Search Results

Search found 7851 results on 315 pages for 'chris bunch'.

Page 279/315 | < Previous Page | 275 276 277 278 279 280 281 282 283 284 285 286  | Next Page >

  • Button Onclick event (which is in codbehind) doesn't get triggered in MVC 2

    - by rksprst
    I had an MVC 1.0 web application that was in VS 2008; I just upgraded the project to VS 2010 which automatically upgraded MVC to 2.0. I have a bunch of viewpages have codebehind files that were manually added. The project worked fine before the upgrade, but now the onclick even't don't get triggered. I.e. I have an asp:button with an onclick event that points to a method in the codebehind. When you click the button, the onclick event doesn't get triggered. In fact, when you look at the Page variable, IsPostBack is false. This is really bizarre and I'm wondering if anyone know what happened and how to fix it. I'm thinking it has something to do with the changes in MVC 2.0; but I'm not sure. Any help is really appreciated, I've been trying to figure this out for a while. (deleting the codebehinds and moving that to the controller is not really an option since there is so many pages, moving back to vs 2008 is a last resort as I want to make use of some of the VS 2010 features like performance testing.)

    Read the article

  • Javascript: prototypeal inheritance and the prototype property

    - by JanD
    Hi, I have a simple code fragment in JS working with prototype inheritance. function object(o) { function F() {} F.prototype = o; return new F(); } //the following code block has a alternate version var mammal = { color: "brown", getColor: function() { return this.color; } } var myCat = object(mammal); myCat.meow = function(){return "meow";} that worked fine but adding this: mammal.prototype.kindOf = "predator"; does not. ("mammal.prototype is undefined") Since I guessed that object maybe have no prototype I rewrote it, replacing the var mammal={... block with: function mammal() { this.color = "brown"; this.getColor = function() { return this.color; } } which gave me a bunch of other errors: "Function.prototype.toString called on incompatible object" and if I try to call _myCat.getColor() "myCat.getColor is not a function" Now I am totally confused. After reading Crockford, and Flanagan I did not get the solution for the errors. So it would be great if somebody knows... - why is the prototype undefined in the first example (which is foremost concern; I thought the prototype of explicitly set in the object() function) - why get I these strange errors trying to use the mammal function as prototype object in the object() function?

    Read the article

  • Rails - eager load the number of associated records, but not the record themselves.

    - by Max Williams
    I have a page that's taking ages to render out. Half of the time (3 seconds) is spent on a .find call which has a bunch of eager-loaded associations. All i actually need is the number of associated records in each case, to display in a table: i don't need the actual records themselves. Is there a way to just eager load the count? Here's a simplified example: @subjects = Subject.find(:all, :include => [:questions]) In my table, for each row (ie each subject) i just show the values of the subject fields and the number of associated questions for each subject. Can i optimise the above find call to suit these requirements? I thought about using a group field but my full call has a few different associations included, with some second-order associations, so i don't think group by will work. @subjects = Subject.find(:all, :include => [{:questions => :tags}, {:quizzes => :tags}], :order => "subjects.name") :tags in this case is a second-order association, via taggings. Here's my associations in case it's not clear what's going on. Subject has_many :questions has_many :quizzes Question belongs_to :subject has_many :taggings has_many :tags, :through => :taggings Quiz belongs_to :subject has_many :taggings has_many :tags, :through => :taggings Grateful for any advice - max

    Read the article

  • I need some pointers on how to implement inertia

    - by gargantaun
    Ok, so I've created a little plugin that takes a bunch of elements and creates a sort of never ending list. I'll try to explain... I have a div, and it's got about 20 elements tags in it. When the user scrolls up, the top element moves out of view and is moved to the bottom of the list. And vice-versa so that when the user scrolls down, the bottom element is moved to the top of the list. This is specifically for Mobile Safari (iPad, iPhone) web content and you can see the work in progress here... http://appliedworks.co.uk/files/times/SVGTests/drumView/drum.html You'll need an iPad or iPhone top see the scrolling in action. You can see the plugin code here... http://appliedworks.co.uk/files/times/SVGTests/drumView/drumView-0.1b.js What I would like to do is implement inertia so the scrolling slows to a halt in response to how fast or slow the user is scrolling when their finger leaves the screen. Just like the inertia commonly found in the iPhone / iPad UI. The problem is, every time an element moves to the top or the bottom of the list, the scollTop value for the parent div is adjusted to make it look like all the elements are staying in the same place. Which means the scrollTop value is never more than the top elements total height. So there's no value I can think of that I can keep on manipulating to give the illusion of inertia. I'm stumped. Does anyone have any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • Group vs role (Any real difference?)

    - by Ondrej
    Can anyone tell me, what's the real difference between group and role? Ive been trying to figure this out for some time now and the more information I read, the more I get the sence, that this is brought up just to confuse people and there is no proper difference in this. Both can do the other one's job. Ive always used a group to manage users and their access rights. Recently, I've come accross an administration software, where is a bunch of users. Each user can have assigned a module (whole system is split into a few parts called modules ie. Administration module, Survey module, Orders module, Customer module). On top of it, each module have a list of functionalities, that can be allowed or denied for each user. So let's say, a user John Smith can access module Orders and can edit any order, but havent given a right to delete any of them. If there was more users with the same competency, I would use a group to manage that. I would aggregate such users into the same group and assign access rights to modules and their functions to the group. All users in the same group would have the same access rights. Why call it a group and not role? I don't know, I just feel it that way. It seems to me, that simply it just doesnt really matter :] But I still would like to know the real difference. What about you guys? Any suggestions why this should be rather called role than group or the other way round? Thanks to everyone.

    Read the article

  • How do I get rid of these warnings?

    - by Brian Postow
    This is really several questions, but anyway... I'm working with a big project in XCode, relatively recently ported from MetroWorks (Yes, really) and there's a bunch of warnings that I want to get rid of. Every so often an IMPORTANT warning comes up, but I never look at them because there's too many garbage ones. So, if I can either figure out how to get XCode to stop giving the warning, or actually fix the problem, that would be great. Here are the warnings: It claims that <map.h> is antiquated. However, when I replace it with <map> my files don't compile. Evidently, there's something in map.h that isn't in map... this decimal constant is unsigned only in ISO C90 This is a large number being compared to an unsigned long. I have even cast it, with no effect. enumeral mismatch in conditional expression: <anonymous enum> vs <anonymous enum> This appears to be from a ?: operator. Possibly that the then and else branches don't evaluate to the same type? Except that in at least one case, it's (matchVp == NULL ? noErr : dupFNErr) And since those are both of type OSErr, which is mac defined... I'm not sure what's up. It also seems to come up when I have other pairs of mac constants... multi-character character constant This one is obvious. The problem is that I actually NEED multi-character constants... -fwritable-strings not compatible with literal CF/NSString I unchecked the "Strings are Read-Only" box in both the project and target settings... and it seems to have had no effect...

    Read the article

  • MySQL default value based on view

    - by Jake
    Basically I have a bunch of views based on a simple discriminator column (eg. CREATE VIEW tablename AS SELECT * FROM tablename WHERE discrcolumn = "discriminator value"). Upon inserting a new row into this view, it should insert "discriminator value" into discrcolumn. I tried this, but apparently MySQL doesn't figure this out itself, as it throws an error "Field of view viewname underlying table does not have a default value". The discriminator column is set to NOT NULL of course. How do I mend this? Perhaps a pre-insert trigger? UPDATE: Triggers won't work on views, see below comment. Would it work to create a trigger on the table which uses a variable, and set that variable at establishing the connection? For each connection the value of that variable would be the same, but it could differ from other connections. EDIT: This appears to work... Setup: CREATE TRIGGER insert_[tablename] BEFORE INSERT ON [tablename] FOR EACH ROW SET NEW.[discrcolumn] = @variable Runtime: SET @variable = [descrvalue]; INSERT INTO [viewname] ([columnlist]) VALUES ([values]);

    Read the article

  • How to get rid of gap when I add my custom UIViewController to window?

    - by wgpubs
    I'm getting this gap at the bottom of my window after I add the view of a custom UIViewController. The gap goes away as the view is shifted down after I move to another view and then back. Here is the code in the app delegate: - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { // Override point for customization after application launch CustomViewController *gvc = [[CustomViewController alloc] init]; self.customViewController = gvc; [gvc release]; [window addSubview:customViewController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; } "CustomViewController" is used as a root view controller to simply coordinate which other UIViewControllers to display. As such I simply set its view = to that of the first ViewController's view needed like so: - (void)loadView { UIView *v = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, 320, 480)]; self.view = v; [v release]; // Add the HomeViewController to the top of the stack MainViewController *mvc = [[MainViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"MainView" bundle:nil]; mvc.delegate = self; self.mainViewController = mvc; [mvc release]; [self.view addSubview:self.mainViewController.view]; } I've tried a bunch of things including what you see here with no luck. Any ideas? thanks

    Read the article

  • _dl_runtime_resolve -- When do the shared objects get loaded in to memory?

    - by windfinder
    We have a message processing system with high performance demands. Recently we have noticed that the first message takes many times longer then subsequent messages. A bunch of transformation and message augmentation happens as this goes through our system, much of it done by way of external lib. I just profiled this issue (using callgrind), comparing a "run" of just one message with a "run" of many messages (providing a baseline of comparison). The main difference I see is the function "do_lookup_x" taking up a huge amount of time. Looking at the various calls to this function, they all seem to be called by the common function: _dl_runtime_resolve. Not sure what this function does, but to me this looks like the first time the various shared libraries are being used, and are then being loaded in to memory by the ld. Is this a correct assumption? That the binary will not load the shared libraries in to memory until they are being prepped for use, therefore we will see a massive slowdown on the first message, but on none of the subsequent? How do we go about avoiding this? Note: We operate on the microsecond scale.

    Read the article

  • How can I get all content within <td> tag using a HTML Agility Pack?

    - by Bob Dylan
    So I'm writing an application that will do a little screen scrapping. I'm using the HTML Agility Pack to load an entire HTML page into an instance of HtmlDocoument called doc. Now I want to parse that doc, looking for this: <table border="0" cellspacing="3"> <tr><td>First rows stuff</td></tr> <tr> <td> The data I want is in here <br /> and it's seperated by these annoying <br /> 's. No id's, classes, or even a single <p> tag. </p> Just a bunch of <br /> tags. </td> </tr> </table> So I just need to get the data within the 2nd row. How can I do this? Should I use a regex or something else?

    Read the article

  • OOP - Handling Automated Instances of a Class - PHP

    - by dscher
    This is a topic that, as a beginner to PHP and programming, sort of perplexes me. I'm building a stockmarket website and want users to add their own stocks. I can clearly see the benefit of having each stock be a class instance with all the methods of a class. What I am stumped on is the best way to give that instance a name when I instantiate it. If I have: class Stock() { ....doing stuff..... } what is the best way to give my instances of it a name. Obviously I can write: $newStock = new Stock(); $newStock.getPrice(); or whatever, but if a user adds a stock via the app, where can the name of that instance come from? I guess that there is little harm in always creating a new child with $newStock = new Stock() and then storing that to the DB which leads me to my next question! What would be the best way to retrieve 20 user stocks(for example) into instances of class Stock()? Do I need to instantiate 20 new instances of class Stock() every time the user logs in or is there something I'm missing? I hope someone answers this and more important hope a bunch of people answer this and it somehow helps someone else who is having a hard time wrapping their head around what probably leads to a really elegant solution. Thanks guys!

    Read the article

  • Recommend me an architecture for this Facebook application

    - by andybaird
    Firstly, this question is subjective. There is not a right answer for this question and it really depends on what works for you. I'm hoping to use this thread as a breeding ground for ideas. I hope this is acceptable in this medium. I'm working on building a Facebook app that will be replacing an already popular app that gets ~50k hits a day. The original app is using a very typical LAMP setup with help from some Zend libraries for database layer extraction. For the most part the app worked well, except to solve a lot of issues I ended up fragmenting tables to speed things up. As a result, I couldn't do a lot of things with the app that I wanted to (namely any processing using aggregate data that needed to be returned quickly) So I'm starting to design plans for the next version of this application, and I have a whole bunch of new and cool features that I know would choke my current setup. I'm looking for technological recommendations of data storage methods that scale well. The database does not necessarily need to be relational, simple key/value storage would suffice (although at present time I know little to nothing about KV stores) What's your recommendation? How would you tackle this? I'd like to take a completely free approach to this -- although I am most familiar and comfortable using PHP, I want to leave all technical options open.

    Read the article

  • Duplicate elements when adding XElement to XDocument

    - by Andy
    I'm writing a program in C# that will go through a bunch of config.xml files and update certain elements, or add them if they don't exist. I have the portion down that updates an element if it exists with this code: XDocument xdoc = XDocument.Parse(ReadFile(_file)); XElement element = xdoc.Elements("project").Elements("logRotator") .Elements("daysToKeep").Single(); element.Value = _DoRevert; But I'm running into issues when I want to add an element that doesn't exist. Most of the time part of the tree is in place and when I use my code it adds another identical tree, and that causes the program reading the xml to blow up. here is how I am attempting to do it xdoc.Element("project").Add(new XElement("logRotator", new XElement("daysToKeep", _day))); and that results in a structure like this(The numToKeep tag was already there): <project> <logRotator> <daysToKeep>10</daysToKeep> </logRotator> <logRotator> <numToKeep>13</numToKeep> </logRotator> </project> but this is what I want <project> <logRotator> <daysToKeep>10</daysToKeep> <numToKeep>13</numToKeep> </logRotator> </project>

    Read the article

  • CKEditor doesn't apply inline styles to links

    - by jomanlk
    I'm using ckeditor version 3 as a text editor to create markup to be sent through email. This means that I have to have all the styles inline and anything that needs to be styled will definitely need the style applied. I'm currently using addStylesSet to generate custom styles that can be applied to elements. The problem I have is that although this works on most elements, styles don't seem to be applied to <a> <ol> <ul> and <li> I really need to be able to apply inline styles to these elements as well. I've been looking at the examples on the ckeditor site, but even they just seem to be wrapping a <span> around the link. Is there anyway I can apply inline styles to <a> tags or failing that, can I just give ckeditor a bunch of classes that can be applied to any tag (Like TinyMCE does with it's link to an external css file)? so that I can at least do a textreplace on them to get the styles inline? I haven't pasted any code here because it's exactly the same as what's been done on the ckeditor site.

    Read the article

  • Dangling pointers and double free

    - by user151410
    After some painful experiences, I understand the problem of dangling pointers and double free. I am seeking proper solutions. aStruct has a number of fields including other arrays. aStruct *A=NULL, *B = NULL; A = (aStruct*) calloc(1, sizeof(sStruct)); B = A; free_aStruct(A); ... //bunch of other code in various places. ... free_aStruct(B); Is there any way to write free_aStruct(X) so that free_aStruct(B) exists gracefully?? void free_aStruct(aStruct *X){ if (X ! = NULL){ if (X->a != NULL){free(X->a); x->a = NULL;} free(X); X = NULL; } } Doing above only sets A = NULL when free_aStruct(A); is called. B is now dangling. How can this situation be avoided / remedied? Is reference counting the only viable solution? or, are there other "defensive" free approaches, to prevent free_aStruct(B); from exploding? Thanks, Russ

    Read the article

  • What options exist to get text/ list items to appear in columns?

    - by alex
    I have a bunch of HTML markup coming from an external source, and it is mainly h3 elements and ul elements. I want to have the content flow in 3 columns. I know there is something coming in CSS3, but what options do I have to get this content to flow nicely into the 3 columns at the time being? I'm not that concerned about IE6 (as long as it degrades gracefully). Am I stuck using jQuery to parse the markup and chop it up into 3 divs which float? Thank you Update As per request, here is some of the HTML I am working with <h3>Tourism Industry</h3> <ul> <li><a href="">Something</a></li> <li><a href="">Something</a></li> <li><a href="">Something</a></li> <li><a href="">Something</a></li> </ul> <h3>Small Business</h3> <ul> <li><a href="">Something</a></li> <li><a href="">Something</a></li> <li><a href="">Something</a></li> <li><a href="">Something</a></li> <li><a href="">Something</a></li> </ul> And a whole lot more following the same format.

    Read the article

  • switching C compiler causes: Error Initializer cannot be specified for a flexible array member

    - by user1054210
    I am trying to convert our code from one IDE to be used in a different one. The current one uses gcc which allows for this structure to be initialized from a variable array. The new tool does not use gcc gives me an error "Initializer cannot be specified for a flexible array member". So can someone help me understand how to set this up? Should I set up a blank array of variable size and then somewhere assign the #define array as seen below? Here would be an example of the code…(this is current implementation current IDE) In one header file that is Build switchable so we can build this on different hardware platforms we have the following #define #define GPIOS \ /* BANK, PIN, SPD, MODE,… */ GPIOINIT( A, 0, 2, AIN, …) \ GPIOINIT( A, 1, 2, AIN, …) \ GPIOINTINIT(A, 2, 2, AIN, …) \ . . . Then in a different header file that is used in all builds we have PLATFORM_CONFIG_T g_platformConfig = { .name = {PLATFORM_NAME}, (bunch of other stuff), .allGpios = { GPIOS /* here I get the error */ }, }; So I am thinking I can make the error line a variable array and assign to it later in some other way? The problem is the actual array "GPIO" is of different types and pin orders on different designs are different.

    Read the article

  • How do I create a hyperlink in java?

    - by Justin984
    I'm going through the google app engine tutorials at https://developers.google.com/appengine/docs/java/gettingstarted/usingusers I'm very new to google app engine, java and web programming in general. So my question is, at the bottom of the page it says to add a link to allow the user to log out. So far I've got this: public void doGet(HttpServletRequest req, HttpServletResponse resp) throws IOException { UserService userService = UserServiceFactory.getUserService(); User user = userService.getCurrentUser(); if(user != null){ resp.setContentType("text/plain"); resp.getWriter().println("Hello, " + user.getNickname()); String logoutLink = String.format("<a href=\"%s\">Click here to log out.</a>", userService.createLogoutURL(req.getRequestURI())); resp.getWriter().println(logoutLink); }else { resp.sendRedirect(userService.createLoginURL(req.getRequestURI())); } } However instead of a link, the full string is printed to the screen including the tags. When I look at the page source, I have no tags or any of the other stuff that goes with a webpage. I guess that makes sense considering I've done nothing to output any of that. Do I just do a bunch of resp.GetWriter().println() statements to output the rest of the webpage, or is there something else I don't know about? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • DataReader already open when using LINQ

    - by Jamie Dixon
    I've got a static class containing a static field which makes reference to a wrapper object of a DataContext. The DataContext is basically generated by Visual Studio when we created a dbml file & contains methods for each of the stored procedures we have in the DB. Our class basically has a bunch of static methods that fire off each of these stored proc methods & then returns an array based on a LINQ query. Example: public static TwoFieldBarData[] GetAgesReportData(string pct) { return DataContext .BreakdownOfUsersByAge(Constants.USER_MEDICAL_PROFILE_KEY, pct) .Select(x => new TwoFieldBarData(x.DisplayName, x.LeftValue, x.RightValue, x.TotalCount)) .ToArray(); } Every now and then, we get the following error: There is already an open DataReader associated with this Command which must be closed firs This is happening intermittently and I'm curious as to what is going on. My guess is that when there's some lag between one method executing and the next one firing, it's locking up the DataContext and throwing the error. Could this be a case for wrapping each of the DataContext LINQ calls in a lock(){} to obtain exclusivity to that type and ensure other requests are queued?

    Read the article

  • Using Tcl DSL in Python

    - by Sridhar Ratnakumar
    I have a bunch of Python functions. Let's call them foo, bar and baz. They accept variable number of string arguments and does other sophisticated things (like accessing the network). I want the "user" (let's assume he is only familiar with Tcl) to write scripts in Tcl using those functions. Here's an example (taken from Macports) that user can come up with: post-configure { if {[variant_isset universal]} { set conflags "" foreach arch ${configure.universal_archs} { if {${arch} == "i386"} {append conflags "x86 "} else { if {${arch} == "ppc64"} {append conflags "ppc_64 "} else { append conflags ${arch} " " } } } set profiles [exec find ${worksrcpath} -name "*.pro"] foreach profile ${profiles} { reinplace -E "s|^(CONFIG\[ \\t].*)|\\1 ${conflags}|" ${profile} # Cures an isolated case system "cd ${worksrcpath}/designer && \ ${qt_dir}/bin/qmake -spec ${qt_dir}/mkspecs/macx-g++ -macx \ -o Makefile python.pro" } } } Here, variant_issset, reinplace are so on (other than Tcl builtins) are implemented as Python functions. if, foreach, set, etc.. are normal Tcl constructs. post-configure is a Python function that accepts, well, a Tcl code block that can later be executed (which in turns would obviously end up calling the above mentioned Python "functions"). Is this possible to do in Python? If so, how? from Tkinter import *; root= Tk(); root.tk.eval('puts [array get tcl_platform]') is the only integration I know of, which is obviously very limited (not to mention the fact that it starts up X11 server on mac).

    Read the article

  • php sessions in database only writing part of information to the table...

    - by Ronedog
    I'm having difficulty figuring out what's going on here, hoping some one can help me out. I have been using php, mysql storing my session information in the database. The app is only running on localhost, vista. In the php.ini file I commented out the "session.save_handler = files" line and am using a php class to handle the session writes/reads, etc. My login process is this: Submit login credentials via login.php. login.php calls loginprocess.php. loginprocess.php verifies user, and if valid starts a new session and adds data to the session vars, then it redirects to index.php. Here's the problem. the loginprocess.php page has a bunch of session vars that get set like $_SESSION['account_id'] = $account_id; etc. but when I go to index.php and do a var_dump($_SESSION) it just says "array() empty". However, if I do a var_dump($_SESSION) in loginprocess.php, just before the redirection line header("Location: ../index.php"); then it shows all the data in the session variable. If I look in the database where the session information is stored, there is data in the session_id field, created_ts field, and expires field, but the session_data field has nothing inside of it and in the past this is the field where all my session data was stored. How could I be able to var_dump the session in loginprocess.php, but the data not exist in the db table, is it using some kind of caching? I cleared my cookies, etc...but no change. Why is the session_id, being written to the table, but the actual session data is not? Any ideas are appreciated. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • submitting the form even if the form is in invalid state

    - by Abu Hamzah
    i am using asp.net web forms and i am using bassistance.de jquery validation.. i have bunch of fields in the form and its validatating how it suppose to but its still executing my code behind code, why is it doing that? here is my code: form: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#aspnetForm").validate({ rules: { <%=txtVisitName.UniqueID %>: { maxlength:1, //minlength: 12, required: true } ................. }, messages: { <%=txtVisitName.UniqueID %>: { required: "Enter visit name", minlength: jQuery.format("Enter at least {0} characters.") } ............ }, success: function(label) { label.html("&nbsp;").addClass("checked"); } }); $("#aspnetForm").validate(); }); </script> <div > <h1> Page</h1> <asp:Label runat="server" ID='Label1'>Visit Name:</asp:Label> <asp:TextBox ID="txtVisitName" runat='server'></asp:TextBox> ............ ............... <button id="btnSubmit" name="btnSubmit" type="submit"> Submit</button> </div> and i have a external .js file referencing to my web form page. $(document).ready(function() { $("#btnSubmit").click(function() { SavePage(); }); }); i have a WebMethod .cs and i have bookmark and it does hitting that line of code even thoug my page is in invalid state. how would i fix this? thanks.

    Read the article

  • How can I marshal JSON to/from a POJO for BlackBerry Java?

    - by sowbug
    I'm writing a RIM BlackBerry client app. BlackBerry uses a simplified version of Java (no generics, no annotations, limited collections support, etc.; roughly a Java 1.3 dialect). My client will be speaking JSON to a server. We have a bunch of JAXB-generated POJOs, but they're heavily annotated, and they use various classes that aren't available on this platform (ArrayList, BigDecimal, XMLGregorianCalendar). We also have the XSD used by the JAXB-XJC compiler to generate those source files. Being the lazy programmer that I am, I'd really rather not manually translate the existing source files to Java 1.3-compatible JSON-marshalling classes. I already tried JAXB 1.0.6 xjc. Unfortunately, it doesn't understand the XSD file well enough to emit proper classes. Do you know of a tool that will take JAXB 2.0 XSD files and emit Java 1.3 classes? And do you know of a JSON marshalling library that works with old Java? I think I am doomed because JSON arrived around 2006, and Java 5 was released in late 2004, meaning that people probably wouldn't be writing JSON-parsing code for old versions of Java. However, it seems that there must be good JSON libraries for J2ME, which is why I'm holding out hope.

    Read the article

  • Spring can't find a lib and webapp doesn't start up in tomcat 6

    - by gotch4
    I've this problem using STS: I'm building a simple Spring app, just to try out features like MVC and persistence. Now I've created something very simple, out of a bunch of tutorials for Spring 3, that I'm using. The application fails with this, during server startup: Code: org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanCreationException: Error creating bean with name 'org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping#0': Initialization of bean failed; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.factory.CannotLoadBeanClassException: Cannot find class [org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.annotation.AnnotationSessionFactoryBean] for bean with name 'mySessionFactory' defined in ServletContext resource [/WEB-INF/spring/appServlet/servlet-context.xml]; nested exception is java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.annotation.AnnotationSessionFactoryBean but I've org.springframework.orm in web-inf/classes folder (I even tried putting it in web-inf/lib). As I copied these libs there, the came out in Web App Libraries folder. Building this project in STS works fine as this dependency is set up in build path throught project properties, but how do I transfer the libs to the web app? (I'm using Tomcat 6 as it is the server I'm going to use sometime in the future for production). Is this a config problem of my XML? Or am I just missing the right way to put this lib? (I encountered the same problem before, but adding the needed lib in classes worked it out). More than this I that if I browse inside my workspace to the folder where the working folder of tomcat should be, I can't find any work directory and any commo

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET inline code in a server control

    - by John
    Ok, we had a problem come up today at work. It is a strange one that I never would have even thought to try. <form id="form1" runat="server" method="post" action="Default.aspx?id=<%= ID %>" > Ok, it is very ugly and I wouldn't have ever tried it myself. It came up in some code that was written years ago but had been working up until this weekend after a bunch of updates were installed on a client's web server where the code is hosted. The actual result of this is the following html: <form name="form1" method="post" action="Default.aspx?id=&lt;%= ID %>" id="form1"> The url ends up like this: http://localhost:6735/Default.aspx?id=<%= ID %> Which as you can see, demonstrates that the "<" symbol is being encoded before ASP.NET actually processes the page. It seems strange to me as I thought that even though it is not pretty by any means, it should work. I'm confused. To make matters worse, the client insists that it is a bug in IE since it appears to work in Firefox. In fact, it is broken in Firefox as well, except for some reason Firefox treats it as a 0. Any ideas on why this happens and how to fix it easily? Everything I try to render within the server control ends up getting escaped. Edit Ok, I found a "fix" <form id="form1" runat="server" method="post" action='<%# String.Format("Default.aspx?id={0}", 5) %>' > But that requires me to call DataBind which is adding more of a hack to the original hack. Guess if nobody thinks of anything else I'll have to go with that.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 275 276 277 278 279 280 281 282 283 284 285 286  | Next Page >