequest = GetXmlHttp(); var url = "https://myhost.com/SecuredPage.aspx"; var params = "param1=" + document.getElementById('param1').value + "&param2=" + document.getElementById('param2').value; httpRequest.open("POST", url, true); httpRequest.setRequestHeader("Content-Type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); httpRequest.onreadystatechange = function() { //Call a function when the state changes. if (httpRequest.readyState == 4 && httpRequest.status == 200) { alert(httpRequest.responseText); } } httpRequest.send(params); // HERE ACCESS IS DENIED //--------------------------------------------- function GetXmlHttp() { var xmlhttp = false; if (window.XMLHttpRequest) { xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); } else if (window.ActiveXObject) // code for IE { try { xmlhttp = new ActiveXObject("Msxml2.XMLHTTP"); } catch (e) { try { xmlhttp = new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } catch (E) { xmlhttp = false; } } } return xmlhttp; } It throws Access is denied error. if send to http (http://myhost.com/SecuredPage.aspx), it works fine. How is it possible to resolve that problem. Thanks!

Read the article

Am I doing AS3 reference cleanup correctly?

- by Ólafur Waage

In one frame of my fla file (let's call it frame 2), I load a few xml files, then send that data into a class that is initialized in that frame, this class creates a few timers and listeners. Then when this class is done doing it's work. I call a dispatchEvent and move to frame 3. This frame does some things as well, it's initialized and creates a few event listeners and timers. When it's done, I move to frame 2 again. This is supposed to repeat as often as I need so I need to clean up the references correctly and I'm wondering if I'm doing it correctly. For sprites I do this. world.removeChild(Background); // world is the parent stage Background = null; For instances of other classes I do this. Players[i].cleanUp(world); // do any cleanup within the instanced class world.removeChild(PlayersSelect[i]); For event listeners I do this. if(Background != null) { Background.removeEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, deSelectPlayer); } For timers I do this. if(Timeout != null) { Timeout.stop(); Timeout.removeEventListener(TimerEvent.TIMER, queueHandler); Timeout.removeEventListener(TimerEvent.TIMER_COMPLETE, queueCompleted); Timeout = null; } And for library images I do this if(_libImage!= null) { s.removeChild(Images._libImage); // s is the stage _libImage= null; } And for the class itself in the main timeline, I do this Frame2.removeEventListener("Done", IAmDone); Frame2.cleanUp(); // the cleanup() does all the stuff above Frame2= null; Even if I do all this, when I get to frame 2 for the 2nd time, it runs for 1-2 seconds and then I get a lot of null reference errors because the cleanup function is called prematurely. Am I doing the cleanup correctly? What can cause events to fire prematurely?

Read the article

Microsoft JScript runtime error Object doesn't support this property or method

- by Darxval

So i am trying to call this function in my javascript but it gives me the error of "Microsoft JScript runtime error Object doesn't support this property or method" and i cant figure out why. It is occuring when trying to call hmacObj.getHMAC. This is from the jsSHA website: http://jssha.sourceforge.net/ to use the hmac-sha1 algorithm encryption. Thank you! hmacObj = new jsSHA(signature_base_string,"HEX"); signature = hmacObj.getHMAC("hgkghk","HEX","SHA-1","HEX"); Above this i have copied the code from sha.js snippet: function jsSHA(srcString, inputFormat) { /* * Configurable variables. Defaults typically work */ jsSHA.charSize = 8; // Number of Bits Per character (8 for ASCII, 16 for Unicode) jsSHA.b64pad = ""; // base-64 pad character. "=" for strict RFC compliance jsSHA.hexCase = 0; // hex output format. 0 - lowercase; 1 - uppercase var sha1 = null; var sha224 = null; The function it is calling (inside of the jsSHA function) (snippet) this.getHMAC = function (key, inputFormat, variant, outputFormat) { var formatFunc = null; var keyToUse = null; var blockByteSize = null; var blockBitSize = null; var keyWithIPad = []; var keyWithOPad = []; var lastArrayIndex = null; var retVal = null; var keyBinLen = null; var hashBitSize = null; // Validate the output format selection switch (outputFormat) { case "HEX": formatFunc = binb2hex; break; case "B64": formatFunc = binb2b64; break; default: return "FORMAT NOT RECOGNIZED"; }

Read the article

Accurately and securely measure the time spent viewing a web page

- by balpha

Suppose the following: You have a web page that presents a simple game to a user (e.g. a quiz, a puzzle, etc). The user solves the puzzle, submits the result, and you want to measure as precisely as possible how long they took to solve it. Assume it's quite simple, so we're talking seconds, not hours. Also assume JavaScript is required anyway, so there's no need to think of JS-disabled browsers. Finally, assume we don't want to use anything like Flash, Silverlight, or the like. I can think of several techniques: Simply take the time between the points when the data was sent from the server and when the submission arrives. Since this is exclusively server-side, there's no chance for cheating. However, issues like network latency and page rendering time might make this unfair for users with slow computers / browsers / internet connections. On the first request, just send the page without the actual game data. When everything is loaded so far, retrieve the game data through an AJAX call and populate it into the page. This is similar to 1., but reduces some of the caveats introduced through time spent on overhead. Have the time measured on the client side using JavaScript and submitted alongside with the solution. This would theoretically be the most accurate, but it introduces the possibility of cheating, because you're relying on client data. Use the request time headers of a "ready to play" AJAX call and the result submission request. Same caveat as 3., as it is still client data. A combination of server side and client side measuring with some kind of plausibility analysis. I can't think of a good way, but maybe you can. Thoughts? Other ideas?

Read the article

Compiler turning a string& into a basic_string<>&

- by Shtong

Hello I'm coming back to C++ after long years spent on other technologies and i'm stuck on some weird behavior when calling some methods taking std::string as parameters : An example of call : LocalNodeConfiguration *LocalNodeConfiguration::ReadFromFile(std::string & path) { // ... throw configuration_file_error(string("Configuration file empty"), path); // ... } When I compile I get this (I cropped file names for readability) : /usr/bin/g++ -g -I/home/shtong/Dev/OmegaNoc/build -I/usr/share/include/boost-1.41.0 -o CMakeFiles/OmegaNocInternals.dir/configuration/localNodeConfiguration.cxx.o -c /home/shtong/Dev/OmegaNoc/source/configuration/localNodeConfiguration.cxx .../localNodeConfiguration.cxx: In static member function ‘static OmegaNoc::LocalNodeConfiguration* OmegaNoc::LocalNodeConfiguration::ReadFromFile(std::string&)’: .../localNodeConfiguration.cxx:72: error: no matching function for call to ‘OmegaNoc::configuration_file_error::configuration_file_error(std::string, std::basic_string<char, std::char_traits<char>, std::allocator<char> >&)’ .../configurationManager.hxx:25: note: candidates are: OmegaNoc::configuration_file_error::configuration_file_error(std::string&, std::string&) .../configurationManager.hxx:22: note: OmegaNoc::configuration_file_error::configuration_file_error(const OmegaNoc::configuration_file_error&) So as I understand it, the compiler is considering that my path parameter turned into a basic_string at some point, thus not finding the constructor overload I want to use. But I don't really get why this transformation happened. Some search on the net suggested me to use g++ but I was already using it. So any other advice would be appreciated :) Thanks

Read the article

Drools - Doing Complex Stuff inside a Rule Condition or Consequence

- by mfcabrera

Hello, In my company we are planning to use Drools a BRE for couple of projects. Now we trying to define some best-practices. My question is what should be and shouldn't be done inside a Rule Condition/Consequence. Given that we can write Java directly or call methods (for example From a Global object in the Working Memory). Example. Given a Rule that evaluates a generic Object (e.g. Person) have property set to true. Now, that specific propertie can only be defined for that Object going to the database and fetching that info. So we have two ways of implementing that: Alternative A: Go to the database and fetch the object property (true/false, a code) Insert the Object in the working memory Evaluate the rule Alternative B: Insert a Global Object that has a method that connects to the database and check for the property for the given object. Insert the Object to eval in Working Memory In the rule, call the Global Object and perform the access to the database Which of those is considered better? I really like A, but sometimes B is more straightforward, however what would happen if something like a Exception from the Database is raised? I have seen the alternative B implemented in the Drools 5.0 Book from Packt Publishing,however they are doing a mocking and they don't talk about the actual implications of going to the database at all. Thank you,

Read the article

Memory Leak in returning NSMutableArray from class

- by Structurer

Hi I am quite new to Objective C for the iPhone, so I hope you wont kill me for asking a simple question. I have made an App that works fine, except that Instruments reports memory leaks from the class below. I use it to store settings from one class and then retrieve them from another class. These settings are stored on a file so they can be retrieved every time the App is ran. What can I do do release the "setting" and is there anything that can be done to call (use) the class in a smarter way? Thanks ----- Below is Settings.m ----- import "Settings.h" @implementation Settings @synthesize settings; -(NSString *)dataFilePath // Return path for settingfile, including filename { NSArray *paths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentsDirectory = [paths objectAtIndex:0]; return [documentsDirectory stringByAppendingPathComponent:kUserSettingsFileName]; } -(NSMutableArray *)getParameters // Return settings from disk after checking if file exist (if not create with default values) { NSString *filePath = [self dataFilePath]; if ([[NSFileManager defaultManager] fileExistsAtPath:filePath]) // Getting data from file { settings = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithContentsOfFile:filePath]; } else // Creating default settings { settings = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithObjects: [NSNumber numberWithInteger:50], [NSNumber numberWithInteger:50], nil]; [settings writeToFile:[self dataFilePath] atomically:YES]; } return settings; } ----- Below is my other class from where I call my Settings class ----- // Get settings from file Settings *aSetting = [[Settings alloc] init]; mySettings = [aSetting getParameters]; [aSetting release];

Read the article

How would a user stay logged in to a REST-based website?

- by unforgiven3

A year or so ago I asked this question: Can you help me understand this? “Common REST Mistakes: Sessions are irrelevant”. My question was essentially this: Okay, I get that HTTP authentication is done automatically on every message - but how? Is the username/password sent with every request? Doesn't that just increase attack surface area? I feel like I'm missing part of the puzzle. The answers I received made perfect sense in the context of a mobile (iPhone, Android, WP7) app - when talking to a REST service, the app would just send user credentials along with each request. That worked great for me. But now, I would like to better understand how one would secure a REST-like website, like StackOverflow itself or something like Reddit. How would things work if it was a user logged in via a web browser instead of logged in via an iPhone app? What happens when a user logs in? Are the credentials saved in the browser somehow? How would the browser know what credentials to send with subsequent REST requests? What if it's a JavaScript call to a webservice? How would the JavaScript call include user credentials? I'll be quite frank: my understanding of security when it comes to websites is pretty limited. I enjoyed working with REST services from an app perspective, but now I want to try and build a website that is based on REST principles, and I'm finding myself to be pretty lost. If there is anything in the above question that is unclear that you'd like me to clarify, please leave a comment and I'll address it.

Read the article

Using groovy ws with enum types?

- by Jared

I'm trying to use groovy ws to call a webservice. One of the properties of the generated class is it's self a class with an enum type. Although the debug messages show that the com.test.FinalActionType is created at runtime when the WSDL is read I can't create an instance of it using code like proxy.create("com.test.FinalActionType") When I try and assign a string to my class uin place of an instance of FinalActionType groovy is not able to do the conversion. How can I get an instance of this class to use in a webservice call? I've pasted the important part of the WSDL below. <xsd:simpleType name="FinalActionType"> <xsd:restriction base="xsd:string"> <xsd:enumeration value="stop"/> <xsd:enumeration value="quit"/> <xsd:enumeration value="continue"/> <xsd:whiteSpace value="collapse"/> </xsd:restriction> </xsd:simpleType>

Read the article

Problem with function calls [javascript]

- by Samuel

Read the article

Sharepoint fails to load a C++ dll on windows 2008

- by Nathan

I have a sharepoint DLL that does some licensing things and as part of the code it uses an external C++ DLL to get the serial number of the hardisk. When i run this application on windows server 2003 it works fine, but on 2008 the whole site (loaded on load) crashes and resets continually. This is not 2008 R2 and is the same in 64 or 32 bits. If i put a debugger.break before the dll execution then I see the code get to the point of the break then never come back into the dll again. I do get some debug assertion warnings from within the function, again only in 2008, but im not sure this is related. I created a console app that runs the c# dll, which in turn loads the c++ dll, and this works perfectly on 2008 (although does show the assertion errors, but I have suppressed these now). The assertion errors are not in my code but within ICtypes.c and not something I can debug. If i put a breakpoint in the DLL it is never hit and the compiler says : "step in: Stepping over non user code" if i try to debug into the DLL using VS. I have tried wrapping the code used to call the DLL in: SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges(delegate() but this also does not help. I have the sourcecode for this DLL so that is not a problem. If i delete the DLL from the directory I get an error about a missing DLL, if i replace it back to no error or warning just a complete failure. If i replace this code with a hardcoded string the whole application works fine. Any advice would be much appreciated, I can't understand why it works as a console app yet not when run by sharepoint, this is with the same user account, on the same machine... This is the code used to call the DLL: [DllImport("idDll.dll", EntryPoint = "GetMachineId", SetLastError = true)] extern static string GetComponentId([MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPStr)]String s); public static string GetComponentId() { Debugger.Break(); if (_machine == string.Empty) { string temp = ""; id= ComponentId.GetComponentId(temp); } return id; }

Read the article

How to catch unintentional function interpositioning with GCC?

- by SiegeX

Reading through my book Expert C Programming, I came across the chapter on function interpositioning and how it can lead to some serious hard to find bugs if done unintentionally. The example given in the book is the following: my_source.c mktemp() { ... } main() { mktemp(); getwd(); } libc mktemp(){ ... } getwd(){ ...; mktemp(); ... } According to the book, what happens in main() is that mktemp() (a standard C library function) is interposed by the implementation in my_source.c. Although having main() call my implementation of mktemp() is intended behavior, having getwd() (another C library function) also call my implementation of mktemp() is not. Apparently, this example was a real life bug that existed in SunOS 4.0.3's version of lpr. The book goes on to explain the fix was to add the keyword static to the definition of mktemp() in my_source.c; although changing the name altogether should have fixed this problem as well. This chapter leaves me with some unresolved questions that I hope you guys could answer: Should our software group adopt the practice of putting the keyword static in front of all functions that we don't want to be exposed? Does GCC have a way to warn about function interposition? We certainly don't ever intend on this happening and I'd like to know about it if it does. Can interposition happen with functions introduced by static libraries? Thanks for the help.

Search Results

Search found 23274 results on 931 pages for 'on call'.

Page 277/931 | < Previous Page | 273 274 275 276 277 278 279 280 281 282 283 284 | Next Page >

- by Andrew J. Brehm

- by Assimilater

- by Meena

- by SumGuy

- by Avi Steiner

- by Seth

- by Wade Williams

- by Colen

- by Jake M

- by urpcor

- by draconis

- by Ferruccio

- by aaginor

- by ihorko

- by Ólafur Waage

- by Darxval

- by balpha

- by Shtong

- by mfcabrera

- by Structurer

- by unforgiven3

- by Jared

- by Samuel

- by Nathan

- by SiegeX

< Previous Page | 273 274 275 276 277 278 279 280 281 282 283 284 | Next Page >