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  • bmp image header doubts

    - by vikramtheone
    Hi Guys, I'm doing a project where I have to make use of the pixel information of a bmp image. So, I'm gathering the image information by reading the header information of the input .bmp image. I'm quite successful with everything but one thing bothers me, can any one here clarify it? The header information of my .bmp image is as follows (My test image is very tiny and gray scale)- BMP File header File size 1210 Offset information 1078 BMP Information header Image Header Size 40 Image Size 132 Image width 9 Image height 11 Image bits_p_p 8 So, from the .bmp header I see that the image size is 132 (bytes) but when I multiply the width and height it is only 99, how is such a thing possible? I'm confident with 132 bytes because when I subtract the Offset value with the File Size value, I get 132(1210 - 1078 = 132) and also when I manually count the number of bytes (In a HEX editor) from the point 1078 or 436h (End of the offset field), there are exactly 132 bytes of pixel information. So, why is there a disparity between the size filed and the (width x height)? My future implementations are dependent on the image width and height information and not on Image size information. So, I have to understand thoroughly whats going on here. My understanding of the header should be clearly wrong... I guess!!! Help!!! Regards Vikram My bmp structures are a as follows - typedef struct bmpfile_magic { short magic; }BMP_MAGIC_NUMBER; typedef struct bmpfile_header { uint32_t filesz; uint16_t creator1; uint16_t creator2; uint32_t bmp_offset; }BMP_FILE_HEADER; typedef struct { uint32_t header_sz; uint32_t width; uint32_t height; uint16_t nplanes; uint16_t bitspp; uint32_t compress_type; uint32_t bmp_bytesz; uint32_t hres; uint32_t vres; uint32_t ncolors; uint32_t nimpcolors; } BMP_INFO_HEADER;

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  • Is READ UNCOMMITTED / NOLOCK safe in this situation?

    - by Ben Challenor
    I know that snapshot isolation would fix this problem, but I'm wondering if NOLOCK is safe in this specific case so that I can avoid the overhead. I have a table that looks something like this: drop table Data create table Data ( Id BIGINT NOT NULL, Date BIGINT NOT NULL, Value BIGINT, constraint Cx primary key (Date, Id) ) create nonclustered index Ix on Data (Id, Date) There are no updates to the table, ever. Deletes can occur but they should never contend with the SELECT because they affect the other, older end of the table. Inserts are regular and page splits to the (Id, Date) index are extremely common. I have a deadlock situation between a standard INSERT and a SELECT that looks like this: select top 1 Date, Value from Data where Id = @p0 order by Date desc because the INSERT acquires a lock on Cx (Date, Id; Value) and then Ix (Id, Date), but the SELECT acquires a lock on Ix (Id, Date) and then Cx (Date, Id; Value). This is because the SELECT first seeks on Ix and then joins to a seek on Cx. Swapping the clustered and non-clustered index would break this cycle, but it is not an acceptable solution because it would introduce cycles with other (more complex) SELECTs. If I add NOLOCK to the SELECT, can it go wrong in this case? Can it return: More than one row, even though I asked for TOP 1? No rows, even though one exists and has been committed? Worst of all, a row that doesn't satisfy the WHERE clause? I've done a lot of reading about this online, but the only reproductions of over- or under-count anomalies I've seen (one, two) involve a scan. This involves only seeks. Jeff Atwood has a post about using NOLOCK that generated a good discussion. I was particularly interested in a comment by Rick Townsend: Secondly, if you read dirty data, the risk you run is of reading the entirely wrong row. For example, if your select reads an index to find your row, then the update changes the location of the rows (e.g.: due to a page split or an update to the clustered index), when your select goes to read the actual data row, it's either no longer there, or a different row altogether! Is this possible with inserts only, and no updates? If so, then I guess even my seeks on an insert-only table could be dangerous. Update: I'm trying to figure out how snapshot isolation works. It seems to be row-based, where transactions read the table (with no shared lock!), find the row they are interested in, and then see if they need to get an old version of the row from the version store in tempdb. But in my case, no row will have more than one version, so the version store seems rather pointless. And if the row was found with no shared lock, how is it different to just using NOLOCK?

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  • What's the best way to return stuff from a PHP function, and simultaneously trigger a jQuery action?

    - by Jack Webb-Heller
    So the title is a tad ambiguous, but I'll try and give an example. Basically, I have an 'awards' system (similar to that of StackOverflow's badges) in my PHP/CodeIgniter site, and I want, as soon as an award is earned, a notification to appear to the user. Now I'm happy to have this appear on the next page load, but, ideally I'd like it to appear as soon as the award is transactioned since my site is mostly Ajax-powered and there may not be page reloads very often. The way the system works currently, is: 1) If the user does something to trigger the earning of an award, CodeIgniter does this: $params['user_id'] = $this->tank_auth->get_user_id(); $params['award_id'] = 1; // (I have a database table with different awards in) $this->awards->award($params); 2) My custom library, $this->awards, runs the award function: function award($params) { $sql = $this->ci->db->query("INSERT INTO users_awards (user_id, award_id) VALUES ('".$params['user_id']."','".$params['award_id']."') ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE duplicate=duplicate+1"); $awardinfo = $this->ci->db->query("SELECT * FROM awards WHERE id = ".$params['award_id']); // If it's the 'first time' the user has gotten the award (e.g. they've earnt it) if ($awardinfo->row('duplicate') == 0) { $params['title'] = $awardinfo->row('title'); $params['description'] = $awardinfo->row('description'); $params['iconpath'] = $awardinfo->row('iconpath'); $params['percentage'] = $awardinfo->row('percentage'); return $params; } } So, it awards the user (and if they've earnt it twice, updates a useless duplicate field by one), then checks if it's the first time they've earnt it (so it can alert them of the award). If so, it gets the variables (title of the award, the award description, the path to an icon to display for the award, and finally the percentage of users who have also got this award) and returns them as an array. So... that's that. Now I'd like to know, what's the best way to do this? Currently my Award-giving bit is called from a controller, but I guess if I want this to trigger via Ajax, then the code should be placed in a View file...? To sum it up: I need the returned award data to appear without a page refresh. What's the best way of doing this? (I'm already using jQuery on my page). Thanks very much everybody! Jack

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  • Array values disappear in PHP SoapClient call to Cisco phone system.

    - by Jamin
    I am attempting to consume a SOAP service provided by our Cisco phone system (documentation), to get the current status of a given set of phones. I have an array of phone names, which I'm trying to pass to the service, however, the values of the array are being eaten somewhere Array of items like so: $items = array( 0 => "SEP0004F2E57F8C", 1 => "SEP001111BF8758", 2 => "SEP001320BD485C" ); Attempting to call the method: $client = new SoapClient( "https://x.x.x.x/realtimeservice/services/RisPort?wsdl", array( "login" => "admin", "password"=> "xxxxx", "trace" => true ) ); $devices = $client->SelectCmDevice( "", array( "SelectBy" => "Name", "Status" => "Any", "SelectedItems" => $items ) ); When I debug the complete request I get the following: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <SOAP-ENV:Envelope mlns:SOAP-ENV="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:ns1="http://schemas.cisco.com/ast/soap/" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:SOAP-ENC="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/" SOAP-ENV:encodingStyle="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/"> <SOAP-ENV:Body> <ns1:SelectCmDevice> <StateInfo xsi:type="xsd:string"></StateInfo> <CmSelectionCriteria xsi:type="ns1:CmSelectionCriteria"> <MaxReturnedDevices xsi:nil="true"/> <Class xsi:nil="true"/> <Model xsi:nil="true"/> <Status xsi:type="xsd:string">Any</Status> <NodeName xsi:nil="true"/> <SelectBy xsi:type="xsd:string">Name</SelectBy> <SelectItems SOAP-ENC:arrayType="ns1:SelectItem[3]" xsi:type="ns1:SelectItems"> <item xsi:type="ns1:SelectItem"/> <item xsi:type="ns1:SelectItem"/> <item xsi:type="ns1:SelectItem"/> </SelectItems> </CmSelectionCriteria> </ns1:SelectCmDevice> </SOAP-ENV:Body> </SOAP-ENV:Envelope> The correct number of <Item elements were counted and inserted into the <SelectItems object, however, the actual item names themselves are gone. I would guess it needs to be <ItemSEP0004F2E57F8C</Item, etc., but I can't seem to figure out how to make it do that. Thank you in advance for any help!!!

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  • Parsing secure entries XML file with jquery

    - by user573131
    Apologies if this is elementary. I'm primarily a front end designer/dev. I have webform through a form service called wufoo. Wufoo generates a lovely XML (or json) file that can be grabed and parsed. I'm trying to grab the entries xml feed that is associated with the form and parse it via jquery to show who has entered. Im using the following code (which works with a local xml file). http://bostonwebsitemakeover.com/2/test <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.3.2/jquery.js"></script> <script> $(document).ready(function () { $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "people.xml", dataType: "xml", success: xmlParser }); }); function xmlParser(xml) { $('#load').fadeOut(); $(xml).find("Entry").each(function () { $(".main").append('<div class="entry">' + $(this).find("Field1").text() + ' ' + $(this).find("Field2").text() + ' http://twitter.com/' + $(this).find("Field17").text() + '</div>'); $(".entry").fadeIn(1000); }); } </script> My XML file contains the following: <?xml version="1.0"?> <Entries> <Entry> <EntryId>1</EntryId> <Field1>Meaghan</Field1> <Field2>Severson</Field2> <Field17/> </Entry> <Entry> <EntryId>2</EntryId> <Field1>Michael</Field1> <Field2>Flint</Field2> <Field17>michaelflint</Field17> </Entry> <Entry> <EntryId>3</EntryId> <Field1>Niki</Field1> <Field2>Brown</Field2> <Field17>nikibrown</Field17> </Entry> <Entry> <EntryId>4</EntryId> <Field1>Niki</Field1> <Field2>Brown</Field2> <Field17>nikibrown</Field17> </Entry> </Entries> I'm wondering how I would do this with the xml file hosted on the wufoo (which is https) So I guess Im asking how do I authenticate the feed via jquery? Or do i need to do this via json? Could someone explain how?

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  • How to combine designable components with dependency injection

    - by Wim Coenen
    When creating a designable .NET component, you are required to provide a default constructor. From the IComponent documentation: To be a component, a class must implement the IComponent interface and provide a basic constructor that requires no parameters or a single parameter of type IContainer. This makes it impossible to do dependency injection via constructor arguments. (Extra constructors could be provided, but the designer would ignore them.) Some alternatives we're considering: Service Locator Don't use dependency injection, instead use the service locator pattern to acquire dependencies. This seems to be what IComponent.Site.GetService is for. I guess we could create a reusable ISite implementation (ConfigurableServiceLocator?) which can be configured with the necessary dependencies. But how does this work in a designer context? Dependency Injection via properties Inject dependencies via properties. Provide default instances if they are necessary to show the component in a designer. Document which properties need to be injected. Inject dependencies with an Initialize method This is much like injection via properties but it keeps the list of dependencies that need to be injected in one place. This way the list of required dependencies is documented implicitly, and the compiler will assists you with errors when the list changes. Any idea what the best practice is here? How do you do it? edit: I have removed "(e.g. a WinForms UserControl)" since I intended the question to be about components in general. Components are all about inversion of control (see section 8.3.1 of the UMLv2 specification) so I don't think that "you shouldn't inject any services" is a good answer. edit 2: It took some playing with WPF and the MVVM pattern to finally "get" Mark's answer. I see now that visual controls are indeed a special case. As for using non-visual components on designer surfaces, I think the .NET component model is fundamentally incompatible with dependency injection. It appears to be designed around the service locator pattern instead. Maybe this will start to change with the infrastructure that was added in .NET 4.0 in the System.ComponentModel.Composition namespace.

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  • Hotfixing Code running inside Web Container with Groovy

    - by raoulsson
    I have a webapp running that has a bug. I know how to fix it in the sources. However I cannot redeploy the app as I would have to take it offline to do so. (At least not right now). I now want to fix the code "at runtime". Surgery on the living object, so to speak. The app is implemented in Java and is build on top of Seam. I have added a Groovy Console to the app previous to the last release. (A way to run arbitrary code at runtime) The normal way of adding behaviour to a class with Groovy would be similar to this: String.metaClass.foo= { x -> x * x } println "anything".foo(3) This code added the method foo to java.lang.String and prints 9. I can do the same thing with classes running inside my webapp container. New instances will thereafter show the same behaviour: com.my.package.SomeService.metaClass.foo= { x -> x * x } def someService = new com.my.package.SomeService() println someService.foo(3) Works as excpected. All good so far. My problem is now that the container, the web framework, Seam in this case, has already instantiated and cached the classes that I would like to manipulate (that is change their behaviour to reflect my bug fix). Ideally this code would work: com.my.package.SomeService.metaClass.foo= { x -> x * x } def x = org.jboss.seam.Component.getInstance(com.my.package.SomeService) println x.foo(3) However the instantiation of SomeService has already happened and there is no effect. Thus I need a way to make my changes "sticky". Has the groovy magic gone after my script has been run? Well, after logging out and in again, I can run this piece of code and get the expected result: def someService = new com.my.package.SomeService() println someService.foo(3) So the foo method is still around and it looks like my change has been permanent... So I guess the question that remains is how to force Seam to re-instantiate all its components and/or how to permanently make the change on all living instances...?

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  • Given a trace of packets, how would you group them into flows?

    - by zxcvbnm
    I've tried it these ways so far: 1) Make a hash with the source IP/port and destination IP/port as keys. Each position in the hash is a list of packets. The hash is then saved in a file, with each flow separated by some special characters/line. Problem: Not enough memory for large traces. 2) Make a hash with the same key as above, but only keep in memory the file handles. Each packet is then put into the hash[key] that points to the right file. Problems: Too many flows/files (~200k) and it might run out of memory as well. 3) Hash the source IP/port and destination IP/port, then put the info inside a file. The difference between 2 and 3 is that here the files are opened and closed for each operation, so I don't have to worry about running out of memory because I opened too many at the same time. Problems: WAY too slow, same number of files as 2 so also impractical. 4) Make a hash of the source IP/port pairs and then iterate over the whole trace for each flow. Take the packets that are part of that flow and place them into the output file. Problem: Suppose I have a 60 MB trace that has 200k flows. This way, I would process, say, a 60 MB file 200k times. Maybe removing the packets as I iterate would make it not so painful, but so far I'm not sure this would be a good solution. 5) Split them by IP source/destination and then create a single file for each one, separating the flows by special characters. Still too many files (+50k). Right now I'm using Ruby to do it, which might've been a bad idea, I guess. Currently I've filtered the traces with tshark so that they only have relevant info, so I can't really make them any smaller. I thought about loading everything in memory as described in 1) using C#/Java/C++, but I was wondering if there wouldn't be a better approach here, especially since I might also run out of memory later on even with a more efficient language if I have to use larger traces. In summary, the problem I'm facing is that I either have too many files or that I run out of memory. I've also tried searching for some tool to filter the info, but I don't think there is one. The ones I've found only return some statistics and wouldn't scan for every flow as I need.

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  • Good object/DB set-up for CMS-esque app for managing content and user permissions?

    - by sah302
    Hi all, so I am writing a big CMS-esque app to allow users to manage web content through web applications, I've got a pretty good db-driven user permission system going, but am having trouble coming up with a good way to handle content groups and pages, I've got a couple options and not sure which one to take. Furthermore, I am not sure how to handle static page updates that have no 'widgets' in them. My current set-up for permissions is this: Objects: User, UserGroup, UserUserGroup, UserGroupType Standard many to many relationship User -> UserUserGroup <- UserGroup each Usergroup has a UserGroupType, which could be anything from Title, Department, to PermissionGroup. PermissionGroup manages the permissions. Right now on a per page basis I check permissions based on their PermissionsGroups. So for a page which has CMS features for a news widget, I check for permission groups of "Site Admin" and "News Admin". Now the issue I am coming to is, the site has many different departments involved. No problem I think, I can just have a EntityContentGroup so any widget app can be used for any departments. So my HR department, each of their news items would be in the EntityContentGroup with the news item ID, and content group of "HR" or "HR News". But maybe this isn't the most efficient way to go about it? I don't want to put the content group simply as a NewsItemType because some news items could apply to multiple areas, so I want to be able to assign them to as many areas as I want. Likewise, all of my widget apps have this, so that's why I decided to choose EntityContentGroup and not just NewsItemContentGroup. I was also thinking well instead of doing a contentGroup do a Page object that says which page some entity should be on. It seems almost like the same thing, but would I want to use Page for something else? I was thinking Page would be used for static pages with no widgets, a simple Rich Text Editor can edit the content of that page and I save that item to a page?? And then instead of doing a page level check for UserGroup permissions, would it be better to associate a usergroup to a contentgroup, and then just depending on what contentGroup content on the page is displayed, determine the permissions through that relationship? Is that better? I am not sure at this point. I guess I am just getting a tad overwhelmed at this is the largest app in scope and size that I have ever written. What is the best approach for this based on my current user permission set-up?

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  • HTML wrapper div over embedded flash object cannot be "clickable" by jQuery

    - by Michael Mao
    Hi all: I've been trying to do as the client requested : redirect to campaign page then to destination page once a customer clicks on the top banner in swf format. You can check what's been done at :http://ausdcf.org If you are using Firefox, Chrome or Safari, I suspect you can reach the destination page. However, if you are using IE or Opera, I doubt it. I think to cause of such a weird problem is: The swf ojbects don't have a link to url, SO I have to hack the theme template file like this : <div id="header">'; /* * A quick and dirty way to put some swf into PHP, and rotate among them ... */ //available banners $banners = array( 'http://localhost/smf/flash/banner_fertalign_1.swf', 'http://localhost/smf/flash/banner_fertalign_2.swf', 'http://localhost/smf/flash/banner_fertalign_3.swf' ); //get random banner srand((double) microtime() * 1000000); $rand = rand(0,count($banners)-1); echo '<div id="top_banner_clickable">'; echo '<div id="top_banner_wrapper">'; echo '<object width="400" height="60">'; echo '<param name="wmode" value="transparent">'; echo '<embed wmode="transparent" src="'.$banners[$rand].'" '; echo 'width="400" height="60" type="application/x-shockwave-flash"'; echo 'pluginspage="http://www.macromedia.com/shockwave/download/index.cgi?P1_Prod_Version=ShockwaveFlash" />'; echo '</object>'; echo '</div>'; echo '</div>'; And the related jQuery code is like this: /* master.js */ $(document).ready(function() { $("#top_banner_clickable").click(function() { window.location ="http://ausdcf.org/campaign/"; }); }); I absolutely know nothing about Flash or embedded objects. I guess that's the cause of this problem. Plus, I don't know why it works with some browsers but not all... I even tried to add a z-index to the wrapper div in css like this: #top_banner_clickable { z-index : 100; } No this wouldn't do, either... Is there a way to go around this issue? Many thanks in advance.

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  • Android HelloGoogleMaps to OSMdroid (Open Street Maps)

    - by birgit
    I am trying to reproduce a working HelloGoogleMaps app in Open Street Maps - but I have trouble including the itemized overlay in OSMdroid. I have looked at several resources but I cannot figure out how to fix the error on OsmItemizedOverlay - I guess I am constructing OsmItemizedOverlay wrongly or have a mixup with OsmItemizedOverlay and ItemizedOverlay? But everything I tried to change just raised more errors... "Implicit super constructor ItemizedOverlay() is undefined. Must explicitly invoke another constructor" "Cannot make a static reference to the non-static method setMarker(Drawable) from the type OverlayItem" - I hope someone can help me getting the class definition straight? Thanks so much! package com.example.osmdroiddemomap; import java.util.ArrayList; import android.app.AlertDialog; import android.content.Context; import android.graphics.Point; import android.graphics.drawable.Drawable; import org.osmdroid.api.IMapView; import org.osmdroid.views.*; import org.osmdroid.views.overlay.*; import org.osmdroid.views.overlay.OverlayItem.HotspotPlace; public class OsmItemizedOverlay extends ItemizedOverlay<OverlayItem> { Context mContext; private ArrayList<OverlayItem> mOverlays = new ArrayList<OverlayItem>(); //ERRORS are raised by the following 3 lines: public OsmItemizedOverlay(Drawable defaultMarker, Context context) { OverlayItem.setMarker(defaultMarker); OverlayItem.setMarkerHotspot(HotspotPlace.CENTER); mContext = context; } public void addOverlay(OverlayItem overlay) { mOverlays.add(overlay); populate(); } @Override protected OverlayItem createItem(int i) { return mOverlays.get(i); } @Override public int size() { return mOverlays.size(); } protected boolean onTap(int index) { OverlayItem item = mOverlays.get(index); AlertDialog.Builder dialog = new AlertDialog.Builder(mContext); dialog.setTitle(item.getTitle()); dialog.setMessage(item.getSnippet()); dialog.show(); return true; } @Override public boolean onSnapToItem(int arg0, int arg1, Point arg2, IMapView arg3) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return false; } }

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  • rounded corners in Qooxdoo - problems with ImageMagic and PNG

    - by lomme47
    Hi, I want to create a button with rounded corners in Qooxdoo but I'm having some problems. I guess it's a problem with ImageMagick and not my Qooxdoo code, but I'll post it anyway. So in order to create rounded corners I'm following this guide Guide this is what my image.json contains: { "jobs" : { "common" : { "let" : { "RESPATH" : "source/resource/custom" }, "cache" : { "compile" : "../cache" } }, "image-clipping" : { "extend" : ["common"], "slice-images" : { "images" : { "${RESPATH}/image/source/groupBox.png" : { "prefix" : "../clipped/groupBox", "border-width" : 4 } } } }, "image-combine" : { "extend" : ["common"], "combine-images" : { "images" : { "${RESPATH}/image-combined/combined.png": { "prefix" : [ "${RESPATH}" ], "layout" : "vertical", "input" : [ { "prefix" : [ "${RESPATH}" ], "files" : [ "${RESPATH}/image/clipped/groupBox*.png" ] } ] } } } } } } Here's what happens when I run image-clipping and image-combine: C:\customgenerate.py -c image.json image-clipping INITIALIZING: CUSTOM Configuration: image.json Jobs: image-clipping Resolving config includes... Resolving jobs... Incorporating job defaults... Resolving macros... Resolving libs/manifests... EXECUTING: IMAGE-CLIPPING Initializing cache... Done C:\customgenerate.py -c image.json image-combine INITIALIZING: CUSTOM Configuration: image.json Jobs: image-combine Resolving config includes... Resolving jobs... Incorporating job defaults... Resolving macros... Resolving libs/manifests... EXECUTING: IMAGE-COMBINE Initializing cache... Combining images... Creating image C:\custom\source\resource\custom\image-combined\combined.png Magick: no decode delegate for this image format \docume~1\lomme\lokala~1\ tmpql73hk' @ error/constitute.c/ReadImage/532. Magick: missing an image filename C:\custom\source\resource\custom\image-combined\combined.png' @ error/montage.c/MontageImageCommand/1707. The montage command (montage -geometry +0+0 -gravity NorthWest -tile 1x -background None @c:\docume~1\lomme\lokala~1\temp\tmpql73hk C:\custom\source\resources\custom\image-combined\combined.png) failed with the following return code:1 The image-clipping works like a charm but I get some kinda error message when I try to run image-combine. When I google the error messages it says ImageMagick is lacking PNG support but I can use other commands like "convert a.jpg b.png" so there must be some kinda png support? here's what "identify -list format" returns: PNG* PNG rw- Portable Network Graphics (libpng 1.2.43) See http://www.libpng.org/ for details about the PNG format. PNG24* PNG rw- opaque 24-bit RGB (zlib 1.2.3) PNG32* PNG rw- opaque or transparent 32-bit RGBA PNG8* PNG rw- 8-bit indexed with optional binary transparency So why do i get this error message: Magick: no decode delegate for this image format Looks to me like there's png support? I've never used ImageMagick before so I'm completely lost :D Thanks in advance

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  • Correct way to make datasources/resources a deploy-time setting

    - by Draemon
    I have a web-app that requires two settings: A JDBC datasource A string token I desperately want to be able to deploy one .war to various different containers (jetty,tomcat,gf3 minimum) and configure these settings at application level within the container. My code does this: InitialContext ctx = new InitialContext(); Context envCtx = (javax.naming.Context) ctx.lookup("java:comp/env"); token = (String)envCtx.lookup("token"); ds = (DataSource)envCtx.lookup("jdbc/datasource") Let's assume I've used the glassfish management interface to create two jdbc resources: jdbc/test-datasource and jdbc/live-datasource which connect to different copies of the same schema, on different servers, different credentials etc. Say I want to deploy this to glassfish with and point it at the test datasource, I might have this in my sun-web.xml: ... <resource-ref> <res-ref-name>jdbc/datasource</res-ref-name> <jndi-name>jdbc/test-datasource</jndi-name> </resource-ref> ... but sun-web.xml goes inside my war, right? surely there must be a way to do this through the management interface Am I even trying to do the right thing? Do other containers make this any easier? I'd be particularly interested in how jetty 7 handles this since I use it for development. EDIT Tomcat has a reasonable way to do this: Create $TOMCAT_HOME/conf/Catalina/localhost/webapp.xml with: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <Context antiResourceLocking="false" privileged="true"> <!-- String resource --> <Environment name="token" value="value of token" type="java.lang.String" override="false" /> <!-- Linking to a global resource --> <ResourceLink name="jdbc/datasource1" global="jdbc/test" type="javax.sql.DataSource" /> <!-- Derby --> <Resource name="jdbc/datasource2" type="javax.sql.DataSource" auth="Container" driverClassName="org.apache.derby.jdbc.EmbeddedDataSource" url="jdbc:derby:test;create=true" /> <!-- H2 --> <Resource name="jdbc/datasource3" type="javax.sql.DataSource" auth="Container" driverClassName="org.h2.jdbcx.JdbcDataSource" url="jdbc:h2:~/test" username="sa" password="" /> </Context> Note that override="false" means the opposite. It means that this setting can't be overriden by web.xml. I like this approach because the file is part of the container configuration not the war, but it's not part of the global configuration; it's webapp specific. I guess I expect a bit more from glassfish since it is supposed to have a full web admin interface, but I would be happy enough with something equivalent to the above.

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  • JavaCC: How can one exclude a string from a token? (A.k.a. understanding token ambiguity.)

    - by java.is.for.desktop
    Hello, everyone! I had already many problems with understanding, how ambiguous tokens can be handled elegantly (or somehow at all) in JavaCC. Let's take this example: I want to parse XML processing instruction. The format is: "<?" <target> <data> "?>": target is an XML name, data can be anything except ?>, because it's the closing tag. So, lets define this in JavaCC: (I use lexical states, in this case DEFAULT and PROC_INST) TOKEN : <#NAME : (very-long-definition-from-xml-1.1-goes-here) > TOKEN : <WSS : (" " | "\t")+ > // WSS = whitespaces <DEFAULT> TOKEN : {<PI_START : "<?" > : PROC_INST} <PROC_INST> TOKEN : {<PI_TARGET : <NAME> >} <PROC_INST> TOKEN : {<PI_DATA : ~[] >} // accept everything <PROC_INST> TOKEN : {<PI_END : "?>" > : DEFAULT} Now the part which recognizes processing instructions: void PROC_INSTR() : {} { ( <PI_START> (t=<PI_TARGET>){System.out.println("target: " + t.image);} <WSS> (t=<PI_DATA>){System.out.println("data: " + t.image);} <PI_END> ) {} } Let's test it with <?mytarget here-goes-some-data?>: The target is recognized: "target: mytarget". But now I get my favorite JavaCC parsing error: !! procinstparser.ParseException: Encountered "" at line 1, column 15. !! Was expecting one of: !! Encountered nothing? Was expecting nothing? Or what? Thank you, JavaCC! I know, that I could use the MORE keyword of JavaCC, but this would give me the whole processing instruction as one token, so I'd had to parse/tokenize it further by myself. Why should I do that? Am I writing a parser that does not parse? The problem is (i guess): hence <PI_DATA> recognizes "everything", my definition is wrong. I should tell JavaCC to recognize "everything except ?>" as processing instruction data. But how can it be done? NOTE: I can only exclude single characters using ~["a"|"b"|"c"], I can't exclude strings such as ~["abc"] or ~["?>"]. Another great anti-feature of JavaCC. Thank you.

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  • How to send a array as a parameter to a web service using SOAP and objective C.

    - by Alejandra Meraz
    I'm working in a iPhone app that needs to send a array as a parameter using SOAP. this is the current request and connection: NSString *soapMessage = [NSString stringWithFormat: @"<?xml version=\"1.0\" encoding=\"utf-8\"?>\n" "<soap:Envelope xmlns:xsi=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance\" xmlns:xsd=\"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema\" xmlns:soap=\"http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/\">\n" "<soap:Body>\n" "<function xmlns=\"http://tempuri.org/\" />\n" "</soap:Body>\n" "</soap:Envelope>\n"]; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:@"http://myHost.com/myWebService/service.asmx"]; //the url to the WSDL NsMutableURLRequest theRequest = [[NSMutableURLRequest alloc] initWithURL:url]; NSString *msgLength = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d",[soapMessage length]]; [theRequest addValue:@"text/xml; charset=utf-8" forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Type"]; [theRequest addValue:msgLength forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Lenght"]; [theRequest setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; [theRequest addValue:@"myhost.com" forHTTPHeaderField:@"Host"]; [theRequest addValue:@"http://tempuri.org/function" forHTTPHeaderField:@"SOAPAction"]; [theRequest setHTTPBody:[soapMessage dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; theConnection = [[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:theRequest delegate:self]; Now, to send parameters I looked at the WSDL of the function description for the input is like this: <s:complexType name="ArrayOfDictionaryEntry"> <s:sequence> <s:element minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="unbounded" name="DictionaryEntry" type="tns:DictionaryEntry" /> </s:sequence> </s:complexType> <s:complexType name="DictionaryEntry"> <s:sequence> <s:element minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="1" name="Key" /> <s:element minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="1" name="Value" /> </s:sequence> </s:complexType> <s:element name="functionInput"> <s:complexType /> </s:element> I guess then that I need to make a array of dictionary entries. what I would like to send is something like this [ location => USA, module => DEVELOPMENT] But I'm kind of confused. the array is created outside the SOAP, like an NSArray or inside the SoapMessage? if so... How is it done? and the DictionaryEntry, should I make a class? thanks for your time n.n

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  • VB6 ADO Command to SQL Server

    - by Emtucifor
    I'm getting an inexplicable error with an ADO command in VB6 run against a SQL Server 2005 database. Here's some code to demonstrate the problem: Sub ADOCommand() Dim Conn As ADODB.Connection Dim Rs As ADODB.Recordset Dim Cmd As ADODB.Command Dim ErrorAlertID As Long Dim ErrorTime As Date Set Conn = New ADODB.Connection Conn.ConnectionString = "Provider=SQLOLEDB.1;Integrated Security=SSPI;Initial Catalog=database;Data Source=server" Conn.CursorLocation = adUseClient Conn.Open Set Rs = New ADODB.Recordset Rs.CursorType = adOpenStatic Rs.LockType = adLockReadOnly Set Cmd = New ADODB.Command With Cmd .Prepared = False .CommandText = "ErrorAlertCollect" .CommandType = adCmdStoredProc .NamedParameters = True .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@ErrorAlertID", adInteger, adParamOutput) .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@CreateTime", adDate, adParamOutput) Set .ActiveConnection = Conn Rs.Open Cmd ErrorAlertID = .Parameters("@ErrorAlertID").Value ErrorTime = .Parameters("@CreateTime").Value End With Debug.Print Rs.State ' Shows 0 - Closed Debug.Print Rs.RecordCount ' Of course this fails since the recordset is closed End Sub So this code was working not too long ago but now it's failing on the last line with the error: Run-time error '3704': Operation is not allowed when the object is closed Why is it closed? I just opened it and the SP returns rows. I ran a trace and this is what the ADO library is actually submitting to the server: declare @p1 int set @p1=1 declare @p2 datetime set @p2=''2010-04-22 15:31:07:770'' exec ErrorAlertCollect @ErrorAlertID=@p1 output,@CreateTime=@p2 output select @p1, @p2 Running this as a separate batch from my query editor yields: Msg 102, Level 15, State 1, Line 4 Incorrect syntax near '2010'. Of course there's an error. Look at the double single quotes in there. What the heck could be causing that? I tried using adDBDate and adDBTime as data types for the date parameter, and they give the same results. When I make the parameters adParamInputOutput, then I get this: declare @p1 int set @p1=default declare @p2 datetime set @p2=default exec ErrorAlertCollect @ErrorAlertID=@p1 output,@CreateTime=@p2 output select @p1, @p2 Running that as a separate batch yields: Msg 156, Level 15, State 1, Line 2 Incorrect syntax near the keyword 'default'. Msg 156, Level 15, State 1, Line 4 Incorrect syntax near the keyword 'default'. What the heck? SQL Server doesn't support this kind of syntax. You can only use the DEFAULT keyword in the actual SP execution statement. I should note that removing the extra single quotes from the above statement makes the SP run fine. ... Oh my. I just figured it out. I guess it's worth posting anyway.

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  • Autoconf -- including a static library (newbie)

    - by EB
    I am trying to migrate my application from manual build to autoconf, which is working very nicely so far. But I have one static library that I can't figure out how to integrate. That library will NOT be located in the usual library locations - the location of the binary (.a file) and header (.h file) will be given as a configure argument. (Notably, even if I move the .a file to /usr/lib or anywhere else I can think of, it still won't work.) It is also not named traditionally (it does not start with "lib" or "l"). Manual compilation is working with these (directory is not predictable - this is just an example): gcc ... -I/home/john/mystuff /home/john/mystuff/helper.a (Uh, I actually don't understand why the .a file is referenced directly, not with -L or anything. Yes, I have a half-baked understanding of building C programs.) So, in my configure.ac, I can use the relevant configure argument to successfully find the header (.h file) using AC_CHECK_HEADER. Inside the AC_CHECK_HEADER I then add the location to CPFLAGS and the #include of the header file in the actual C code picks it up nicely. Given a configure argument that has been put into $location and the name of the needed files are helper.h and helper.a (which are both in the same directory), here is what works so far: AC_CHECK_HEADER([$location/helper.h], [AC_DEFINE([HAVE_HELPER_H], [1], [found helper.h]) CFLAGS="$CFLAGS -I$location"]) Where I run into difficulties is getting the binary (.a file) linked in. No matter what I try, I always get an error about undefined references to the function calls for that library. I'm pretty sure it's a linkage issue, because I can fuss with the C code and make an intentional error in the function calls to that library which produces earlier errors that indicate that the function prototypes have been loaded and used to compile. I tried adding the location that contains the .a file to LDFLAGS and then doing a AC_CHECK_LIB but it is not found. Maybe my syntax is wrong, or maybe I'm missing something more fundamental, which would not be surprising since I'm a newbie and don't really know what I'm doing. Here is what I have tried: AC_CHECK_HEADER([$location/helper.h], [AC_DEFINE([HAVE_HELPER_H], [1], [found helper.h]) CFLAGS="$CFLAGS -I$location"; LDFLAGS="$LDFLAGS -L$location"; AC_CHECK_LIB(helper)]) No dice. AC_CHECK_LIB is looking for -lhelper I guess (or libhelper?) so I'm not sure if that's a problem, so I tried this, too (omit AC_CHECK_LIB and include the .a directly in LDFLAGS), without luck: AC_CHECK_HEADER([$location/helper.h], [AC_DEFINE([HAVE_HELPER_H], [1], [found helper.h]) CFLAGS="$CFLAGS -I$location"; LDFLAGS="$LDFLAGS -L$location/helper.a"]) To emulate the manual compilation, I tried removing the -L but that doesn't help: AC_CHECK_HEADER([$location/helper.h], [AC_DEFINE([HAVE_HELPER_H], [1], [found helper.h]) CFLAGS="$CFLAGS -I$location"; LDFLAGS="$LDFLAGS $location/helper.a"]) I tried other combinations and permutations, but I think I might be missing something more fundamental....

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  • What is the best way to read and write cXML documents in C# ?

    - by tetranz
    I know this is a vague open ended question. I'm hoping to get some general direction. I need to add cXML punchout to an ASP.NET C# site / application. This is replacing something that I wrote years ago in ColdFusion. I'm a reasonably experienced C# developer but I haven't done much with XML. There seems to be lots of different options for processing XML in .NET. Here's the open ended question: Assuming that I have an XML document in some form, eg a file or a string, what is the best way to read it into my code? I want to get the data and then query databases etc. The cXML document size and our traffic volumes are easily small enough so that loading the a cXML document into memory is not a problem. Should I: 1) Manually build classes based on the dtd and use the XML Serializer? 2) Use a tool to generate classes. There are sample cXML files downloadable from Ariba.com. I tried xsd.exe to generate an xsd and then xsd.exe /c to generate classes. When I try to deserialize I get errors because there seems to be "confusion" around whether some elements should be single values or arrays. I tried the CodeXS online tool but that gives errors in it's log and errors if I try to deserialize a sample document. 2) Create a dataset and ReadXml()? 3) Create a typed dataset and ReadXml()? 4) Use Linq to XML. I often use Linq to Objects so I'm familiar with Linq in general but I'm struggling to see what it gives me in this situation. 5) Some other means. I guess I need to improve my understanding of XML in general but even so ... am I missing some obvious way of doing this? In the old ColdFusion site I found a free component ("tag") which basically ignored any schema and read the XML into a "structure" which is essentially a series of nested hash tables which was then easy to read in code. That was probably quite sloppy but it worked. I also need to generate XML files from my C# objects. Maybe Linq to XML will be good for that. I could start with a default "template" document and manipulate it before saving. Thanks for any pointers ...

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  • How to optimize this SQL query for a rectangular region?

    - by Andrew B.
    I'm trying to optimize the following query, but it's not clear to me what index or indexes would be best. I'm storing tiles in a two-dimensional plane and querying for rectangular regions of that plane. The table has, for the purposes of this question, the following columns: id: a primary key integer world_id: an integer foreign key which acts as a namespace for a subset of tiles tileY: the Y-coordinate integer tileX: the X-coordinate integer value: the contents of this tile, a varchar if it matters. I have the following indexes: "ywot_tile_pkey" PRIMARY KEY, btree (id) "ywot_tile_world_id_key" UNIQUE, btree (world_id, "tileY", "tileX") "ywot_tile_world_id" btree (world_id) And this is the query I'm trying to optimize: ywot=> EXPLAIN ANALYZE SELECT * FROM "ywot_tile" WHERE ("world_id" = 27685 AND "tileY" <= 6 AND "tileX" <= 9 AND "tileX" >= -2 AND "tileY" >= -1 ); QUERY PLAN ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Bitmap Heap Scan on ywot_tile (cost=11384.13..149421.27 rows=65989 width=168) (actual time=79.646..80.075 rows=96 loops=1) Recheck Cond: ((world_id = 27685) AND ("tileY" <= 6) AND ("tileY" >= (-1)) AND ("tileX" <= 9) AND ("tileX" >= (-2))) -> Bitmap Index Scan on ywot_tile_world_id_key (cost=0.00..11367.63 rows=65989 width=0) (actual time=79.615..79.615 rows=125 loops=1) Index Cond: ((world_id = 27685) AND ("tileY" <= 6) AND ("tileY" >= (-1)) AND ("tileX" <= 9) AND ("tileX" >= (-2))) Total runtime: 80.194 ms So the world is fixed, and we are querying for a rectangular region of tiles. Some more information that might be relevant: All the tiles for a queried region may or may not be present The height and width of a queried rectangle are typically about 10x10-20x20 For any given (world, X) or (world, Y) pair, there may be an unbounded number of matching tiles, but the worst case is currently around 10,000, and typically there are far fewer. New tiles are created far less frequently than existing ones are updated (changing the 'value'), and that itself is far less frequent that just reading as in the query above. The only thing I can think of would be to index on (world, X) and (world, Y). My guess is that the database would be able to take those two sets and intersect them. The problem is that there is a potentially unbounded number of matches for either for either of those. Is there some other kind of index that would be more appropriate?

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  • C++0x Overload on reference, versus sole pass-by-value + std::move?

    - by dean
    It seems the main advice concerning C++0x's rvalues is to add move constructors and move operators to your classes, until compilers default-implement them. But waiting is a losing strategy if you use VC10, because automatic generation probably won't be here until VC10 SP1, or in worst case, VC11. Likely, the wait for this will be measured in years. Here lies my problem. Writing all this duplicate code is not fun. And it's unpleasant to look at. But this is a burden well received, for those classes deemed slow. Not so for the hundreds, if not thousands, of smaller classes. ::sighs:: C++0x was supposed to let me write less code, not more! And then I had a thought. Shared by many, I would guess. Why not just pass everything by value? Won't std::move + copy elision make this nearly optimal? Example 1 - Typical Pre-0x constructor OurClass::OurClass(const SomeClass& obj) : obj(obj) {} SomeClass o; OurClass(o); // single copy OurClass(std::move(o)); // single copy OurClass(SomeClass()); // single copy Cons: A wasted copy for rvalues. Example 2 - Recommended C++0x? OurClass::OurClass(const SomeClass& obj) : obj(obj) {} OurClass::OurClass(SomeClass&& obj) : obj(std::move(obj)) {} SomeClass o; OurClass(o); // single copy OurClass(std::move(o)); // zero copies, one move OurClass(SomeClass()); // zero copies, one move Pros: Presumably the fastest. Cons: Lots of code! Example 3 - Pass-by-value + std::move OurClass::OurClass(SomeClass obj) : obj(std::move(obj)) {} SomeClass o; OurClass(o); // single copy, one move OurClass(std::move(o)); // zero copies, two moves OurClass(SomeClass()); // zero copies, one move Pros: No additional code. Cons: A wasted move in cases 1 & 2. Performance will suffer greatly if SomeClass has no move constructor. What do you think? Is this correct? Is the incurred move a generally acceptable loss when compared to the benefit of code reduction?

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  • IP address numbers in MySQL subquery

    - by Iain Collins
    I have a problem with a subquery involving IPV4 addresses stored in MySQL (MySQL 5.0). The IP addresses are stored in two tables, both in network number format - e.g. the format output by MySQL's INET_ATON(). The first table ('events') contains lots of rows with IP addresses associated with them, the second table ('network_providers') contains a list of provider information for given netblocks. events table (~4,000,000 rows): event_id (int) event_name (varchar) ip_address (unsigned 4 byte int) network_providers table (~60,000 rows): ip_start (unsigned 4 byte int) ip_end (unsigned 4 byte int) provider_name (varchar) Simplified for the purposes of the problem I'm having, the goal is to create an export along the lines of: event_id,event_name,ip_address,provider_name If do a query along the lines of either of the following, I get the result I expect: SELECT provider_name FROM network_providers WHERE INET_ATON('192.168.0.1') >= network_providers.ip_start ORDER BY network_providers.ip_start DESC LIMIT 1 SELECT provider_name FROM network_providers WHERE 3232235521 >= network_providers.ip_start ORDER BY network_providers.ip_start DESC LIMIT 1 That is to say, it returns the correct provider_name for whatever IP I look up (of course I'm not really using 192.168.0.1 in my queries). However, when performing this same query as a subquery, in the following manner, it doesn't yield the result I would expect: SELECT event.id, event.event_name, (SELECT provider_name FROM network_providers WHERE event.ip_address >= network_providers.ip_start ORDER BY network_providers.ip_start DESC LIMIT 1) as provider FROM events Instead the a different (incorrect) value for network_provider is returned - over 90% (but curiously not all) values returned in the provider column contain the wrong provider information for that IP. Using event.ip_address in a subquery just to echo out the value confirms it contains the value I'd expect and that the subquery can parse it. Replacing event.ip_address with an actual network number also works, just using it dynamically in the subquery in this manner that doesn't work for me. I suspect the problem is there is something fundamental and important about subqueries in MySQL that I don't get. I've worked with IP addresses like this in MySQL quite a bit before, but haven't previously done lookups for them using a subquery. The question: I'd really appreciate an example of how I could get the output I want, and if someone here knows, some enlightenment as to why what I'm doing doesn't work so I can avoid making this mistake again. Notes: The actual real-world usage I'm trying to do is considerably more complicated (involving joining two or three tables). This is a simplified version, to avoid overly complicating the question. Additionally, I know I'm not using a between on ip_start & ip_end - that's intentional (the DB's can be out of date, and such cases the owner in the DB is almost always in the next specified range and 'best guess' is fine in this context) however I'm grateful for any suggestions for improvement that relate to the question. Efficiency is always nice, but in this case absolutely not essential - any help appreciated.

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  • Should I add try/catch around when casting on an attribute of JSP implicit object?

    - by Michael Mao
    Hi all: Basically what I mean is like this: List<String[]> routes = (List<String[]>)application.getAttribute("routes"); For the above code, it tries to get an attribute named "routes" from the JSP implicit object - application. But as everyone knows, after this line of code, routes may very well contains a null - which means this application hasn't got an attribute named "routes". Is this "casting on null" good programming practice in Java or not? Basically I try to avoid exceptions such as java.io.InvalidCastException I reckon things like this are more as "heritage" of Java 1.4 when generic types were not introduced to this language. So I guess everything stored in application attributes as Objects (Similar to traditional ArrayList). And when you do "downcast", there might be invalid casts. What would you do in this case? Update: Just found that although in the implicit object application I did store a List of String arrays, when I do this : List<double[]> routes = (List<double[]>)application.getAttribute("routes"); It doesn't produce any error... And I felt not comfortable already... And even with this code: out.print(routes.get(0)); It does print out something strange : [Ljava.lang.String;@18b352f Am I printing a "pointer to String"? I can finally get an exception like this: out.print(routes.get(0)[1]); with error : java.lang.ClassCastException: [Ljava.lang.String; Because it was me to add the application attribute, I know which type should it be cast to. I feel this is not "good enough", what if I forget the exact type? I know there are still some cases where this sort of thing would happen, such as in JSP/Servlet when you do casting on session attributes. Is there a better way to do this? Before you say:"OMG, why you don't use Servlets???", I should justify my reason as this: - because my uni sucks, its server can only work with Servlets generated by JSP, and I don't really want to learn how to fix issues like that. look at my previous question on this , and this is uni homework, so I've got no other choice, forget all about war, WEB-INF,etc, but "code everything directly into JSP" - because the professors do that too. :)

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  • Understanding WebRequest

    - by Nai
    I found this snippet of code here that allows you to log into a website and get the response from the logged in page. However, I'm having trouble understanding all the part of the code. I've tried my best to fill in whatever I understand so far. Hope you guys can fill in the blanks for me. Thanks string nick = "mrbean"; string password = "12345"; //this is the query data that is getting posted by the website. //the query parameters 'nick' and 'password' must match the //name of the form you're trying to log into. you can find the input names //by using firebug and inspecting the text field string postData = "nick=" + nick + "&password=" + password; // this puts the postData in a byte Array with a specific encoding //Why must the data be in a byte array? byte[] data = Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes(postData); // this basically creates the login page of the site you want to log into WebRequest request = WebRequest.Create("http://www.mrbeanandme.com/login/"); // im guessing these parameters need to be set but i dont why? request.Method = "POST"; request.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"; request.ContentLength = data.Length; // this opens a stream for writing the post variables. // im not sure what a stream class does. need to do some reading into this. Stream stream = request.GetRequestStream(); // you write the postData to the website and then close the connection? stream.Write(data, 0, data.Length); stream.Close(); // this receives the response after the log in WebResponse response = request.GetResponse(); stream = response.GetResponseStream(); // i guess you need a stream reader to read a stream? StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(stream); // this outputs the code to console and terminates the program Console.WriteLine(sr.ReadToEnd()); Console.ReadLine();

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  • Help with strange memory behavior. Looking for leaks both in my brain and in my code.

    - by BastiBechtold
    I spent the last few days trying to find memory leaks in a program we are developing. First of all, I tried using some leak detectors. After fixing a few issues, they do not find any leaks any more. However, I am also monitoring my application using perfmon.exe. Performance Monitor reports that 'Private Bytes' and 'Working Set - Private' are steadily rising when the app is used. To me, this suggests that the program is using more and more memory the longer it runs. Internal resources seem to be stable however, so this sounds like leaking to me. The program is loading a DLL at runtime. I suspect that these leaks or whatever they are occur in that library and get purged when the library is unloaded, hence they won't get picked up by the leak detectors. I used both DevPartner BoundsChecker and Virtual Leak Detector to look for memory leaks. Both supposedly catch leaks in DLLs. Also, the memory consumption is increasing in steps and those steps roughly, but not exactly, coincide with certain GUI actions I perform in the application. If these were errors in our code, they should get triggered every single time the actions are performed and not just most of the time. Whenever I am confronted with so much strangeness, I begin to question my basic assumptions. So I turn to you, who know everything, for suggestions. Is there a flaw in my assumptions? Do you have an idea of how to go about troubleshooting a problem like this? Edit: I am currently using Microsoft Visual C++ (x86) on Windows 7 64. Edit2: I just used IBM Purify to hunt for leaks. First of all, it lists a full 30% of the program as leaked memory. This can not be true. I guess it is identifying the whole DLL as leaked or something like that. However, if I search for new leaks every few actions, it reports leaks that correspond with the size increase reported by Performance Monitor. This could be a lead to a leak. Sadly, I am only using the trial version of Purify, so it won't show me the actual location of those leaks. (These leaks only show up at runtime. When the program exits, there are no leaks whatsoever reported by any tool.)

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  • Cepstral Analysis for pitch detection

    - by Ohmu
    Hi! I'm looking to extract pitches from a sound signal. Someone on IRC just explain to me how taking a double FFT achieves this. Specifically: take FFT take log of square of absolute value (can be done with lookup table) take another FFT take absolute value I am attempting this using vDSP I can't understand how I didn't come across this technique earlier. I did a lot of hunting and asking questions; several weeks worth. More to the point, I can't understand why I didn't think of it. I am attempting to achieve this with vDSP library. it looks as though it has functions to handle all of these tasks. However, I'm wondering about the accuracy of the final result. I have previously used a technique which scours the frequency bins of a single FFT for local maxima. when it encounters one, it uses a cunning technique (the change in phase since the last FFT) to more accurately place the actual peak within the bin. I am worried that this precision will be lost with this technique I'm presenting here. I guess the technique could be used after the second FFT to get the fundamental accurately. But it kind of looks like the information is lost in step 2. as this is a potentially tricky process, could someone with some experience just look over what I'm doing and check it for sanity? also, I've heard there is an alternative technique involving fitting a quadratic over neighbouring bins. Is this of comparable accuracy? if so, I would favour it, as it doesn't involve remembering bin phases. so questions: does this approach makes sense? Can it be improved? I'm a bit worried about And the log square component; there seems to be a vDSP function to do exactly that: vDSP_vdbcon however, there is no indication it precalculates a log-table -- I assume it doesn't, as the FFT function requires an explicit pre-calculation function to be called and passed into it. and this function doesn't. Is there some danger of harmonics being picked up? is there any cunning way of making vDSP pull out the maxima, biggest first? Can anyone point me towards some research or literature on this technique? the main question: is it accurate enough? Can the accuracy be improved? I have just been told by an expert that the accuracy IS INDEED not sufficient. Is this the end of the line? Pi PS I get SO annoyed (npi) when I want to create tags, but cannot. :| I have suggested to the maintainers that SO keep track of attempted tags, but I'm sure I was ignored. we need tags for vDSP, accelerate framework, cepstral analysis

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