Search Results

Search found 16162 results on 647 pages for 'property attribute'.

Page 281/647 | < Previous Page | 277 278 279 280 281 282 283 284 285 286 287 288  | Next Page >

  • WPF - Setting ComboBox.SelectedItem in XAML based on matching object

    - by Andy T
    Hi, so, I have templated combobox that is basically acting as a simple colour palette. It is populated with a list of SolidColorBrush objects. Fine. Now, I have some data that holds the hex value of the current colour. I have a converter that converts the hex into a SolidColorBrush. Also fine. Now, I want to set the SelectedItem property of the combobox based on the colour from my datasource. Since my combo is populated with objects of type SolidColourBrush, and my binding converter is returning a SolidColorBrush, I assumed it would be as simple as saying: SelectedItem="{Binding Color, Converter={StaticResource StringToBrush}}" However... it doesn't work :( I've tested that the binding is working behind the scenes by using the exact same value for the Background property of the combobox. It works fine. So, clearly I can't just say SelectedItem = [something] where that [something] is basically an object equal to the item I want to be selected. What is the right way to do this? Surely it's possible in a XAML-only styley using binding, and I don't have to do some nasty C# iterating through all items in the combobox trying to find a match (that seems awfully old-school)...? Any help appreciated. Many thanks! AT

    Read the article

  • Application connection with database persist after sucessfull transaction also.

    - by anupam3m
    Hi , I am using Spring.Data.NHibernate12 on my database level.my application connection with database is not getting released. Underneath given is Dataconfiguration.xml < ?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ? < objects xmlns="http://www.springframework.net" xmlns:db="http://www.springframework.net/database" < object id="AuditLogger" type="Risco.Rsp.Ac.Audit.AuditLogger, Risco.Rsp.Ac.Audit" singleton="false" < property name="CacheSettings" ref="CacheSettings"/ < /object < object id="CacheSettings" type="Risco.Rsp.Ac.AMAC.CacheMgmt.Utilities.UpdateEntityCacheHelper, Risco.Rsp.Ac.AMAC.CacheMgmt.Utilities" singleton="false"/ < object type="Spring.Objects.Factory.Config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer, Spring.Core" < <property name="ConfigSections" value="databaseSettings"/> < < db:provider id="AMACDbProvider" provider="OracleClient-2.0" connectionString="Data Source=RISCODEVDB;User ID=amsbvt; Password=amsuser1234;"/ Risco.Rsp.Ac.AMAC.Mapping Risco.Rsp.Ac.Logging.Appenders Risco.Rsp.Ac.AMAC.CacheMappings --

    Read the article

  • Correct method to search for AD user by email address from .NET

    - by BrianLy
    I'm having some issues with code that is intended to find a user in Active Directory by searching on their email address. I have tried 2 methods but I'm sometimes finding that the FindOne() method will not return any results on some occasions. If I look up the user in the GAL in Outlook I see the SMTP email address listed. My end goal is to confirm that the user exists in AD. I only have the email address as search criteria, so no way to use first or last name. Method 1: Using mail property: DirectorySearcher search = new DirectorySearcher(entry); search.Filter = "(mail=" + email + ")"; search.PropertiesToLoad.Add("mail"); SearchResult result = search.FindOne(); Method 2: proxyAddresses property: DirectorySearcher search = new DirectorySearcher(entry); search.Filter = "(proxyAddresses=SMTP:" + email + ")"; // I've also tried with =smtp: search.PropertiesToLoad.Add("mail"); SearchResult result = search.FindOne(); I've tried changing the case of the email address input but it still does not return a result. Is there a problem here with case sensitivity? If so, what is the best way to resolve it?

    Read the article

  • Issue with CAAnimation and CALayer Transforms

    - by Brian
    I have a CALayer that I want to animate across the screen. I have created two methods: one slide open the layer and one to slide close. These both work by assigning a property to the layer's transform property. Now I want to use a CAKeyFrameAnimation to slide open the layer. I got this working so the layer slides open, but now I can't slide the layer close using my old method. I am trying to figure out why this is. Any help would be great. Code: - (id)init { if( self = [super init] ) { bIsOpen = NO; closeTransform = self.transform; openTransform = CATransform3DMakeTranslation(-235.0, 0.0, 0.0); } return self; } - (void)closeMenu { if( bIsOpen ) { self.transform = closeTransform; bIsOpen = !bIsOpen; } } - (void)openMenu { if( !bIsOpen ) { CAKeyframeAnimation *closeAnimation = [CAKeyframeAnimation animationWithKeyPath:@"transform"]; closeAnimation.duration = 1.0; closeAnimation.removedOnCompletion = NO; closeAnimation.fillMode = kCAFillModeForwards; closeAnimation.values = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:[NSValue valueWithCATransform3D:closeTransform],[NSValue valueWithCATransform3D:openTransform],nil]; closeAnimation.timingFunctions = [NSArray arrayWithObject:[CAMediaTimingFunction functionWithName:kCAMediaTimingFunctionLinear]]; [self addAnimation:closeAnimation forKey:@"transform"]; bIsOpen = !bIsOpen; } }

    Read the article

  • Binding a WPF ComboBox to a different ItemsSource within a ListBox DataTemplate

    - by tjans
    I have a ListBox that contains a textbox and a combobox in its datatemplate: <ListBox Height="147" Margin="158,29,170,0" Name="PitcherListBox" VerticalAlignment="Top" ItemsSource="{Binding SomeCollectionOfObjects}" Background="Black"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <TextBox Text="{Binding Path=Name}" /> <ComboBox ItemsSource="{Binding LocalArrayOfIntsProperty}" /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> I want to bind the listbox to a collection of objects (which I've done successfully), but I want the combobox in the above datatemplate to have its itemssource set to a local property on the window (array of ints). I still want the combobox to have a two-way bind between its selected item and a property on the collection of objects... I have the following in code: PitcherListBox.DataContext = this; Basically in the end, I want the combobox within the listbox to have a different itemssource than the listbox itself. I can't seem to figure out how to change the ComboBox's ItemsSource in XAML. Can someone provide me some feedback? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How to render a DateTime in a specific format in ASP.NET MVC 3?

    - by Slauma
    If I have in my model class a property of type DateTime how can I render it in a specific format - for example in the format which ToLongDateString() returns? I have tried this... @Html.DisplayFor(modelItem => item.MyDateTime.ToLongDateString()) ...which throws an exception because the expression must point to a property or field. And this... @{var val = item.MyDateTime.ToLongDateString(); Html.DisplayFor(modelItem => val); } ...which doesn't throw an exception, but the rendered output is empty (although val contains the expected value, as I could see in the debugger). Thanks for tips in advance! Edit ToLongDateString is only an example. What I actually want to use instead of ToLongDateString is a custom extension method of DateTime and DateTime?: public static string FormatDateTimeHideMidNight(this DateTime dateTime) { if (dateTime.TimeOfDay == TimeSpan.Zero) return dateTime.ToString("d"); else return dateTime.ToString("g"); } public static string FormatDateTimeHideMidNight(this DateTime? dateTime) { if (dateTime.HasValue) return dateTime.Value.FormatDateTimeHideMidNight(); else return ""; } So, I think I cannot use the DisplayFormat attribute and DataFormatString parameter on the ViewModel properties.

    Read the article

  • Data Binding to an object in C#

    - by Allen
    Objective-c/cocoa offers a form of binding where a control's properties (ie text in a textbox) can be bound to the property of an object. I am trying to duplicate this functionality in C# w/ .Net 3.5. I have created the following very simple class in the file MyClass.cs: class MyClass { private string myName; public string MyName { get { return myName; } set { myName = value; } } public MyClass() { myName = "Allen"; } } I also created a simple form with 1 textbox and 1 button. I init'd one instance of Myclass inside the form code and built the project. Using the DataSource Wizard in Vs2008, i selected to create a data source based on object, and selected the MyClass assembly. This created a datasource entity. I changed the databinding of the textbox to this datasource; however, the expected result (that the textbox's contents would be "allen") was not achieved. Further, putting text into the textbox is not updating the name property of the object. I know i'm missing something fundamental here. At some point i should have to tie my instance of the MyClass class that i initialized inside the form code to the textbox, but that hasn't occurred. Everything i've looked at online seems to gloss over using DataBinding with an object (or i'm missing the mark entirely), so any help is great appreciated. ----Edit--- Utilizing what i learned by the answers, i looked at the code generated by Visual Studio, it had the following: this.myClassBindingSource.DataSource = typeof(BindingTest.MyClass); if i comment that out and substitute : this.myClassBindingSource.DataSource = new MyClass(); i get the expected behavior. Why is the default code generated by VS like it is? Assuming this is more correct than the method that works, how should i modify my code to work within the bounds of what VS generated?

    Read the article

  • How to serialize object containing NSData?

    - by AO
    I'm trying to serialize an object containing a number of data fields...where one of the fields is of datatype NSData which won't serialize. I've followed instructions at http://www.isolated.se but my code (see below) results in the error "[NSConcreteData data]: unrecognized selector sent to instance...". How do I serialize my object? Header file: @interface Donkey : NSObject<NSCoding> { NSString* s; NSData* d; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString* s; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSData* d; - (NSData*) serialize; @end Implementation file: @implementation Donkey @synthesize s, d; static NSString* const KEY_S = @"string"; static NSString* const KEY_D = @"data"; - (void) encodeWithCoder:(NSCoder*)coder { [coder encodeObject:self.s forKey:KEY_S]; [coder encodeObject:self.d forKey:KEY_D]; } - (id) initWithCoder:(NSCoder*)coder; { if(self = [super init]) { self.s = [coder decodeObjectForKey:KEY_STRING]; self.d [coder decodeObjectForKey:KEY_DATA]; } return self; } - (NSData*) serialize { return [NSKeyedArchiver archivedDataWithRootObject:self]; } @end

    Read the article

  • Does WPF break an Entity Framework ObjectContext?

    - by David Veeneman
    I am getting started with Entity Framework 4, and I am getting ready to write a WPF demo app to learn EF4 better. My LINQ queries return IQueryable<T>, and I know I can drop those into an ObservableCollection<T> with the following code: IQueryable<Foo> fooList = from f in Foo orderby f.Title select f; var observableFooList = new ObservableCollection<Foo>(fooList); At that point, I can set the appropriate property on my view model to the observable collection, and I will get WPF data binding between the view and the view model property. Here is my question: Do I break the ObjectContext when I move my foo list to the observable collection? Or put another way, assuming I am otherwise handling my ObjectContext properly, will EF4 properly update the model (and the database)? The reason why I ask is this: NHibernate tracks objects at the collection level. If I move an NHibernate IList<T> to an observable collection, it breaks NHibernate's change tracking mechanism. That means I have to do some very complicated object wrapping to get NHibernate to work with WPF. I am looking at EF4 as a way to dispense with all that. So, to get EF4 working with WPF, is it as simple as dropping my IQueryable<T> results into an ObservableCollection<T>. Does that preserve change-tracking on my EDM entity objects? Thanks for your help.

    Read the article

  • How can UISearchDisplayController autorelease cause crash in a different view controller?

    - by Tofrizer
    Hi, I have two view controllers A and B. From A, I navigate to view controller B as follows: // in View Controller A // navigateToB method -(void) navigateToB { BViewController *bViewController = [[BViewController alloc] initWithNibName: @"BView" bundle:nil]; bViewController.bProperty1 = SOME_STRING_CONSTANT; bViewController.title = @"A TITLE OF A VC's CHOOSING"; [self.navigationController pushViewController: bViewController animated:YES]; [bViewController release]; //<----- releasing 0x406c1e0 } In BViewController, the property bPropery1 is defined with copy as below (note, B also contains UITableView and other properties): @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *bProperty1; Everything appeared to work fine when navigating back and forth between A and B. That is until I added a UISearchDisplayController to the table view contained in BViewController. Now when I navigate out of B, back to A, the app crashes. Stack trace shows what looks the search display controller being autoreleased at time of crash: #0 0x009663a7 in ___forwarding___ #1 0x009426c2 in __forwarding_prep_0___ #2 0x018c8539 in -[UISearchDisplayController _destroyManagedTableView] #3 0x018c8ea4 in -[UISearchDisplayController dealloc] #4 0x00285ce5 in NSPopAutoreleasePool NSZombies shows: -[BViewController respondsToSelector:]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x406c1e0 And malloc history on this points to the bViewController already released in A's navigateToB method above: Call [2] [arg=132]: thread_a065e720 |start ... <snip> ..._sendActionsForEvents:withEvent:] | -[UIControl sendAction:to:forEvent:] | - [UIApplication sendAction:to:from:forEvent:] | -[**AViewController navigateToB**] | +[NSObject alloc] | +[NSObject allocWithZone:] | _internal_class_createInstance | _internal_class_createInstanceFromZone | calloc | malloc_zone_calloc Can someone please give me any ideas on what is happening here? In navigateToB method, once the bViewController is released (after pushViewController), that's should be it for bViewController. Nothing else even knows about it as it is local to the navigateToB method block and it has been released. When navigating from B back to A, nothing is invoked in viewDidLoad, viewWillAppear etc that will re-enter navigateToB. It looks like somehow search display controller has a reference to something in my AViewController and so as it is autoreleased it is taking this "something" down with it but I cannot understand how this is possible, especially as I'm using copy to pass data between A and B. I'm going potty over this. I'm sure this is my mistake somewhere and so I turn to you, Stack Overflow legends for any words of wisdom or advice on how to resolve this. Many Thanks.

    Read the article

  • What's the most concise cross-browser way to access an <iframe> element's window and document?

    - by Bungle
    I'm trying to figure out the best way to access an <iframe> element's window and document properties from a parent page. The <iframe> may be created via JavaScript or accessed via a reference stored in an object property or a variable, so, if I understand correctly, that rules out the use of document.frames. I've seen this done a number of ways, but I'm unsure about the best approach. Given an <iframe> created in this way: var iframe = document.createElement('iframe'); document.getElementsByTagName('body')[0].appendChild(iframe); I'm currently using this to access the document, and it seems to work OK across the major browsers: var doc = iframe.contentWindow || iframe.contentDocument; if (doc.document) { doc = doc.document; } I've also see this approach: var iframe = document.getElementById('my_iframe'); iframe = (iframe.contentWindow) ? iframe.contentWindow : (iframe.contentDocument.document) ? iframe.contentDocument.document : iframe.contentDocument; iframe.document.open(); iframe.document.write('Hello World!'); iframe.document.close(); That confuses me, since it seems that if iframe.contentDocument.document is defined, you're going to end up trying to access iframe.contentDocument.document.document. There's also this: var frame_ref = document.getElementsByTagName('iframe')[0]; var iframe_doc = frame_ref.contentWindow ? frame_ref.contentWindow.document : frame_ref.contentDocument; In the end, I guess I'm confused as to which properties hold which properties, whether contentDocument is equivalent to document or whether there is such a property as contentDocument.document, etc. Can anyone point me to an accurate/timely reference on these properties, or give a quick briefing on how to efficiently access an <iframe>'s window and document properties in a cross-browser way (without the use of jQuery or other libraries)? Thanks for any help!

    Read the article

  • Spring - How do you set Enum keys in a Map with annotations

    - by al nik
    Hi all, I've an Enum class public enum MyEnum{ ABC; } than my 'Mick' class has this property private Map<MyEnum, OtherObj> myMap; I've this spring xml configuration. <util:map id="myMap"> <entry key="ABC" value-ref="myObj" /> </util:map> <bean id="mick" class="com.x.Mick"> <property name="myMap" ref="myMap" /> </bean> and this is fine. I'd like to replace this xml configuration with Spring annotations. Do you have any idea on how to autowire the map? The problem here is that if I switch from xml config to the @Autowired annotation (on the myMap attribute of the Mick class) Spring is throwing this exception nested exception is org.springframework.beans.FatalBeanException: Key type [class com.MyEnum] of map [java.util.Map] must be assignable to [java.lang.String] Spring is no more able to recognize the string ABC as a MyEnum.ABC object. Any idea? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Storing arrays in NSUserDefaultsController

    - by neoneye
    Currently I use NSUserDefaults and I'm interested in using NSUserDefaultsController, so that I get notifications when things change. Below is my current code. items = /* NSArray of MYItem's */; NSData* data = [NSKeyedArchiver archivedDataWithRootObject:items]; [[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] setObject:data forKey:kMYItems]; How should I rework my code to store items in NSUserDefaultsController ? Is NSKeyedArchiver the smartest way to store arrays? @interface MYItem : NSObject <NSCoding> { NSString* name; NSString* path; } @property (copy) NSString* name; @property (copy) NSString* path; @end @implementation MYItem @synthesize name, path; -(void)encodeWithCoder:(NSCoder*)coder { [coder encodeObject:name forKey:@"name"]; [coder encodeObject:path forKey:@"path"]; } -(id)initWithCoder:(NSCoder*)coder { [super init]; [self setName:[coder decodeObjectForKey:@"name"]]; [self setPath:[coder decodeObjectForKey:@"path"]]; return self; } @end

    Read the article

  • Using NHibernate to select entities based on activity of children entities

    - by mannish
    I'm having a case of the Mondays... I need to select blog posts based on recent activity in the post's comments collection (a Post has a List<Comment> property and likewise, a Comment has a Post property, establishing the relationship. I don't want to show the same post twice, and I only need a subset of the entities, not all of the posts. First thought was to grab all posts that have comments, then order those based on the most recent comment. For this to work, I'm pretty sure I'd have to limit the comments for each Post to the first/newest Comment. Last I'd simply take the top 5 (or whatever max results number I want to pass into the method). Second thought would be to grab all of the comments, ordered by CreatedOn, and filter so there's only one Comment per Post. Then return those top (whatever) posts. This seems like the same as the first option, just going through the back door. I've got an ugly, two query option I've got working with some LINQ on the side for filtering, but I know there's a more elegant way to do it in using the NHibernate API. Hoping to see some good ideas here.

    Read the article

  • Worklight client-side API to overrideBackButton doesn't work

    - by user2503429
    I want to make something happen when back button is pressed so I put this code in Myhtml.js file : function wlCommonInit(){ /* * Application is started in offline mode as defined by a connectOnStartup property in initOptions.js file. * In order to begin communicating with Worklight Server you need to either: * * 1. Change connectOnStartup property in initOptions.js to true. * This will make Worklight framework automatically attempt to connect to Worklight Server as a part of application start-up. * Keep in mind - this may increase application start-up time. * * 2. Use WL.Client.connect() API once connectivity to a Worklight Server is required. * This API needs to be called only once, before any other WL.Client methods that communicate with the Worklight Server. * Don't forget to specify and implement onSuccess and onFailure callback functions for WL.Client.connect(), e.g: * * WL.Client.connect({ * onSuccess: onConnectSuccess, * onFailure: onConnectFailure * }); * */ // Common initialization code goes here } WL.App.overrideBackButton(backFunc); function backFunc(){ alert('You will back to previous page'); } but after build and deploy the app and I running it, nothing happened after I pressed back button, anybody have the solution ?

    Read the article

  • Show WPF tooltip on disabled item only

    - by DT
    Just wondering if it is possible to show a WPF on a disabled item ONLY (and not when the item is enabled). I would like to give the user a tooltip explaining why an item is currently disabled. I have an IValueConverter to invert the boolean IsEnabled property binding. But it doesn't seem to work in this situation. The tooltip is show both when the item is enabled and disabled. So is is possible to bind a tooltip.IsEnabled property exclusively to an item's own !IsEnabled? Pretty straightforward question I guess, but code example here anyway: public class BoolToOppositeBoolConverter : IValueConverter { #region IValueConverter Members public object Convert(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, System.Globalization.CultureInfo culture) { if (targetType != typeof(bool)) throw new InvalidOperationException("The target must be a boolean"); return !(bool)value; } public object ConvertBack(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, System.Globalization.CultureInfo culture) { if (targetType != typeof(bool)) throw new InvalidOperationException("The target must be a boolean"); return !(bool)value; } #endregion } And the binding: <TabItem Header="Tab 2" Name="tabItem2" ToolTip="Not enabled in this situation." ToolTipService.ShowOnDisabled="True" ToolTipService.IsEnabled="{Binding Path=IsEnabled, ElementName=tabItem2, Converter={StaticResource oppositeConverter}}"> <Label Content="Item content goes here" /> </TabItem> Thanks folks.

    Read the article

  • Setting database-agnostic default column timestamp using Hibernate

    - by unsquared
    I'm working on a java project full of Hibernate (3.3.1) mapping files that have the following sort of declaration for most domain objects. <property name="dateCreated" generated="insert"> <column name="date_created" default="getdate()" /> </property> The problem here is that getdate() is an MSSQL specific function, and when I'm using something like H2 to test subsections of the project, H2 screams that getdate() isn't a recognized function. It's own timestamping function is current_timestamp(). I'd like to be able to keep working with H2 for testing, and wanted to know whether there was a way of telling Hibernate "use this database's own mechanism for retrieving the current timestamp". With H2, I've come up with the following solution. CREATE ALIAS getdate AS $$ java.util.Date now() { return new java.util.Date(); } $$; CALL getdate(); It works, but is obviously H2 specific. I've tried extending H2Dialect and registering the function getdate(), but that doesn't seem to be invoked when Hibernate is creating tables. Is it possible to abstract the idea of a default timestamp away from the specific database engine?

    Read the article

  • In .NET, Why Can I Access Private Members of a Class Instance within the Class?

    - by AMissico
    While cleaning some code today written by someone else, I changed the access modifier from Public to Private on a class variable/member/field. I expected a long list of compiler errors that I use to "refactor/rework/review" the code that used this variable. Imagine my surprise when I didn't get any errors. After reviewing, it turns out that another instance of the Class can access the private members of another instance declared within the Class. Totally unexcepted. Is this normal? I been coding in .NET since the beginning and never ran into this issue, nor read about it. I may have stumbled onto it before, but only "vaguely noticed" and move on. Can anyone explain this behavoir to me? I would like to know the "why" I can do this. Please explain, don't just tell me the rule. Am I doing something wrong? I found this behavior in both C# and VB.NET. The code seems to take advantage of the ability to access private variables. Sincerely, Totally Confused Class Jack Private _int As Integer End Class Class Foo Public Property Value() As Integer Get Return _int End Get Set(ByVal value As Integer) _int = value * 2 End Set End Property Private _int As Integer Private _foo As Foo Private _jack As Jack Private _fred As Fred Public Sub SetPrivate() _foo = New Foo _foo.Value = 4 'what you would expect to do because _int is private _foo._int = 3 'TOTALLY UNEXPECTED _jack = New Jack '_jack._int = 3 'expected compile error _fred = New Fred '_fred._int = 3 'expected compile error End Sub Private Class Fred Private _int As Integer End Class End Class

    Read the article

  • Extension Method for copying properties form object to another, with first attempt

    - by James
    Hi All, Im trying to write an extension method that I can use to copy values from one object property to another object of a different type, as long as the property names and types match exactly. This is what I have: public static T CopyFrom<T>(this T toObject, object fromObject) { var fromObjectType = fromObject.GetType(); var fromProperties = fromObjectType.GetProperties(); foreach (PropertyInfo toProperty in toObject.GetType().GetProperties()) { PropertyInfo fromProperty = fromObjectType.GetProperty(toProperty.Name); if (fromProperty != null) // match found { // check types var fromType = fromProperty.PropertyType.UnderlyingSystemType; var toType = toProperty.PropertyType.UnderlyingSystemType; if (toType.IsAssignableFrom(fromType)) { toProperty.SetValue(toObject, fromProperty.GetValue(fromObject, null), null); } } } return toObject; } This is working great for non boxed types, but Nullable<T> returns false when I call toType.IsAssignableFrom(fromType) because its type is Nullable<T> and is not the underlying type T. I read here that GetType() should unbox the Nullable<T> so it returns T but if I call that on PropertyInfo.PropertyType I get ReflectedMemberInfo and not the type T im looking for. I think im missing something obvious here, so I thought I would throw it open to SO to get some advice. Anyone have any ideas? Thanks, Jamee

    Read the article

  • WPF not applying default styles defined in MergedDictionaries?

    - by Burgberger
    In a WPF application I defined default control styles in separate resource dictionaries (e.g. "ButtonStyle.xaml"), and added them as merged dictionaries to a resource dictionary named "ResDictionary.xaml". If I refer this "ResDictionary.xaml" as merged dictionary in my App.xaml, the default styles are not applied. However, if I refer the "ButtonStyle.xaml", it works correctly. If I recompile the same code in .NET 3.5 or 3.0, it recognizes and applies the default styles referred in "App.xaml" through "ResDictionary.xaml", but not in .NET 4.0. At runtime if I check the Application.Current.Resources dictionary, the default styles are there, but they are not applied, only if I specify the Style property explicitly in the Button control. Are there any solutions to refer a resource dictionary (containig default styles) this way in .NET 4.0? App.xaml: <Application.Resources> <ResourceDictionary> <ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> <ResourceDictionary Source="Styles/ResDictionary.xaml"/> </ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> </ResourceDictionary> </Application.Resources> ResDictionary.xaml: <ResourceDictionary xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml"> <ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> <ResourceDictionary Source="Default/ButtonStyle.xaml"/> </ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> </ResourceDictionary> ButtonStyle.xaml: <ResourceDictionary xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml"> <Style TargetType="Button"> <Setter Property="Background" Value="Yellow"/> </Style> </ResourceDictionary>

    Read the article

  • Initialize webservice WSDL at runtime using Flex and Mate framework

    - by GroovyB
    I am developing a Flex application on top of Mate framework. In this application, I am using a webservice to retrieve data. As this webservice as not a fix location URL (depending on where customers installed it), I define this URL in a config file. When the Flex application starts, it first reads this config file, then I would like to use the value I found to initialize the webservice. But currently, I have no idea how to this. Here is my EventMap.mxml <EventMap> <services:Services id="services" /> <EventHandlers type="{FlexEvent.PREINITIALIZE}"> <HTTPServiceInvoker instance="{services.configService}"> <resultHandlers> <MethodInvoker generator="{ConfigManager}" method="loadFromXml" arguments="{resultObject}" /> </resultHandlers> <faultHandlers> <InlineInvoker method="Alert.show" arguments="ERROR: Unable to load config.xml !" /> </faultHandlers> </HTTPServiceInvoker> In this part, the ConfigManager parse the config file and intitialize a bindable property called webServiceWsdl Here is my Services.mxml <mx:Object> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ [Bindable] public var webservice:String; ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:HTTPService id="configService" url="config.xml" useProxy="false" /> <mx:WebService id="dataService" wsdl="{webservice}" useProxy="false"/> </mx:Object> How can I initialize this webservice property ?

    Read the article

  • Duck type testing with C# 4 for dynamic objects.

    - by Tracker1
    I'm wanting to have a simple duck typing example in C# using dynamic objects. It would seem to me, that a dynamic object should have HasValue/HasProperty/HasMethod methods with a single string parameter for the name of the value, property, or method you are looking for before trying to run against it. I'm trying to avoid try/catch blocks, and deeper reflection if possible. It just seems to be a common practice for duck typing in dynamic languages (JS, Ruby, Python etc.) that is to test for a property/method before trying to use it, then falling back to a default, or throwing a controlled exception. The example below is basically what I want to accomplish. If the methods described above don't exist, does anyone have premade extension methods for dynamic that will do this? Example: In JavaScript I can test for a method on an object fairly easily. //JavaScript function quack(duck) { if (duck && typeof duck.quack === "function") { return duck.quack(); } return null; //nothing to return, not a duck } How would I do the same in C#? //C# 4 dynamic Quack(dynamic duck) { //how do I test that the duck is not null, //and has a quack method? //if it doesn't quack, return null }

    Read the article

  • How to find specific/local files via CMake

    - by Andreas Romeyke
    Hello, I have a problem with a locally installed library. In my project there is the xmlrpc++0.7-library: myproject/ +-- xmlrpc++0.7/ +-- src/ I want that CMake fallbacks using the local xmlrpc++0.7 directory if not found otherwise. Two problems, the first one, find_path() or find_library() does not work with local dir. I used a workaround testing if variables processed by find_xxx() are empty or not. If empty I set them manually. The cmake generates the Makefile without errors now. But if I want to compile the project via make, the c++ compiler returns "error: XmlRpc.h: file not found". The file XmlRpc.h lies in myproject/xmlrpc++0.7/src and if I compile all them manually it works fine. Here is my CMakeLists.txt. I am very happy if anyone could me point to the right solution to use cmake under conditions described above. --- CMakeLists.txt --- project(webservice_tesseract) cmake_minimum_required(VERSION 2.6) set(CMAKE_INCLUDE_CURRENT_DIR ON) # find tesseract find_path(TESSERACT_INCLUDE_DIR tesseract/tesseractmain.h /opt/local/include /usr/local/include /usr/include ) find_library(TESSERACT_LIBRARY_DIR NAMES tesseract_main PATHS /opt/local/lib/ /usr/local/lib/ /usr/lib ) message(STATUS "looked for tesseract library.") message(STATUS "Include file detected: [${TESSERACT_INCLUDE_DIR}].") message(STATUS "Lib file detected: [${TESSERACT_LIBRARY_DIR}].") add_library(tesseract STATIC IMPORTED) set_property(TARGET tesseract PROPERTY IMPORTED_LOCATION ${TESSERACT_LIBRARY_DIR}/libtesseractmain.a ) #find xmlrpc++ message(STATUS "cmake home dir: [${CMAKE_HOME_DIRECTORY}].") set(LOCAL_XMLRPCPLUSPLUS ${CMAKE_HOME_DIRECTORY}/xmlrpc0.7++/) message(STATUS "xmlrpc++ local dir: [${LOCAL_XMLRPCPLUSPLUS}].") find_path(XMLRPCPLUSPLUS_INCLUDE_DIR XmlRpcServer.h ${LOCAL_XMLRPCPLUSPLUS}src /opt/local/include /usr/local/include /usr/include ) find_library(XMLRPCPLUSPLUS_LIBRARY_DIR NAMES XmlRpc PATHS ${LOCAL_XMLRPCPLUSPLUS} /opt/local/lib/ /usr/local/lib/ /usr/lib/ ) # next lines are an ugly workaround because cmake find_xxx() does not find local stuff if (XMLRPCPLUSPLUS_INCLUDE_DIR) else (XMLRPCPLUSPLUS_INCLUDE_DIR) set(XMLRPCPLUSPLUS_INCLUDE_DIR ${LOCAL_XMLRPCPLUSPLUS}src) endif (XMLRPCPLUSPLUS_INCLUDE_DIR) if (XMLRPCPLUSPLUS_LIBRARY_DIR) else (XMLRPCPLUSPLUS_LIBRARY_DIR) set(XMLRPCPLUSPLUS_LIBRARY_DIR ${LOCAL_XMLRPCPLUSPLUS}) endif (XMLRPCPLUSPLUS_LIBRARY_DIR) message(STATUS "looked for xmlrpc++ library.") message(STATUS "Include file detected: [${XMLRPCPLUSPLUS_INCLUDE_DIR}].") message(STATUS "Lib file detected: [${XMLRPCPLUSPLUS_LIBRARY_DIR}].") add_library(xmlrpc STATIC IMPORTED) set_property(TARGET xmlrpc PROPERTY IMPORTED_LOCATION ${XMLRPCPLUSPLUS_LIBRARY_DIR}/libXmlRpc.a ) #### link together include_directories(${XMLRPCPLUSPLUS_INCLUDE_DIR} ${TESSERACT_INCLUDE_DIR}) link_directories(${XMLRPCPLUSPLUS_LIBRARY_DIR} ${TESSERACT_LIBRARY_DIR}) add_library(simpleocr STATIC simple_ocr.cpp) add_executable(webservice_tesseract webservice.cpp) target_link_libraries(webservice_tesseract xmlrpc tesseract simpleocr)

    Read the article

  • Problem with interface implementation in partial classes.

    - by Bas
    I have a question regarding a problem with L2S, Autogenerated DataContext and the use of Partial Classes. I have abstracted my datacontext and for every table I use, I'm implementing a class with an interface. In the code below you can see I have the Interface and two partial classes. The first class is just there to make sure the class in the auto-generated datacontext inherets Interface. The other autogenerated class makes sure the method from Interface is implemented. namespace PartialProject.objects { public interface Interface { Interface Instance { get; } } //To make sure the autogenerated code inherits Interface public partial class Class : Interface { } //This is autogenerated public partial class Class { public Class Instance { get { return this.Instance; } } } } Now my problem is that the method implemented in the autogenerated class gives the following error: - Property 'Instance' cannot implement property from interface 'PartialProject.objects.Interface'. Type should be 'PartialProjects.objects.Interface'. <- Any idea how this error can be resolved? Keep in mind that I can't edit anything in the autogenerated code. Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Unregistering COM dll with a C# Setup Project

    - by lb
    Hi All. I've been stuck on this one for a while. I'll try explain in the simplest terms and at the best of my knowledge. I will honour any help. I've got a C# project which uses a VB6 compiled ActiveX DLL that I'm constantly updating. I compile the setup project, send it to the client and they run the setup. When building the updated setup project, I would increase the 'Version' of the setup project so it wouldn't bother with 'Another version is already installed'. What started happening after a few updates I began to notice the DLL would not be updated to the new version in the installer. The client computer had the original DLL both installed and registered. First symptom: method not found exceptions from the client C# code. This is not a shared DLL and only this application needs it. I've noticed that when uninstalling the application (through the usual procedure) the DLL is also not removed from the application folder although I would set this file's property 'Permanent' to false. The registration entries in the registry are mantained also. I do update in VS6.0 the version of the DLL (usually increase the build number) before building it. Then in VS2008, I remove it from the References, and add it again from the 'Browse tab', without re-registering it on my dev machine and adding it from the COM tab. I've thought of these options. Custom step in Setup project to regsvr32.exe /u 'hardcoded path of my dll' at uninstall (ugly) Somehow find out how the 'Isolate' property can work for me without registering Find out how to execute setup project 'Conditions' that would actually check the version of the library and to update the file accordingly at every install) Any help would be incredibly welcome.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 277 278 279 280 281 282 283 284 285 286 287 288  | Next Page >