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  • Equivalent to window.setTimeout() for C++

    - by bobobobo
    In javascript there's this sweet, sweet function window.setTimeout( func, 1000 ) ; which will asynchronously invoke func after 1000 ms. I want to do something similar in C++ (without multithreading), so I put together a sample loop like: #include <stdio.h> struct Callback { // The _time_ this function will be executed. double execTime ; // The function to execute after execTime has passed void* func ; } ; // Sample function to execute void go() { puts( "GO" ) ; } // Global program-wide sense of time double time ; int main() { // start the timer time = 0 ; // Make a sample callback Callback c1 ; c1.execTime = 10000 ; c1.func = go ; while( 1 ) { // its time to execute it if( time c1.execTime ) { c1.func ; // !! doesn't work! } time++; } } How can I make something like this work?

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2.0 + Implementation of a IRouteHandler goes not fire

    - by Peter
    Can anybody please help me with this as I have no idea why public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) is not executing. In my Global.asax.cs I have public class MvcApplication : System.Web.HttpApplication { public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); routes.Add("ImageRoutes", new Route("Images/{filename}", new CustomRouteHandler())); } protected void Application_Start() { RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } } //CustomRouteHandler implementation is below public class CustomRouteHandler : IRouteHandler { public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) { // IF I SET A BREAK POINT HERE IT DOES NOT HIT FOR SOME REASON. string filename = requestContext.RouteData.Values["filename"] as string; if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(filename)) { // return a 404 HttpHandler here } else { requestContext.HttpContext.Response.Clear(); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.ContentType = GetContentType(requestContext.HttpContext.Request.Url.ToString()); // find physical path to image here. string filepath = requestContext.HttpContext.Server.MapPath("~/logo.jpg"); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.WriteFile(filepath); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.End(); } return null; } } Can any body tell me what I'm missing here. Simply public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) does not fire. I havn't change anything in the web.config either. What I'm missing here? Please help.

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  • Macports and virtualenv site-packages Fallback

    - by Streeter
    I've installed django and python as this link suggested with macports. However, I'd like to use virtualenv to install more packages. My understanding is that if I do not pass in the --no-site-packages to virtualenv, I should get the currently installed packages in addition to whatever packages I install into the virtual environment. Is this correct? As an example, I've installed django through macports and then create a virtual environment, but I cannot import django from within that virtual environment: [streeter@mordecai]:~$ mkvirtualenv django-test New python executable in django-test/bin/python Installing setuptools............done. ... (django-test)[streeter@mordecai]:~$ pip install django-debug-toolbar Downloading/unpacking django-debug-toolbar Downloading django-debug-toolbar-0.8.4.tar.gz (80Kb): 80Kb downloaded Running setup.py egg_info for package django-debug-toolbar Installing collected packages: django-debug-toolbar Running setup.py install for django-debug-toolbar Successfully installed django-debug-toolbar Cleaning up... (django-test)[streeter@mordecai]:~$ python Python 2.6.1 (r261:67515, Jun 24 2010, 21:47:49) [GCC 4.2.1 (Apple Inc. build 5646)] on darwin Type "help", "copyright", "credits" or "license" for more information. >>> import django Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> ImportError: No module named django >>> So I can install packages into the virtual environment, but it isn't picking up the global site-packages. Or am I not doing something correctly / missing something / misunderstanding how virtualenv works? I've got Mac OS 10.6 (Snow Leopard), have updated my macports packages and am using macports' python26 (via python_select python26).

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  • How can a SVN::Error callback identify the context from which it was called

    - by Colin Fine
    I've written some fairly extensive Perl modules and scripts using the Perl bindings SVN::Client etc. Since the calls to SVN::Client are all deep in a module, I have overridden the default error handling. So far I have done so by setting $SVN::Error::handler = undef as described in [1], but this makes the individual calls a bit messy because you have to remember to make each call to SVN::Client in list context and test the first value for errors. I would like to switch to using an error handler I would write; but $SVN::Error::handler is global, so I can't see any way that my callback can determine where the error came from, and what object to set an error code in. I wondered if I could use a pool for this purpose: so far I have ignored pools as irrelevant to working in Perl, but if I call a SVN::Client method with a pool I have created, will any SVN::Error object be created in the same pool? Has anybody any knowledge or experience which bears on this? [1]: http://search.cpan.org/~mschwern/Alien-SVN-1.4.6.0/src/subversion/subversion/bindings/swig/perl/native/Core.pm#svn_error_t_-_SVN::Error SVN::Core POD

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  • ASP.NEt MVC 2 application error on IIS7 works fine on local machine

    - by aspCoolguy
    My ASP.NET MVC2 application is developed using 1. VS 2010 2. Linq To SQL for Models Here is Call controller code: namespace CallTrackMVC.Controllers { public class CallController : Controller { private CallTrackRepository repository; public CallController():this(new CallTrackRepository()) { } public CallController(CallTrackRepository newRepository) { repository = newRepository; } } } Error on IIS7 when browsing the Call Create page is NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object.] CallTrackMVC.Models.ExecOfficeDataContext..ctor() in C:\ClearCase\rartadi_view\STS_Dev_TEST\CallTrackMVC\Models\ExecOffice.designer.cs:71 CallTrackMVC.Controllers.CallController..ctor() in C:\ClearCase\rartadi_view\STS_Dev_TEST\CallTrackMVC\Controllers\CallController.cs:16 [TargetInvocationException: Exception has been thrown by the target of an invocation.] System.RuntimeTypeHandle.CreateInstance(RuntimeType type, Boolean publicOnly, Boolean noCheck, Boolean& canBeCached, RuntimeMethodHandleInternal& ctor, Boolean& bNeedSecurityCheck) +0 System.RuntimeType.CreateInstanceSlow(Boolean publicOnly, Boolean skipCheckThis, Boolean fillCache) +117 System.RuntimeType.CreateInstanceDefaultCtor(Boolean publicOnly, Boolean skipVisibilityChecks, Boolean skipCheckThis, Boolean fillCache) +247 System.Activator.CreateInstance(Type type, Boolean nonPublic) +106 System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerFactory.GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) +102 [InvalidOperationException: **An error occurred when trying to create a controller of type 'CallTrackMVC.Controllers.CallController'. Make sure that the controller has a parameterless public constructor.**] System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerFactory.GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) +541 System.Web.Mvc.DefaultControllerFactory.CreateController(RequestContext requestContext, String controllerName) +85 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.ProcessRequestInit(HttpContextBase httpContext, IController& controller, IControllerFactory& factory) +165 System.Web.Mvc.MvcHandler.BeginProcessRequest(HttpContextBase httpContext, AsyncCallback callback, Object state) +80 System.Web.CallHandlerExecutionStep.System.Web.HttpApplication.IExecutionStep.Execute() +389 System.Web.HttpApplication.ExecuteStep(IExecutionStep step, Boolean& completedSynchronously) +371 Code in Global.asax is protected void Application_Start() { AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } Any suggestion would be a great help.

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  • Opening a xul file in response to a toolbar extension button click

    - by Graham
    I'm currently building my first Firefox extension, and am having a little difficulty with one piece of functionality. I'd like to open a new browser tab in response to a button click on the toolbar. The new tab should contain the contents of a webpage, together with some extra buttons. At the moment I've created a separate xul file for the contents of the new tab: <?xml version="1.0"?> <?xml-stylesheet href="chrome://global/skin/" type="text/css"?> <window id="myapp-report-window" title="Example 4.5.1" xmlns:html="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xmlns="http://www.mozilla.org/keymaster/gatekeeper/there.is.only.xul"> <script type="application/x-javascript" src="chrome://myapp/content/main.js" /> <toolbox> <toolbar id="nav-toolbar"> <toolbarbutton label="This-is-going-to-do-some-stuff"/> </toolbar> </toolbox> <iframe id="myapp-report-frame" flex="1"/> <script type="text/javascript"> function loadPage(url){ document.getElementById('myapp-report-frame').setAttribute('src',url); } </script> </window> This xul file is launched via this javascript, referenced from the main myapptoolbar.xul: gBrowser.selectedTab = gBrowser.addTab('chrome://myapp/content/report.xul'); var newTabBrowser = gBrowser.getBrowserForTab(gBrowser.selectedTab); newTabBrowser.addEventListener("load", function(){ loadPage('http://www.somedynamicallysetwebsite.com'); }, true); The problem that I'm having is that the loadPage function is not being found, so the src attribute of the iframe is never set. I'm sure it's some silly scoping problem, but I'm very new to firefox extensions (day 2!) so any help would be much appreciated. Thanks for looking! Graham

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  • Create new or update existing entity at one go with JPA

    - by Alex R
    A have a JPA entity that has timestamp field and is distinguished by a complex identifier field. What I need is to update timestamp in an entity that has already been stored, otherwise create and store new entity with the current timestamp. As it turns out the task is not as simple as it seems from the first sight. The problem is that in concurrent environment I get nasty "Unique index or primary key violation" exception. Here's my code: // Load existing entity, if any. Entity e = entityManager.find(Entity.class, id); if (e == null) { // Could not find entity with the specified id in the database, so create new one. e = entityManager.merge(new Entity(id)); } // Set current time... e.setTimestamp(new Date()); // ...and finally save entity. entityManager.flush(); Please note that in this example entity identifier is not generated on insert, it is known in advance. When two or more of threads run this block of code in parallel, they may simultaneously get null from entityManager.find(Entity.class, id) method call, so they will attempt to save two or more entities at the same time, with the same identifier resulting in error. I think that there are few solutions to the problem. Sure I could synchronize this code block with a global lock to prevent concurrent access to the database, but would it be the most efficient way? Some databases support very handy MERGE statement that updates existing or creates new row if none exists. But I doubt that OpenJPA (JPA implementation of my choice) supports it. Event if JPA does not support SQL MERGE, I can always fall back to plain old JDBC and do whatever I want with the database. But I don't want to leave comfortable API and mess with hairy JDBC+SQL combination. There is a magic trick to fix it using standard JPA API only, but I don't know it yet. Please help.

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  • How should I pass the translated text to my object in my multilingual application?

    - by boatingcow
    Up until now, I have maintained a 'dictionary' table in my database, for example: +-----------+---------------------------------------+-----------------------------------------------+--------+ | phrase | en | fr | etc... | +-----------+---------------------------------------+-----------------------------------------------+--------+ | generated | Generated in %1$01.2f seconds at %2$s | Créée en %1$01.2f secondes à %2$s aujourd'hui | ... | | submit | Submit... | Envoyer... | ... | +-----------+---------------------------------------+-----------------------------------------------+--------+ I'll then select all rows from the database for the column that matches the locale we're interested in (or read the cache from a file to speed db lookup) and dump the dictionary into an array called $lng. Then I'll have HTML helper objects like this in my view: $html->input(array('type' => 'submit', 'value' => $lng['submit'], etc...)); ... $html->div(array('value' => sprintf($lng['generated'], $generated, date('H:i')), etc...)); The translations can appear in PDF, XLS and AJAX responses too. The problem with my approach so far is that I now have loads of global $lng; in every class where there is a function that spits out UI code.. How do other people get the translation into the object? Is it one scenario where globals aren't actually that bad? Would it be madness to create a class with accessors when the dictionary terms are all static?

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  • temporary tables within stored procedures on slave servers with readonly set

    - by lau
    Hi, We have set up a replication scheme master/slave and we've had problems lately because some users wrote directly on the slave instead of the master, making the whole setup inconsistent. To prevent these problems from happening again, we've decided to remove the insert, delete, update, etc... rights from the users accessing the slave. Problems is that some stored procedure (for reading) require temporary tables. I read that changing the global variable read_only to true would do what I want and allow the stored procedures to work correctly ( http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.0/en/server-system-variables.html#sysvar_read_only ) but I keep getting the error : The MySQL server is running with the --read-only option so it cannot execute this statement (1290) The stored procedure that I used (for testing purpose) is this one : DELIMITER $$ DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS test_readonly $$ CREATE DEFINER=dbuser@% PROCEDURE test_readonly() BEGIN CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE IF NOT EXISTS temp ( BT_INDEX int(11), BT_DESC VARCHAR(10) ); INSERT INTO temp (BT_INDEX, BT_DESC) VALUES (222,'walou'), (111,'bidouille'); DROP TABLE temp; END $$ DELIMITER ; The create temporary table and the drop table work fine with the readonly flag - if I comment the INSERT line, it runs fine- but whenever I want to insert or delete from that temporary table, I get the error message. I use Mysql 5.1.29-rc. My default storage engine is InnoDB. Thanks in advance, this problem is really driving me crazy.

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  • Execute a function to affect different template class instances

    - by Samer Afach
    I have a complicated problem, and I need help. I have a base case, class ParamBase { string paramValue; //... } and a bunch of class templates with different template parameters. template <typename T> class Param : public ParamBase { T value; //... } Now, each instance of Param has different template parameter, double, int, string... etc. To make it easier, I have a vector to their base class pointers that contains all the instances that have been created: vector<ParamBase*> allParamsObjects; The question is: How can I run a single function (global or member or anything, your choice), that converts all of those different instances' strings paramValue with different templates arguments and save the conversion result to the appropriate type in Param::value. This has to be run over all objects that are saved in the vector allParamsObjects. So if the template argument of the first Param is double, paramValue has to be converted to double and saved in value; and if the second Param's argument is int, then the paramValue of the second has to be converted to int and saved in value... etc. I feel it's almost impossible... Any help would be highly appreciated :-)

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  • PHP -- automatic SQL injection protection?

    - by ashgromnies
    I took over maintenance of a PHP app recently and I'm not super familiar with PHP but some of the things I've been seeing on the site are making me nervous that it could be vulnerable to a SQL injection attack. For example, see how this code for logging into the administrative section works: $password = md5(HASH_SALT . $_POST['loginPass']); $query = "SELECT * FROM `administrators` WHERE `active`='1' AND `email`='{$_POST['loginEmail']}' AND `password`='{$password}'"; $userInfo = db_fetch_array(db_query($query)); if($userInfo['id']) { $_SESSION['adminLoggedIn'] = true; // user is logged in, other junk happens here, not important The creators of the site made a special db_query method and db_fetch_array method, shown here: function db_query($qstring,$print=0) { return @mysql(DB_NAME,$qstring); } function db_fetch_array($qhandle) { return @mysql_fetch_array($qhandle); } Now, this makes me think I should be able to do some sort of SQL injection attack with an email address like: ' OR 'x'='x' LIMIT 1; and some random password. When I use that on the command line, I get an administrative user back, but when I try it in the application, I get an invalid username/password error, like I should. Could there be some sort of global PHP configuration they have enabled to block these attacks? Where would that be configured? Here is the PHP --version information: # php --version PHP 5.2.12 (cli) (built: Feb 28 2010 15:59:21) Copyright (c) 1997-2009 The PHP Group Zend Engine v2.2.0, Copyright (c) 1998-2009 Zend Technologies with the ionCube PHP Loader v3.3.14, Copyright (c) 2002-2010, by ionCube Ltd., and with Zend Optimizer v3.3.9, Copyright (c) 1998-2009, by Zend Technologies

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  • ASP.NET web form Routing issue via UNC Path

    - by Slash
    I create a IIS 7.0 website via UNC path to load .aspx to dynamic compile files and runs. however, it's running perfect. I always use IIS URL Rewrite module 2 to rewrite my site URL n' its perfect, too. Today, I wanna use System.Web.Routing to implement url rewrite but I encountered difficulties... When I wrote code in Global.asax: System.Web.Routing.RouteTable.Routes.MapPageRoute("TEST", "AAA/{prop}", "~/BBB/CCC.aspx"); And it just CANNOT reDirect to /BBB/CCC.aspx When I type the URL(like: xx.xx.xx.xx/BBB/CCC.aspx) in browser directly, it runs normally that I want. (so it proof CCC.aspx is in right path.) thus, I copy all of the code and open VS2010 running with IIS 7.5 Express locally, it works perfect! e.g: in browser URL I type xx.xx.xx.xx/AAA/1234, it will turn to page xx.xx.xx.xx/BBB/CCC.aspx (Works perfect!) Why??? help me plz. thanks. Update: I think I should consider not UNC path to make it error! when I move all code to physical disk and setup IIS 7.0 to monitor this Folder, it still not works! But the same code run in VS2010 + IIS 7.5 Express it works!? so strange!

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  • What is happening in Crockford's object creation technique?

    - by Chris Noe
    There are only 3 lines of code, and yet I'm having trouble fully grasping this: Object.create = function (o) { function F() {} F.prototype = o; return new F(); }; newObject = Object.create(oldObject); (from Prototypal Inheritance) 1) Object.create() starts out by creating an empty function called F. I'm thinking that a function is a kind of object. Where is this F object being stored? Globally I guess. 2) Next our oldObject, passed in as o, becomes the prototype of function F. Function (i.e., object) F now "inherits" from our oldObject, in the sense that name resolution will route through it. Good, but I'm curious what the default prototype is for an object, Object? Is that also true for a function-object? 3) Finally, F is instantiated and returned, becoming our newObject. Is the "new" operation strictly necessary here? Doesn't F already provide what we need, or is there a critical difference between function-objects and non-function-objects? Clearly it won't be possible to have a constructor function using this technique. What happens the next time Object.create() is called? Is global function F overwritten? Surely it is not reused, because that would alter previously configured objects. And what happens if multiple threads call Object.create(), is there any sort of synchronization to prevent race conditions on F?

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  • Providing custom database functionality to custom asp.net membership provider

    - by IrfanRaza
    Hello friends, I am creating custom membership provider for my asp.net application. I have also created a separate class "DBConnect" that provides database functionality such as Executing SQL statement, Executing SPs, Executing SPs or Query and returning SqlDataReader and so on... I have created instance of DBConnect class within Session_Start of Global.asax and stored to a session. Later using a static class I am providing the database functionality throughout the application using the same single session. In short I am providing a single point for all database operations from any asp.net page. I know that i can write my own code to connect/disconnect database and execute SPs within from the methods i need to override. Please look at the code below - public class SGI_MembershipProvider : MembershipProvider { ...... public override bool ChangePassword(string username, string oldPassword, string newPassword) { if (!ValidateUser(username, oldPassword)) return false; ValidatePasswordEventArgs args = new ValidatePasswordEventArgs(username, newPassword, true); OnValidatingPassword(args); if (args.Cancel) { if (args.FailureInformation != null) { throw args.FailureInformation; } else { throw new Exception("Change password canceled due to new password validation failure."); } } ..... //Database connectivity and code execution to change password. } .... } MY PROBLEM - Now what i need is to execute the database part within all these overriden methods from the same database point as described on the top. That is i have to pass the instance of DBConnect existing in the session to this class, so that i can access the methods. Could anyone provide solution on this. There might be some better techniques i am not aware of that. The approach i am using might be wrong. Your suggessions are always welcome. Thanks for sharing your valuable time.

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  • How can I keep an event from being delivered to the GUI until my code finished running?

    - by Frerich Raabe
    I installed a global mouse hook function like this: mouseEventHook = ::SetWindowsHookEx( WH_MOUSE_LL, mouseEventHookFn, thisModule, 0 ); The hook function looks like this: RESULT CALLBACK mouseEventHookFn( int code, WPARAM wParam, LPARAM lParam ) { if ( code == HC_ACTION ) { PMSLLHOOKSTRUCT mi = (PMSLLHOOKSTRUCT)lParam; // .. do interesting stuff .. } return ::CallNextHookEx( mouseEventHook, code, wParam, lParam ); } Now, my problem is that I cannot control how long the 'do interesting stuff' part takes exactly. In particular, it might take longer than the LowLevelHooksTimeout defined in the Windows registry. This means that, at least on Windows XP, the system no longer delivers mouse events to my hook function. I'd like to avoid this, but at the same time I need the 'do interesting stuff' part to happen before the target GUI receives the event. I attempted to solve this by doing the 'interesting stuff' work in a separate thread so that the mouseEventHookFn above can post a message to the worker thread and then do a return 1; immediately (which ends the hook function but avoids that the event is handed to the GUI). The idea was that the worker thread, when finished, performs the CallNextHookEx call itself. However, this causes a crash inside of CallNextHookEx (in fact, the crash occurs inside an internal function called PhkNextValid. I assume it's not safe to call CallNextHookEx from outside a hook function, is this true? If so, does anybody else know how I can run code (which needs to interact with the GUI thread of an application) before the GUI receives the event and avoid that my hook function blocks too long?

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  • Flex profiling - what is [enterFrameEvent] doing?

    - by Herms
    I've been tasked with finding (and potentially fixing) some serious performance problems with a Flex application that was delivered to us. The application will consistently take up 50 to 100% of the CPU at times when it is simply idling and shouldn't be doing anything. My first step was to run the profiler that comes with FlexBuilder. I expected to find some method that was taking up most of the time, showing me where the bottleneck was. However, I got something unexpected. The top 4 methods were: [enterFrameEvent] - 84% cumulative, 32% self time [reap] - 20% cumulative and self time [tincan] - 8% cumulative and self time global.isNaN - 4% cumulative and self time All other methods had less than 1% for both cumulative and self time. From what I've found online, the [bracketed methods] are what the profiler lists when it doesn't have an actual Flex method to show. I saw someone claim that [tincan] is the processing of RTMP requests, and I assume [reap] is the garbage collector. Does anyone know what [enterFrameEvent] is actually doing? I assume it's essentially the "main" function for the event loop, so the high cumulative time is expected. But why is the self time so high? What's actually going on? I didn't expect the player internals to be taking up so much time, especially since nothing is actually happening in the app (and there are no UI updates going on). Is there any good way to find dig into what's happening? I know something is going on that shouldn't be (it looks like there must be some kind of busy wait or other runaway loop), but the profiler isn't giving me any results that I was expecting. My next step is going to be to start adding debug trace statements in various places to try and track down what's actually happening, but I feel like there has to be a better way.

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  • How to encapsulate a WinAPI application into a C++ class

    - by Semen Semenych
    There is a simple WinAPI application. All it does currently is this: register a window class register a tray icon with a menu create a value in the registry in order to autostart and finally, it checks if it's unique using a mutex As I'm used to writing code mainly in C++, and no MFC is allowed, I'm forced to encapsulate this into C++ classes somehow. So far I've come up with such a design: there is a class that represents the application it keeps all the wndclass, hinstance, etc variables, where the hinstance is passed as a constructor parameter as well as the icmdshow and others (see WinMain prototype) it has functions for registering the window class, tray icon, reigstry information it encapsulates the message loop in a function In WinMain, the following is done: Application app(hInstance, szCmdLIne, iCmdShow); return app.exec(); and the constructor does the following: registerClass(); registerTray(); registerAutostart(); So far so good. Now the question is : how do I create the window procedure (must be static, as it's a c-style pointer to a function) AND keep track of what the application object is, that is, keep a pointer to an Application around. The main question is : is this how it's usually done? Am I complicating things too much? Is it fine to pass hInstance as a parameter to the Application constructor? And where's the WndProc? Maybe WndProc should be outside of class and the Application pointer be global? Then WndProc invokes Application methods in response to various events.

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  • Can't process UIImage from UIImagePickerController and app crashes..

    - by eimaikala
    Hello guys, I am new to iPhone sdk and can't figure out why my application crashes. In the .h I have: UIImage *myimage; //so as it can be used as global -(IBAction) save; @property (nonatomic, retain) UIImage *myimage; In the .m I have: @synthesize myimage; - (void)viewDidLoad { self.imgPicker = [[UIImagePickerController alloc] init]; self.imgPicker.allowsImageEditing = YES; self.imgPicker.delegate = self; self.imgPicker.sourceType = UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypePhotoLibrary; } -(void)imagePickerController:(UIImagePickerController *)picker didFinishPickingMediaWithInfo:(NSDictionary *)info { myimage = [[info objectForKey:UIImagePickerControllerOriginalImage]retain]; [picker dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; } -(IBAction) process{ myimage=[self process:myimage var2:Val2 var3:Val3 var4:Val4]; UIImageWriteToSavedPhotosAlbum(myimage, nil, nil, nil); [myimage release]; } When the button process is clicked, the application crashes and really I have no idea why this happens. When i change it to: -(IBAction) process{ myimage =[UIImage imageNamed:@"im1.jpg"]; myimage=[self process:myimage var2:Val2 var3:Val3 var4:Val4]; UIImageWriteToSavedPhotosAlbum(myimage, nil, nil, nil); [myimage release]; } the process button works perfectly... Any help would be appreciated. Thanks in advance

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  • Assembly-wide / root-level styles in WPF class library

    - by WarpedBoard
    I have a C# (2008/.NET 3.5) class library assembly that supports WPF (based on http://dotupdate.wordpress.com/2007/12/05/how-to-add-a-wpf-control-library-template-to-visual-c-express-2008/). I've created several windows, and am now attempting to create a common style set for them. However, as it's a class library (instead of a WPF app), I don't have an app.xaml (and its contained Application & corresponding Application.Resources) in which to store these styles for global access. So: How can I create a top-level set of style definitions that'll be seen by all xaml files in the assembly, given that I do not have app.xaml (see above)? And/or is it possible to add a working app.xaml to a class library? FYI, I did try creating a ResourceDictionary in a ResourceDictionary.xaml file, and include it in each window within a "Window.Resources" block. That turned out to solve the styling of Buttons, etc... but not for the enclosing Window. I can put 'Style="{StaticResource MyWindowStyle}"' in the Window's opening block, and it compiles and shows up in the VS Design window fine, but during actual runtime I get a parse exception (MyWindowStyle could not be found; I'm guessing Visual Studio sees the dictionary included after the line in question, but the CRL does things more sequentially and therefore hasn't loaded the ResourceDictionary yet).

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  • Outgoing Emails (Git Patches) Blocked by Windows Live

    - by SteveStifler
    Just recently I dove into the VideoLAN open source project. This was my first time using git, and when sending in my first patch (using git send-email --to [email protected] patches), I was sent the following message from my computer's local mail in the terminal (I'm on OSX 10.6 by the way): Mail rejected by Windows Live Hotmail for policy reasons. We generally do not accept email from dynamic IP's as they are not typically used to deliver unauthenticated SMTP e-mail to an Internet mail server. http:/www.spamhaus.org maintains lists of dynamic and residential IP addresses. If you are not an email/network admin please contact your E-mail/Internet Service Provider for help. Email/network admins, please visit http://postmaster.live.com for email delivery information and support They must think I'm a spammer. I have a dynamic IP and my ISP (Charter) won't let me get a static one, so I tried editing git preferences: git config --global user.email "[email protected]" to my gmail account. However I got the exact same message again. My guess is that it has something to do with the native mail's preferences, but I have no idea how to access them or modify them. Anybody have any ideas for solving this? Thanks!

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  • "requiresuniqueemail=true" implementation in asp.net site

    - by domineer
    Hi people I got a social networking site that is running live right now.The first time I launched my site I let requiresuniqueemail=false set-up on my web.config inorder for me to create dummy accounts for testing purposes and to start up the site you know.However the site is kind of stable right now w/ almost 5k members.So I would like to set-up the requiresuniqueemail to true so that users cannot reuse their existing email address and for me to make it sure that there will be unique email ad for each site user.I know the site got like 100 users with the same email address.My question is what could be the problem I'm going to face if I do this right now(requiresuniqueemail="true") and how to do this efficiently(without errors and if possible sitewide say in the global assax)?I tested and I already got an error if I logout an account.Like say a user try to click log-out this code runs: Dim d As DateTime = DateTime.Now.AddMinutes(-1 * Membership.UserIsOnlineTimeWindow) Dim theuser As MembershipUser = Membership.GetUser() theuser.LastActivityDate = d Membership.UpdateUser(theuser) If Not Cache(Page.User.Identity.Name.ToLower() + "currentstatus") Is Nothing Then Cache.Remove(Page.User.Identity.Name.ToLower() + "currentstatus") End If Then an exception occured on updateuser() function saying System.Configuration.Provider.ProviderException: The E-mail supplied is invalid. This is just one instance I know that I encountered a problem. Hoping to hear your ideas guys.....

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  • Looking for a Regex to get SccTeamFoundationServer value from .sln file

    - by Arthur
    I am looking tor a Regex for C# to get SccTeamFoundationServer value from .sln file. Maybe someone has come across such need and found a solution. Could you help? File: Microsoft Visual Studio Solution File, Format Version 10.00 # Visual Studio 2008 Project("{FAE04EC0-301F-11D3-BF4B-00C04F79EFBC}") = "WebApplication", "WebApplication\WebApplication.csproj", "{AE0F6C02-1C8D-426D-AFA0-C07A52E6112F}" EndProject Project("{FAE04EC0-301F-11D3-BF4B-00C04F79EFBC}") = "ConsoleApplication", "ConsoleApplication\ConsoleApplication.csproj", "{2BD82C34-CF50-4559-A3CD-F85ACD657292}" EndProject Global GlobalSection(TeamFoundationVersionControl) = preSolution SccNumberOfProjects = 3 SccEnterpriseProvider = {4CA58AB2-18FA-4F8D-95D4-32DDF27D184C} SccTeamFoundationServer = http://ServerName:8080/ SccLocalPath0 = . SccProjectUniqueName1 = ConsoleApplication\\ConsoleApplication.csproj SccProjectName1 = ConsoleApplication SccLocalPath1 = ConsoleApplication SccProjectUniqueName2 = WebApplication\\WebApplication.csproj SccProjectName2 = WebApplication SccLocalPath2 = WebApplication EndGlobalSection GlobalSection(SolutionConfigurationPlatforms) = preSolution Debug|Any CPU = Debug|Any CPU Release|Any CPU = Release|Any CPU EndGlobalSection GlobalSection(ProjectConfigurationPlatforms) = postSolution {AE0F6C02-1C8D-426D-AFA0-C07A52E6112F}.Debug|Any CPU.ActiveCfg = Debug|Any CPU {AE0F6C02-1C8D-426D-AFA0-C07A52E6112F}.Debug|Any CPU.Build.0 = Debug|Any CPU {AE0F6C02-1C8D-426D-AFA0-C07A52E6112F}.Release|Any CPU.ActiveCfg = Release|Any CPU {AE0F6C02-1C8D-426D-AFA0-C07A52E6112F}.Release|Any CPU.Build.0 = Release|Any CPU {2BD82C34-CF50-4559-A3CD-F85ACD657292}.Debug|Any CPU.ActiveCfg = Debug|Any CPU {2BD82C34-CF50-4559-A3CD-F85ACD657292}.Debug|Any CPU.Build.0 = Debug|Any CPU {2BD82C34-CF50-4559-A3CD-F85ACD657292}.Release|Any CPU.ActiveCfg = Release|Any CPU {2BD82C34-CF50-4559-A3CD-F85ACD657292}.Release|Any CPU.Build.0 = Release|Any CPU EndGlobalSection GlobalSection(SolutionProperties) = preSolution HideSolutionNode = FALSE EndGlobalSection EndGlobal

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  • Problem with circular definition in Scheme

    - by user8472
    I am currently working through SICP using Guile as my primary language for the exercises. I have found a strange behavior while implementing the exercises in chapter 3.5. I have reproduced this behavior using Guile 1.4, Guile 1.8.6 and Guile 1.8.7 on a variety of platforms and am certain it is not specific to my setup. This code works fine (and computes e): (define y (integral (delay dy) 1 0.001)) (define dy (stream-map (lambda (x) x) y)) (stream-ref y 1000) The following code should give an identical result: (define (solve f y0 dt) (define y (integral (delay dy) y0 dt)) (define dy (stream-map f y)) y) (solve (lambda (x) x) 1 0.001) But it yields the error message: standard input:7:14: While evaluating arguments to stream-map in expression (stream-map f y): standard input:7:14: Unbound variable: y ABORT: (unbound-variable) So when embedded in a procedure definition, the (define y ...) does not work, whereas outside the procedure in the global environment at the REPL it works fine. What am I doing wrong here? I can post the auxiliary code (i.e., the definitions of integral, stream-map etc.) if necessary, too. With the exception of the system-dependent code for cons-stream, they are all in the book. My own implementation of cons-stream for Guile is as follows: (define-macro (cons-stream a b) `(cons ,a (delay ,b)))

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  • SFINAE + sizeof = detect if expression compiles

    - by FredOverflow
    I just found out how to check if operator<< is provided for a type. template<class T> T& lvalue_of_type(); template<class T> T rvalue_of_type(); template<class T> struct is_printable { template<class U> static char test(char(*)[sizeof( lvalue_of_type<std::ostream>() << rvalue_of_type<U>() )]); template<class U> static long test(...); enum { value = 1 == sizeof test<T>(0) }; typedef boost::integral_constant<bool, value> type; }; Is this trick well-known, or have I just won the metaprogramming Nobel prize? ;) EDIT: I made the code simpler to understand and easier to adapt with two global function template declarations lvalue_of_type and rvalue_of_type.

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  • template files evaluation in python

    - by saminny
    I am trying to use python for translating a set of templates to a set of configuration files based on values taken from a main configuration file. However, I am having certain issues. Consider the following example of a template file. file1.cfg.template %(CLIENT1)s %(HOST1)s %(PORT1)d C %(COMPID1)s %(CLIENT2)s %(HOST2)s %(PORT2)d C %(COMPID2)s This file contains an entry for each client. There are hundreds of config files like this and I don't want to have logic for each type of config file. Python should do the replacements and generate config files automatically given a set of global values read from a main xml config file. However, in the above example, if CLIENT2 does not exist, how do I delete that line? I expect Python would generate the config file using something like this: os.open("file1.cfg.template").read() % myhash where myhash is hash of configuration parameters from the main config file which may not contain CLIENT2 at all. In the case it does not contain CLIENT2, I want that line to disappear from the file. Is it possible to insert some 'IF' block in the file and have python evaluate it? Thanks for your help. Any suggestions most welcome.

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