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  • Moving Function With Arguments To RequireJS

    - by Jazimov
    I'm not only relatively new to JavaScript but also to RequireJS (coming from string C# background). Currently on my web page I have a number of JavaScript functions. Each one takes two arguments. Imagine that they look like this: functionA(x1, y1) { ... } functionB(x2, y2) { ... } functionC(x3, y3) { ... } Currently, these functions exist in a tag on my HTML page and I simply call each as needed. My functions have dependencies on KnockoutJS, jQuery, and some other JS libraries. I currently have Script tags that synchronously load those external .js dependencies. But I want to use RequireJS so that they're loaded asynchronously, as needed. To do this, I plan to move all three functions above into an external .js file (a type of AMD "module") called MyFunctions.js. That file will have a define() call (to RequireJS's define function) that will look something like this: define(["knockout", "jquery", ...], function("ko","jquery", ...) {???} ); My question is how to "wrap" my functionA, functionB, and functionC functions where the ??? is above so that I can use those functions on my page as needed. For example, in the onclick event handler for a button on my HTML page, I would want to call functionA and pass two it two arguments; same for functionB and functionC. I don't fully understand how to expose those functions when they're wrapped in a define that itself is located in an external .js file. I know that define assures that my listed libraries are loaded asynchronously before the callback function is called, but after that's done I don't understand how the web page's script tags would use my functions. Would I need to use require to ensure they're available, such as: require(["myfunctions"],function({not sure what to put here})] I think I understand the basics of RequireJS but I don't understand how to wrap my functions so that they're in external .js files, don't pollute the global namespace, and yet can still be called from the main page so that arguments can be passed to them. I imagine they're are many ways to do this but in reviewing the RequireJS docs and some videos out there, I can't say I understand how... Thank you for any help.

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  • Does CakePHP treat all INT fields as ID's for join tables?

    - by Jonnie
    I am trying to save a User, their Profile, and some tags and my join table that links the profile and the tags keeps getting messed up. The profile model is called Instructor, the tag model is called Subject. The Instructor has a phone number and a zip code and for some reason CakePHP thinks these are the fields it should use when creating entries in my join table. My Join table always comes out as: id | instructor_id | subject_id | 1 | 90210 | 1 | // thinks that the zip code is an instructor_id 2 | 1112223333 | 1 | // thinks that the phone number is an instructor_id 3 | 1 | 1 | // thinks that user_id is an instructor_id 4 | 1 | 1 | // the actual instructor_id, this one's correct 5 | 90210 | 2 | 6 | 1112223333 | 2 | 3 | 1 | 2 | 4 | 1 | 2 | My Models: class Instructor extends AppModel { var $name = 'Instructor'; var $belongsTo = array('User', 'State'); var $hasAndBelongsToMany = array( 'Subject' = array( 'className' = 'Subject', 'joinTable' = 'instructors_subjects', 'foreignKey' = 'instructor_id', 'associationForeignKey' = 'subject_id', 'unique' = true, 'conditions' = '', 'fields' = '', 'order' = '', 'limit' = '', 'offset' = '', 'finderQuery' = '', 'deleteQuery' = '', 'insertQuery' = '' ) ); } class Subject extends AppModel { var $name = 'Subject'; var $hasAndBelongsToMany = array( 'Instructor' = array( 'className' = 'Instructor', 'joinTable' = 'instructors_subjects', 'foreignKey' = 'subject_id', 'associationForeignKey' = 'instructor_id', 'unique' = true, 'conditions' = '', 'fields' = '', 'order' = '', 'limit' = '', 'offset' = '', 'finderQuery' = '', 'deleteQuery' = '', 'insertQuery' = '' ) ); } My Model Associations: User hasOne Instructor Instructor belongsTo User Instructor hasAndBelongsToMany Subject Subject hasAndBelongsToMany Instructor My form data looks like: Array ( [User] = Array ( [username] = MrInstructor [password] = cddb06c93c72f34eb9408610529a34645c29c55d [group_id] = 2 ) [Instructor] = Array ( [name] = Jimmy Bob [email] = [email protected] [phone] = 1112223333 [city] = Beverly Hills [zip_code] = 90210 [states] = 5 [website] = www.jimmybobbaseballschool.com [description] = Jimmy Bob is an instructor. [user_id] = 1 [id] = 1 ) [Subject] = Array ( [name] = hitting, pitching ) ) My function for processing the form looks like: function instructor_register() { $this-set('groups', $this-User-Group-find('list')); $this-set('states', $this-User-Instructor-State-find('list')); if (!empty($this-data)) { // Set the group to Instructor $this-data['User']['group_id'] = 2; // Save the user data $user = $this-User-save($this-data, true, array( 'username', 'password', 'group_id' )); // If the user was saved, save the instructor's info if (!empty($user)) { $this-data['Instructor']['user_id'] = $this-User-id; $instructor = $this-User-Instructor-save($this-data, true, array( 'user_id', 'name', 'email', 'phone', 'city', 'zip_code', 'state_id', 'website', 'description' )); // If the instructor was saved, save the rest if(!empty($instructor)) { $instructorId = $this-User-Instructor-id; $this-data['Instructor']['id'] = $instructorId; // Save each subject seperately $subjects = explode(",", $this-data['Subject']['name']); foreach ($subjects as $_subject) { // Get the correct subject format $_subject = strtolower(trim($_subject)); $this-User-Instructor-Subject-create($this-data); $this-User-Instructor-Subject-set(array( 'name' = $_subject )); $this-User-Instructor-Subject-save(); echo ''; print_r($this-data); echo ''; } } } } }

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  • how to use window.onload?

    - by Patrick
    I'm refactoring a website using MVC. What was a set of huge pages with javascript, php, html etc etc is becoming a series of controllers and views. I'm trying to do it in a modular way so views are split in 'modules' that I can reuse in other pages when needed eg. "view/searchform displays only one div with the searchform "view/display_events displays a list of events and so on. One of the old pages was supposed to load a google map with a marker on it. Amongst the rest of the code, I can identify the relevant bits as follows <head> <script src="http://maps.google.com/maps?file=api&amp;v=2&amp;key=blablabla" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> //<![CDATA[ function load() { if (GBrowserIsCompatible()) { var map = new GMap2(document.getElementById("map")); var point = new GLatLng(<?php echo ($info->lat && $info->lng) ? $info->lat .",". $info->lng : "51.502759,-0.126171"; ?>); map.setCenter(new GLatLng(<?php echo ($info->lat && $info->lng) ? $info->lat .",". $info->lng : "51.502759,-0.126171"; ?>), 15); map.addControl(new GLargeMapControl()); map.addControl(new GScaleControl()); map.addOverlay(new GMarker(point)); var marker = createMarker(point,GIcon(),"CIAO"); map.addOverlay(marker); } } //]]> </script> </head> ...then <body onload="load()" onunload="GUnload()"> ...and finally this div where the map should be displayed <div id="map" style="width: 440px; height: 300px"> </div> Don't know much about js, but my understanding is that a) I have to include the scripts in the view module I'm writing (directly in the HTML? I would prefer to load a separate script) b) I have to trigger that function using the equivalent of body onload... (obviously there's no body tag in my view. In my ignorance I've tried div onload=.... but didn't seem to be working :) What do you suggest I do? I've read about window.onload but don't know what's the correct syntax for that. please keep in mind that other parts of the page include other js functions (eg, google adsense) that are called after the footer.

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  • Asp.net web service: Problems accessing without www

    - by MysterM
    I have a Asp.net web service running on www.domain.com/Service.svc that I connect to using jQuery from my asp.net website. Everything works perfect if the user access my website with www.domain.com. But if the user uses only domain.com I get error: There was no channel actively listening at 'http://domain.com/Service.svc/get?date=2010-10-09'. This is often caused by an incorrect address URI. Ensure that the address to which the message is sent matches an address on which a service is listening. In my web.config I use the serviceHostingEnvironment tag to get the service running on my webhost (it doesn't work otherwise). Maybe this is what causes the error? Here is my system.serviceModel in web.config (I had some problems setting up the web service so that's why my web.config might be a bit messy: <system.serviceModel> <behaviors> <endpointBehaviors> <behavior name="ServiceAspNetAjaxBehavior"> <enableWebScript /> </behavior> </endpointBehaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="ServiceBehavior"> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="true" /> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> <serviceHostingEnvironment aspNetCompatibilityEnabled="true"> <baseAddressPrefixFilters> <add prefix="http://www.domain.com"/> </baseAddressPrefixFilters> </serviceHostingEnvironment> <services> <service behaviorConfiguration="ServiceBehavior" name="Service"> <endpoint address="" behaviorConfiguration="ServiceAspNetAjaxBehavior" binding="webHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="ServiceBinding" contract="Service" /> </service> </services> <bindings> <webHttpBinding> <binding name="ServiceBinding" maxBufferPoolSize="1000000" maxReceivedMessageSize="1000000"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="1000000" maxStringContentLength="1000000" maxArrayLength="1000000" maxBytesPerRead="1000000" maxNameTableCharCount="1000000" /> </binding> </webHttpBinding> </bindings> </system.serviceModel> How can I make it possible for my users to access my webservice also when using only domain.com?

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  • Pass param to a silverlight application

    - by Lucas_Santos
    In my javascript I create my <OBJECT> tag var htmlEmbedSilverlight = "<div id='silverlightControlHost'> " + "<object data='data:application/x-silverlight-2,' type='application/x-silverlight-2' width='550px' height='250px'> " + "<param name='source' value='../../ClientBin/FotoEmprestimoChave.xap'/> " + "<param name='onError' value='onSilverlightError' /> " + "<param name='background' value='white' /> " + "<param name='minRuntimeVersion' value='4.0.60310.0' /> " + "<param name='autoUpgrade' value='true' /> " + "<param name='initparams' values='chave_id=" + data + "' /> " + "<a href='http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkID=149156&v=4.0.60310.0' style='text-decoration:none'> " + "<img src='http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkId=161376' alt='Get Microsoft Silverlight' style='border-style:none'/> " + "</a> " + "</object><iframe id='_sl_historyFrame' style='visibility:hidden;height:0px;width:0px;border:0px'></iframe></div>"; $("#tiraFotoSilverlight").html(htmlEmbedSilverlight); This is a reference to my Silverlight application where I call in my Web Application. The problem is my <param name='initparams' values='chave_id=" + data + "' /> " because in my App.xaml in Silverlight, I have the code below private void Application_Startup(object sender, StartupEventArgs e) { if (e.InitParams != null) { foreach (var item in e.InitParams) { this.Resources.Add(item.Key, item.Value); } } this.RootVisual = new MainPage(); } Where InitParams always has Count = 0 and I don't know why. Can someone help me ? I'm just trying to pass a value to my Silverlight application, without a PostBack. Rendered <object width="550px" height="250px" type="application/x-silverlight-2" data="data:application/x-silverlight-2,"> <param value="../../ClientBin/FotoEmprestimoChave.xap" name="source"> <param value="onSilverlightError" name="onError"> <param value="white" name="background"> <param value="4.0.60310.0" name="minRuntimeVersion"> <param value="true" name="autoUpgrade"> <param values="chave_id=1" name="initparams"> <a style="text-decoration:none" href="http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkID=149156&v=4.0.60310.0"> </object>

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  • expand div with focus-jquery

    - by Joel
    Hi guys, I'm revisiting this after a few weeks, because I could never get it to work before, and hoping to now. Please look at this website-notice the newsletter signup form at the top right. http://www.rattletree.com I am wanting it to look exactly this way for now, but when the user clicks in the box to enter their email address, the containing div will expand (or simply appear) above the email field to also include a "name" and "city" field. I'm using jquery liberally in the sight, so that is at my disposal. This form is in the header so any id info, etc can't be withing the body tag... This is what I have so far: <div class="outeremailcontainer"> <div id="emailcontainer"> <?php include('verify.php'); ?> <form action="index_success.php" method="post" id="sendEmail" class="email"> <h3 class="register2">Newsletter Signup:</h3> <ul class="forms email"> <li class="email"><label for="emailFrom">Email: </label> <input type="text" name="emailFrom" class="info" id="emailFrom" value="<?= $_POST['emailFrom']; ?>" /> <?php if(isset($emailFromError)) echo '<span class="error">'.$emailFromError.'</span>'; ?> </li> <li class="buttons email"> <button type="submit" id="submit">Send</button> <input type="hidden" name="submitted" id="submitted" value="true" /> </li> </ul> </form> <div class="clearing"> </div> </div> css: p.emailbox{ text-align:center; margin:0; } p.emailbox:first-letter { font-size: 120%; font-weight: bold; } .outeremailcontainer { height:60px; width: 275px; background-image:url(/images/feather_email2.jpg); /*background-color:#fff;*/ text-align:center; /* margin:-50px 281px 0 auto ; */ float:right; position:relative; z-index:1; } form.email{ position:relative; } #emailcontainer { margin:0; padding: 0 auto; z-index:1000; display:block; position:relative; } Thanks for any help! Joel

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  • ASP.Net MVC + Live validation - how come the flagged text are all over the place?

    - by melaos
    hi guys, this is an asp.net mvc project and <% using (Html.BeginForm("ProductAdded", "Home")) { % Register Your Product <%= ViewData["MainHeader"]% <p><%=ViewData["IntroText"]%></p> <div style="display: none;"> <div id="regionThreePane"> <table border="0" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0" frame="void" style="width: 100%"> <tr> <td width='250px'><select name="ProdLBox1" id="ProdLBox1" class="ProdLBox1" size="8"></select></td> <td width='250px'><select name="ProdLBox2" id="ProdLBox2" class="ProdLBox2" size="8"></select></td> <td width='250px'><select name="ProdLBox3" id="ProdLBox3" class="ProdLBox3" size="8"></select></td> </tr> </table> </div> i'm using live validation for my client side validation. var v_fname = new LiveValidation('Customer_FirstName', { validMessage: " " }, { onlyOnSubmit: true }); v_fname.add(Validate.Presence, { failureMessage: enterfirstname}); var v_lname = new LiveValidation('Customer_LastName', { validMessage: " " }); v_lname.add(Validate.Presence, { failureMessage: enterlastname }); var v_email = new LiveValidation('Customer_Email', { validMessage: " " }); v_email.add(Validate.Presence, { failureMessage: enteremail, validMessage: " " }); v_email.add(Validate.Email, { failureMessage: entervalidemail}); and what i notice is that after doing some button call: $(".btnAddProduct").click(function() { //Check first to see if there's anything to be added if (parseFloat($(".tboAddProduct").val()) < 1) { //TO DO: to replace with localized text var selectProductError = "Please select a product first"; $("#validationSummary").text(selectProductError); //alert("Please select a product first"); return false; } $(".PanelProductReg").show(); addProductRow($(".tboAddProductId").val(), $("#tboAddProduct").val()); }); what will happen is that the validation tags will start to appear for the whole page for all the input which are tag for the live validation. instead of just appearing when the controls are being higlighted and onblur. i'm using some ajax calls to get data and a lot of jquery to dynamically do the gui stuff. could any of this be causing some sort of an internal conflict? thanks

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  • maven-ear-plugin works if jboss version is 4.2, but not 5. Why ?

    - by NSINGH
    I am using maven to configure maven-ear-plugin. I am getting following exception when I say jboss version is 5 (See below code, under tag). It works if I replace version to 4.2 <build> <finalName>tactical</finalName> <plugins> <plugin> <artifactId>maven-ear-plugin</artifactId> <configuration> <version>5</version> <defaultJavaBundleDir>lib</defaultJavaBundleDir> <jboss> <version>5</version> <loader-repository>seam.jboss.org:loader=tactical</loader-repository> </jboss> <modules> <ejbModule> <groupId>${project.groupId}</groupId> <artifactId>tactical-jar</artifactId> </ejbModule> </modules> </configuration> </plugin> </plugins> </build> Why it works fine for jboss 4.2 but not for 5. What ?? I get the following exception: [INFO] Failed to initialize JBoss configuration Embedded error: Invalid JBoss configuration, version[5] is not supported. [INFO] ------------------------------------------------------------------------ [INFO] Trace org.apache.maven.lifecycle.LifecycleExecutionException: Failed to initialize JBoss configuration at org.apache.maven.lifecycle.DefaultLifecycleExecutor.executeGoals(DefaultLifecycleExecutor.java:583) at org.apache.maven.lifecycle.DefaultLifecycleExecutor.executeGoalWithLifecycle(DefaultLifecycleExecutor.java:49 9) at org.apache.maven.lifecycle.DefaultLifecycleExecutor.executeGoal(DefaultLifecycleExecutor.java:478) at org.apache.maven.lifecycle.DefaultLifecycleExecutor.executeGoalAndHandleFailures(DefaultLifecycleExecutor.jav a:330) at org.apache.maven.lifecycle.DefaultLifecycleExecutor.executeTaskSegments(DefaultLifecycleExecutor.java:291) at org.apache.maven.lifecycle.DefaultLifecycleExecutor.execute(DefaultLifecycleExecutor.java:142) at org.apache.maven.DefaultMaven.doExecute(DefaultMaven.java:336) at org.apache.maven.DefaultMaven.execute(DefaultMaven.java:129) at org.apache.maven.cli.MavenCli.main(MavenCli.java:287) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:597) at org.codehaus.classworlds.Launcher.launchEnhanced(Launcher.java:315) at org.codehaus.classworlds.Launcher.launch(Launcher.java:255) at org.codehaus.classworlds.Launcher.mainWithExitCode(Launcher.java:430) at org.codehaus.classworlds.Launcher.main(Launcher.java:375) Caused by: org.apache.maven.plugin.MojoExecutionException: Failed to initialize JBoss configuration at org.apache.maven.plugin.ear.AbstractEarMojo.execute(AbstractEarMojo.java:159) at org.apache.maven.plugin.ear.GenerateApplicationXmlMojo.execute(GenerateApplicationXmlMojo.java:96) at org.apache.maven.plugin.DefaultPluginManager.executeMojo(DefaultPluginManager.java:451) at org.apache.maven.lifecycle.DefaultLifecycleExecutor.executeGoals(DefaultLifecycleExecutor.java:558) ... 16 more Caused by: org.apache.maven.plugin.ear.EarPluginException: Invalid JBoss configuration, version[5] is not supported. at org.apache.maven.plugin.ear.JbossConfiguration.(JbossConfiguration.java:95) at org.apache.maven.plugin.ear.AbstractEarMojo.initializeJbossConfiguration(AbstractEarMojo.java:296) at org.apache.maven.plugin.ear.AbstractEarMojo.execute(AbstractEarMojo.java:155) ... 19 more [INFO] ------------------------------------------------------------------------ [INFO] Total time: 2 seconds Any idea. Thanks

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  • How do you programmatically set a Style on a View?

    - by Greg
    I would like to do something like this: <Button android:id="@+id/button" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_cotent" style="@style/SubmitButtonType" /> But in code The xml approach works fine provided that SubmitButtonType is defined. Now what I assume happens is that the appt parser runs through this xml, generates an AttributeSet. That AttributeSet when passed to context/theme#obtainStyledAttributes() will have the style ref mask anything that is not written inline in this tag. Great that's fine! Now how do we do this programmatically. Button, as well as other View types, has a constructor that has the form: <Widget>(Context context, AttributeSet set, int defStyle). So I thought this would work. Button button = new Button(context, null, R.style.SubmitButtonType); However, I am finding that defStyle is badly documented as it really should be written to be a resourceId to an attribute (from R.attrs) that will be passed to obtainStyledAttributes() as the attribute resource, and not the style resource. After looking at the code, all the view implementations seem to pass 0 as the styleRef. I don't see the harm in having it passed as both the attr and the style resource (more flexible and negligible overhead) However I might be approaching this all wrong. How do you do this in code then other than by setting each individual element of the style to the specific widget you want to style (only possible by looking a the code to see what param maps to which method or set of methods). The only way I have found to do this is: <declare-styleable> <attr name="totallyAdhoc_attribute_just_for_this_case" format="reference"> </declare-styleable> <style name="MyAlreadyExistantTheme" > ... ... <item name="totallyAdhoc_attribute_just_for_this_case">@style/SubmitButtonType</item> </style> And instead of passing R.style.SubmitButtonType as defStyle, I pass the new R.attr.totallyAdhoc_attribute_just_for_this_case. Button button = new Button(context, null, R.attr.totallyAdhoc_attribute_just_for_this_case); This works but sounds way too complicated.

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  • Merge entries in XMLfile (SimpleXML in PHP)

    - by Cudos
    Hello. I have this in my XML file: <product name="iphone"> <variant name="iphone" product_number="12345" price="500" picture="iphone.jpg"> <description><![CDATA[iphone]]></description> <short_description><![CDATA[]]></short_description> <deliverytime><![CDATA[]]></deliverytime> <options> <option group="Color" option="Black" /> </options> </variant> </product> <product name="iphone"> <variant name="iphone" product_number="12345" price="500" picture="iphone.jpg"> <description><![CDATA[iphone]]></description> <short_description><![CDATA[]]></short_description> <deliverytime><![CDATA[]]></deliverytime> <options> <option group="Color" option="White" /> </options> </variant> </product> I want to merge it into this (Note that I merge the options tag): <product name="iphone"> <variant name="iphone" product_number="12345" price="500" picture="iphone.jpg"> <description><![CDATA[iphone]]></description> <short_description><![CDATA[]]></short_description> <deliverytime><![CDATA[]]></deliverytime> <options> <option group="Color" option="Black" /> <option group="Color" option="White" /> </options> </variant> </product> Preferably I want to do it all in the memory since I will process it further afterwards.

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  • Can someone who understands C code help me understand this code?

    - by Benjamin
    INT GetTree (HWND hWnd, HTREEITEM hItem, HKEY *pRoot, TCHAR *pszKey, INT nMax) { TV_ITEM tvi; TCHAR szName[256]; HTREEITEM hParent; HWND hwndTV = GetDlgItem (hWnd, ID_TREEV); memset (&tvi, 0, sizeof (tvi)); hParent = TreeView_GetParent (hwndTV, hItem); if (hParent) { // Get the parent of the parent of the... GetTree (hWnd, hParent, pRoot, pszKey, nMax); // Get the name of the item. tvi.mask = TVIF_TEXT; tvi.hItem = hItem; tvi.pszText = szName; tvi.cchTextMax = dim(szName); TreeView_GetItem (hwndTV, &tvi); //send the TVM_GETITEM message? lstrcat (pszKey, TEXT ("\\")); lstrcat (pszKey, szName); } else { *pszKey = TEXT ('\0'); szName[0] = TEXT ('\0'); // Get the name of the item. tvi.mask = TVIF_TEXT | TVIF_PARAM; tvi.hItem = hItem; tvi.pszText = szName; tvi.cchTextMax = dim(szName); if (TreeView_GetItem (hwndTV, &tvi)) //*pRoot = (HTREEITEM)tvi.lParam; //original hItem = (HTREEITEM)tvi.lParam; else { INT rc = GetLastError(); } } return 0; } The block of code that begins with the comment "Get the name of the item" does not make sense to me. If you are getting the listview item why does the code set the parameters of the item being retrieved, because if you already had the values there would be no need to retrieve them. Secondly near the comment "original" is the original line of code which will compile with a varning under embedded visual c++, but if you copy the exact same code into visual studio 2008 it will not compile. Since I did not write any of this code and am trying to learn is it possible the original author made a mistake on this line, since the *pRoot should point to and HKEY type yet he is casting to an HTREEITEM type which should never work since the data types don't match? (Side note someone with a better reputation should add a windows ce tag to SO since windows mobile is not the same as windows ce.)

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  • jQuery - Sorting an array?

    - by Probocop
    Hi, I'm using Ajax to get some XML, and then filling in some fields on a form with the results. There is a numerical field on the form and I would like to sort the results by this number (highest first). How would I go about doing this in jQuery? My js function code is currently: function linkCounts() { ws_url = "http://archreport.epiphanydev2.co.uk/worker.php?query=linkcounts&domain="+$('#hidden_the_domain').val(); $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: ws_url, dataType: "xml", success: function(xmlIn){ results = xmlIn.getElementsByTagName("URL"); for ( var i = 0; i < results.length; i++ ) { $("#tb_domain_linkcount_url_"+(i+1)).val($(results[i].getElementsByTagName("Page")).text()); $("#tb_domain_linkcount_num_"+(i+1)).val($(results[i].getElementsByTagName("Links")).text()); } $('#img_linkcount_worked').attr("src","/images/worked.jpg"); }, error: function(){$('#img_linkcount_worked').attr("src","/images/failed.jpg");} }); } The Links tag is the one I'm wanting to sort it on. Thanks For reference the XML that's getting returned is like the following: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" standalone="yes"?> <Response> <ResponseCode>1</ResponseCode> <ResponseStatus>OK</ResponseStatus> <ReportId>2</ReportId> <UrlChecked /> <MaxLinks>75</MaxLinks> <PagesFound>121</PagesFound> <URLs> <URL> <Page>http://www.epiphanysolutions.co.uk/blog</Page> <Links>78</Links> </URL> <URL> <Page>http://www.epiphanysolutions.co.uk/blog/</Page> <Links>78</Links> </URL> <URL> <Page>http://www.epiphanysolutions.co.uk/blog/author/daniel-peden/</Page> <Links>78</Links> </URL> <URL> <Page>http://www.epiphanysolutions.co.uk/blog/author/daniel-peden/page/2/</Page> <Links>78</Links> </URL> </URLS> </Response>

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  • Android Progress Dialog not showing

    - by ilomambo
    This is the handler, in the main Thread, which shows and dismisses a progress dialog. public static final int SHOW = 0; public static final int DISMISS = 1; public Handler pdHandler = new Handler() { @Override public void handleMessage(Message msg) { Log.i(TAG, "+ handleMessage(msg:" + msg + ")"); switch(msg.what) { case SHOW: pd = ProgressDialog.show(LogViewer.this, "", getText(R.string.loading_msg), true); break; case DISMISS: if(pd != null) { pd.dismiss(); pd = null; } break; } } }; The message to show the progress is: pdHandler.sendMessage(pdHandler.obtainMessage(SHOW)); The message to dismiss it is: pdHandler.sendMessage(pdHandler.obtainMessage(DISMISS)); It works well when I call it before I start an AsyncTask, the AsyncTask onPostExecute() dismisses it. But when it runs within a runnable (runOnUiThread), the dialog does not show. Examining the pd variable on the debugger, it shows that is is created, it is running and it is visible, but in practice it is not visible. Any suggestion? UPDATE: I did the obvious test I should have done in the first place. I commented the DISMISS message. And the progress dialog did show up. It appeared too late, after the runnable was finished. I undestand now that the DISMISS message did dismiss the not-yet-visible ProgressDialog, that's why I did not see it. The question becomes now: I need the ProgressDialog to show BEFORE the runnable code is executed. And it is not so straight forward. My call hierarchy is like this: onScrollEventChanged --> runOnUiThread ( --> checkScrollLimits --> if need to scroll show ProgressDialog "Loading" get new data into table dismiss ProgressDIalog ) I tried something like this: onScrollEventChanged --> checkScrollLimits --> if need to scroll show ProgressDialog "Loading" --> runOnUiThread ( get new data into table dismiss ProgressDIalog ) But still the dismiss message got there before the ProgressDialog could show. According to Logcat there is a five second interval between the arrival of the SHOW message and the arrival of the DISMISS message. UPDATE II: I though I will use the isShowing() method of ProgressDIalog pd = ProgressDialog.show(...) while(!pd.isShowing()); But it does not help at all, it returns true even if the dialog is not showing yet.

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  • Visual Studio not recognizing "BuildStep"

    - by AmbiguousX
    I'm trying to add an automatic post-build trigger to run NDepend after an automated team build in TFS 2010. NDepend's website provided code for integrating this capability, and so I have pasted their code into my .csproj file where they said for it to go, but I receive errors on the build. The errors refer to two of the three "BuildStep" tags I have in the code snippet. The following two snippets are giving me errors: <BuildStep TeamFoundationServerUrl="$(TeamFoundationServerUrl)" BuildUri="$(BuildUri)" Message="Running NDepend analysis"> <Output TaskParameter="Id" PropertyName="StepId" /> </BuildStep> and <BuildStep TeamFoundationServerUrl="$(TeamFoundationServerUrl)" BuildUri="$(BuildUri)" Id="$(StepId)" Status="Failed" /> However, this code snippet is NOT throwing up any problems: <BuildStep TeamFoundationServerUrl="$(TeamFoundationServerUrl)" BuildUri="$(BuildUri)" Id="$(StepId)" Status="Succeeded" /> I just don't understand why one works fine and a nearly identically laid out BuildStep tag does not. Is there something simple that I'm just overlooking? EDIT: Here is how it looks all together, if this makes a difference: <Target Name="NDepend" > <PropertyGroup> <NDPath>c:\tools\NDepend\NDepend.console.exe</NDPath> <NDProject>$(SolutionDir)MyProject.ndproj</NDProject> <NDOut>$(TargetDir)NDepend</NDOut> <NDIn>$(TargetDir)</NDIn> </PropertyGroup> <Exec Command='"$(NDPath)" "$(NDProject)" /OutDir "$(NDOut)" /InDirs "$(NDIn)"'/> </Target> <Target Name="AfterBuild"> <BuildStep TeamFoundationServerUrl="$(TeamFoundationServerUrl)" BuildUri="$(BuildUri)" Message="Running NDepend analysis"> <Output TaskParameter="Id" PropertyName="StepId" /> </BuildStep> <PropertyGroup> <NDPath>c:\tools\NDepend\NDepend.console.exe</NDPath> <NDProject>$(SolutionRoot)\Main\src\MyProject.ndproj</NDProject> <NDOut>$(BinariesRoot)\NDepend</NDOut> <NDIn>$(BinariesRoot)\Release</NDIn> </PropertyGroup> <Exec Command='$(NDPath) "$(NDProject)" /OutDir "$(NDOut)" /InDirs "$(NDIn)"'/> <BuildStep TeamFoundationServerUrl="$(TeamFoundationServerUrl)" BuildUri="$(BuildUri)" Id="$(StepId)" Status="Succeeded" /> <OnError ExecuteTargets="MarkBuildStepAsFailed" /> </Target> <Target Name="MarkBuildStepAsFailed"> <BuildStep TeamFoundationServerUrl="$(TeamFoundationServerUrl)" BuildUri="$(BuildUri)" Id="$(StepId)" Status="Failed" /> </Target> EDIT: Added a bounty because I really need to get this going for my team. Thank you in advance!

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  • jQuery: Giving each matched element an unique ID

    - by AnGafraidh
    I am writing an 'inline translator' application to be used with a cloud computing platform to extend non-supported languages. The majority of this uses jQuery to find the text value, replace it with the translation, then append the element with a span tag that has an unique ID, to be used elsewhere within the application. The problem arises however, when there are more than one element, say , that have the exact same value to be translated (matched elements). What happens in the function in question is that it puts all matched elements in the same span, taking the second, third, fourth, etc. out of their parent tags. My code is pretty much like this example: <script src='jquery-1.4.2.js'></script> <script> jQuery.noConflict(); var uniqueID='asdfjkl'; jQuery(window).ready(function() { var myQ1 = jQuery("input[id~=test1]"); myClone=myQ1.clone(); myClone.val('Replaced this button'); myQ1.replaceWith('<span id='+uniqueID+'></span>'); jQuery('#'+uniqueID).append(myClone); }); </script> <table> <tr><td> <input id='test1' type='button' value="I'm a button!"></input> &nbsp; <input id='test2' type='button' value="And so am I"></input> </tr></td> <tr><td> <input id='test1' type='button' value="I'm a button!"></input> </tr></td> </table> As a workaround, I've experimented with using a loop to create a class for each span, rising in increment until jQuery("input[id~=test1]").length, but I can't seem to get anything I do to work. Is there any way to give each matched element an unique ID? My fluency in jQuery is being put to the test! Thanks for any help in advance. Aaron

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  • Facebook Connect from Localhost, doing some weird stuff

    - by Brett
    So maybe the documentation is out of date, or I am just off here. But I have done a slew of FB iframe apps (connect), but I am starting my first FB Connect site. Running it from localhost, and the Connect URL is http:// my_external_IP_address. When I click on the FB login button on my site, it pops up, says waiting for facebook, and it returns my site in that box, with the URL up top with the http:// mysite/?session={session key, user_id, etc.} The user_id is infact my FB id. And so it thinks I am logged in. If I close the popup, I'm not logged in. I'm not sure why the pop up isn't doing the normal fb connect dialog. I'm following these steps. (I added spaces to the http:// as to not be detected as 'spam') html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xmlns:fb="http://www.facebook.com/2008/fbml" right after <body> <script src="http://static.ak.connect.facebook.com/js/api_lib/v0.4/FeatureLoader.js.php" type="text/javascript"> At the end, before the body close tag: script type="text/javascript"> FB.init("fbkey", "http://127.0.0.1/xd_receiver.htm"); I have tried using xd_receiver.htm, /xd_receiver.htm (and other combos), and that brings up a blank page. using the http://127.0.0.1 at least does something. In my config file, which is called before all of those, it checks for a PHP session key to see if they are logged in, if that doesn't exist it looks for a cookie, and if that doesn't exist it does this: require_once('includes/facebook.php'); $facebook = new Facebook($fbkey, $fbsec); $user_id = $facebook->get_loggedin_user(); if($user_id > 0){ $user = $ac->getUserFromFB($user_id); $_SESSION['user_id'] = $user['user_id']; } The user_id is always empty when I echo it out to the screen to test. The session event never occurs as well. So I don't know what it is doing in the popup, but I think Facebook thinks it is logging me in. Not sure. Pretty stumped on this one. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks!

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  • C++ class member functions instantiated by traits

    - by Jive Dadson
    I am reluctant to say I can't figure this out, but I can't figure this out. I've googled and searched Stack Overflow, and come up empty. The abstract, and possibly overly vague form of the question is, how can I use the traits-pattern to instantiate non-virtual member functions? The question came up while modernizing a set of multivariate function optimizers that I wrote more than 10 years ago. The optimizers all operate by selecting a straight-line path through the parameter space away from the current best point (the "update"), then finding a better point on that line (the "line search"), then testing for the "done" condition, and if not done, iterating. There are different methods for doing the update, the line-search, and conceivably for the done test, and other things. Mix and match. Different update formulae require different state-variable data. For example, the LMQN update requires a vector, and the BFGS update requires a matrix. If evaluating gradients is cheap, the line-search should do so. If not, it should use function evaluations only. Some methods require more accurate line-searches than others. Those are just some examples. The original version instantiates several of the combinations by means of virtual functions. Some traits are selected by setting mode bits that are tested at runtime. Yuck. It would be trivial to define the traits with #define's and the member functions with #ifdef's and macros. But that's so twenty years ago. It bugs me that I cannot figure out a whiz-bang modern way. If there were only one trait that varied, I could use the curiously recurring template pattern. But I see no way to extend that to arbitrary combinations of traits. I tried doing it using boost::enable_if, etc.. The specialized state information was easy. I managed to get the functions done, but only by resorting to non-friend external functions that have the this-pointer as a parameter. I never even figured out how to make the functions friends, much less member functions. The compiler (VC++ 2008) always complained that things didn't match. I would yell, "SFINAE, you moron!" but the moron is probably me. Perhaps tag-dispatch is the key. I haven't gotten very deeply into that. Surely it's possible, right? If so, what is best practice?

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  • A program where user enters a string and the program counts the instances of the letters

    - by user1865183
    This is the first C++ program I have ever written and I'm having trouble understanding the order in which operands must be put in. This is for a class, but it looks like I'm not supposed to use the homework tag. Sorry if I'm doing this wrong. This is my input // Get DNA string string st; cout << "Enter the DNA sequence to be analysed: "; cin >> st; This seems to work ok, but I thought I would include it incase this is what I'm doing wrong. This is what I have so far to check that the input is exclusively C,T,A, or G. It runs through the program and simply prints "Please enter a valid sequnce1, please enter a valid sequence2, ... ect. I'm sure I'm doing something very stupid, I just can't figure it out. // Check that the sequence is all C, T, A, G while (i <= st.size()){ if (st[i] != 'c' && st[i] != 'C' && st[i] != 'g' && st[i] != 'G' && st[i] != 't' && st[i] != 'T' && st[i] != 'a' && st[i] != 'A'); cout << "Please enter a valid sequence" << i++; else if (st[i] == c,C,G,t,T,a,A) i++; The second half of my program is to count the number of Cs and Gs in the sequence for (i < st.size() ; i++ ;); for (loop <= st.size() ; loop++;) if (st[loop] == 'c') { count_c++; } else if (st[loop] == C) { count_c++; } else if (st[loop] == g) { count_g++; } else if (st[loop] == G); { count_g++; } cout << "Number of instances of C = " << count_c; cout << "Number of instances of G = " << count_g; It seems like it's not looping, it will count 1 of one of the letters. How do I make it loop? I can't seem to put in endl; anywhere without getting an error back, although I know I'll need it somewhere. Any help or tips to point me in the right direction would be greatly appreciated - I've been working on this code for two days (this is embarrassing to admit).

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  • representing an XML config file with an IXmlSerializable class

    - by Sarah Vessels
    I'm writing in C# and trying to represent an XML config file through an IXmlSerializable class. I'm unsure how to represent the nested elements in my config file, though, such as logLevel: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <logging> <logLevel>Error</logLevel> </logging> <credentials> <user>user123</user> <host>localhost</host> <password>pass123</password> </credentials> <credentials> <user>user456</user> <host>my.other.domain.com</host> <password>pass456</password> </credentials> </configuration> There is an enum called LogLevel that represents all the possible values for the logLevel tag. The tags within credentials should all come out as strings. In my class, called DLLConfigFile, I had the following: [XmlElement(ElementName="logLevel", DataType="LogLevel")] public LogLevel LogLevel; However, this isn't going to work because <logLevel> isn't within the root node of the XML file, it's one node deeper in <logging>. How do I go about doing this? As for the <credentials> nodes, my guess is I will need a second class, say CredentialsSection, and have a property such as the following: [XmlElement(ElementName="credentials", DataType="CredentialsSection")] public CredentialsSection[] AllCredentials; Edit: okay, I tried Robert Love's suggestion and created a LoggingSection class. However, my test fails: var xs = new XmlSerializer(typeof(DLLConfigFile)); using (var stream = new FileStream(_configPath, FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read, FileShare.Read)) { using (var streamReader = new StreamReader(stream)) { XmlReader reader = new XmlTextReader(streamReader); var file = (DLLConfigFile)xs.Deserialize(reader); Assert.IsNotNull(file); LoggingSection logging = file.Logging; Assert.IsNotNull(logging); // fails here LogLevel logLevel = logging.LogLevel; Assert.IsNotNull(logLevel); Assert.AreEqual(EXPECTED_LOG_LEVEL, logLevel); } } The config file I'm testing with definitely has <logging>. Here's what the classes look like: [Serializable] [XmlRoot("logging")] public class LoggingSection : IXmlSerializable { public XmlSchema GetSchema() { return null; } [XmlElement(ElementName="logLevel", DataType="LogLevel")] public LogLevel LogLevel; public void ReadXml(XmlReader reader) { LogLevel = (LogLevel)Enum.Parse(typeof(LogLevel), reader.ReadString()); } public void WriteXml(XmlWriter writer) { writer.WriteString(Enum.GetName(typeof(LogLevel), LogLevel)); } } [Serializable] [XmlRoot("configuration")] public class DLLConfigFile : IXmlSerializable { [XmlElement(ElementName="logging", DataType="LoggingSection")] public LoggingSection Logging; }

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  • The 80 column limit, still useful?

    - by Tim Post
    Related: While coding, how many columns do you format for? Is there a valid reason for enforcing a maximum width of 80 characters in a code file, this day and age? I mostly use C, however this question is language agnostic. Its also subjective, so I'll tag it as such. Many individual projects set their own various coding standards, a guide to adjust your coding style. Many enforce an 80 column limit on code, i.e. don't force a dumb 80 x 25 terminal to wrap your lines in someone else's editor of choice if they are stuck with such a display, don't force them to turn off wrapping. Both private and open source projects usually have some style guidelines. My question is, in this day and age, is that requirement more of a pest than a helper? Does anyone still login via the local console with no framebuffer and actually edit code? If so, how often and why cant you use SSH? I help to manage a few open source projects, I was considering extending this limit to 110 columns, but I wanted to get feedback first. So, any feedback is appreciated. I can see the need to make certain OUTPUT of programs (i.e. a --help /h display) 80 columns or less, but I really don't see the need to force people to break up code under 110 columns long into 2 lines, when its easier to read on one line. I can also see the case for adhering to an 80 column limit if you're writing code that will be used on micro controllers that have to be serviced in the field with a god-knows-what terminal emulator. Beyond that, what are your thoughts? Edit: This is not an exact duplicate. I am asking very specific questions, such as how many people are actually still using such a display. I am also not asking "what is a good column limit", I'm proposing one and hoping to gather feedback. Beyond that, I'm also citing cases where the 80 column limit is still a good idea. I don't want a guide to my own "c-style", I'm hoping to adjust standards for several projects. If the duplicate in question had answered all of my questions, I would not have posted this one :) That will teach me to mention it next time. Edit 2 question |= COMMUNITY_WIKI

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  • JQuery Validation - Wrap offending field in a div.

    - by Samuurai
    Hi, It's my first time using StackOverFlow and first time trying to set up jQuery Validation. It's displaying <label> tags with the error messages as default behaviour, however the way my CSS is set up I need a div to wrap around the offending element and a message display in <p> tags. Without errors, my html looks like this: <div class="grid-26 append-2"> <p class="noMarginBottom"> <label>First Name</label> <div class="jNiceInputWrapper"> <div class="jNiceInputInner"> <input type="text" class="text jNiceInput" name="name"/> </div> </div> </p> <span class="clear"/> </div> And with Errors, it needs to look like this - Note the div with class "error" and the <p> tag. <div class="grid-26 append-2"> <div class="error"> <p>Please write your real name</p> <p class="noMarginBottom"> <label>First Name</label> <div class="jNiceInputWrapper"> <div class="jNiceInputInner"> <input type="text" class="text jNiceInput" name="name"/> </div> </div> </p> <span class="clear"/> </div> </div> My Validation code is very basic. $(document).ready(function(){ $("#contact_form").validate({ rules:{ name: { required: true } } }); }); This is my first venture into jQuery and form validation, so I'll be the first to say "I'm lost!" any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Lithium: Run filter after find() to format output

    - by Housni
    I wanted to specify the output of a field from within my model so I added a date key to my $_schema: models/Tags.php <?php protected $_schema = array( 'id' => array('type' => 'integer', 'key' => 'primary'), 'title' => array('type' => 'string'), 'created' => array('type' => 'integer', 'date' => 'F jS, Y - g:i a'), 'modified' => array('type' => 'integer') ); ?> I store my time as an unsigned integer in the db (output of time()). I want my base model to format any field that has the date key for output. I thought the best place to do that would be right after a find: extensions/data/Model.php <?php static::applyFilter('find', function($self, $params, $chain) { $schema = $self::schema(); $entity = $chain->next($self, $params, $chain); foreach ($schema as $field => $options) { if (array_key_exists('date', $options)) { //format as a date $params['data'][$field] = $entity->formatDate($field, $options['date']); } } return $entity; }); public function formatdate($entity, $field, $format, $timezone = 'Asia/Colombo') { $dt = new \DateTime(); $tz = new \DateTimeZone($timezone); $dt->setTimestamp($entity->$field); $dt->setTimezone($tz); return $dt->format($format); } ?> This doesn't seem to be working. When I execute a find all, this filter seems to get hit twice. The first time, $entity contains a count() of the results and only on the second hit does it contain the Records object. What am I doing wrong? How do I alter this so that simply doing <?= $tag->created; ?> in my view will format the date the way I want? This, essentially, needs to be an 'after filter', of sorts. EDIT If I can find a way to access the current model entity object (not the full namespaced path, $self contains that), I can probably solve my problem.

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  • Searching in XML using Xpath

    - by Sathish
    I have an XML file like below , using xpath and xnavigator how can get the Value of the supplied Tag Attribute for example if i supply RangeName i should get AssumptClient <Validations> <FieldInfo id="1"> <Name>OMID</Name> <Mandatory>Yes</Mandatory> <RangeName>AssumptOMID</RangeName> <DataType>int</DataType> <MaxLength>10</MaxLength> </FieldInfo> <FieldInfo id="2"> <Name>ClientName</Name> <Mandatory>Yes</Mandatory> <RangeName>AssumptClient</RangeName> <DataType>string</DataType> <MaxLength>50</MaxLength> </FieldInfo> <FieldInfo id="3"> <Name>OppName</Name> <Mandatory>Yes</Mandatory> <RangeName>AssumptProjectName</RangeName> <DataType>string</DataType> <MaxLength>50</MaxLength> </FieldInfo> <FieldInfo id="4"> <Name>OperatingGroup</Name> <Mandatory>Yes</Mandatory> <RangeName>AssumptOperatingGroup</RangeName> <DataType>string</DataType> <MaxLength>50</MaxLength> </FieldInfo> </Validations> for now i am using the below code XPathDocument doc; XPathNavigator nav; XPathExpression expr; XPathNodeIterator iterator; doc = new XPathDocument(strConfigFile); nav = doc.CreateNavigator(); expr = nav.Compile("/configuration/Validations/FieldInfo[RangeName='AssumptClient']"); iterator = nav.Select(expr); if (iterator.MoveNext()) { XPathNavigator nav2 = iterator.Current.Clone(); textBox1.Text = nav2.GetAttribute("RangeName", ""); }

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  • Using hidden values with jQuery (and ASP.NET MVC) -- not working?

    - by SlackerCoder
    Im using a couple of JSON calls to render data, etc etc. In order to keep the proper key value, I am storing it in a tag. I have this in several places in my code, none of which cause an issue like this one is. Here is the jQuery: The call that "sets" the value: $("a[id^='planSetupAddNewPlan']").live('click', function() { var x = $(this).attr('id'); x = x.substring(19); $("#hidPlanSetupCurrentGroupKey").val(x); $.getJSON("/GroupSetup/PlanSetupAddNewList", { GroupKey: x }, function(data) { $("#planSetupAddNew").html('' + data.TableResult + ''); alert('First Inside 2 ' + x); $.blockUI({ message: $("#planSetupAddNew") }); }); }); The call that "gets" the value: $("#ddlPlanSetupAddNewProduct").live('change', function() { var a = $("#hidPlanSetupCurrentGroupKey").val(); var prod = $(this).val(); alert(a); $.getJSON("/GroupSetup/PlanSetupChangePlanList", { GroupKey: a, Product: prod }, function(data) { if (data.Message == "Success") { $("#planSetupAddNewPlan").html('' + data.TableResult + ''); } else if (data.Message == "Error") { //Do something } }); }); Here is the html in question: <div id="planSetupAddNew" style="display:none; cursor: default;"> <input type="hidden" id="hidPlanSetupCurrentGroupKey" /> <div id="planSetupAddNewData"> </div> </div> In the first section, the alert ('First Inside 2 ' + x) returns what I expect (where x = the key value), and if I add a line to display the contents of the hidden field, that works as well: ie. var key = $("#hidPlanSetupCurrentGroupKey").val(); alert(key); In the "alert(a);" call, I am getting "undefined". I have looked at the other code in the same view and it is the same and it works. I must be missing something, or have some sort of mistype that I havent caught. Just an overview of the controller events: The first call (/GroupSetup/PlanSetupAddNewList) will return an html string building a "form" for users to enter information into. The second call (/GroupSetup/PlanSetupChangePlanList) just changes a second dropdown based on the first dropdown selection (overwriting the html in the div). If you need more info, let me know! Any thoughts/tips/pointers/suggestions?!?! Thanks for all your help :)

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  • Object as itemValue in <f:selectItems>

    - by Ehsun
    Is it possible to have objects as itemValue in tag? for example I have a class Foo: public class Foo { private int id; private String name; private Date date; } And another class Bar public class Bar { private Foo foos; } public class BarBean { private Set<Foo> foos; } Now in a Bean called BarBean I need to have a to get the Foo of the current Bar from User like this: <h:selectOneMenu value="#{barBean.bar.foo}" required="true"> <f:selectItems value="#{barBean.foos}" var="foo" itemLabel="#{foo.name}" itemValue="#{foo}" /> </h:selectOneMenu> ---------------edited: my converter: package ir.khorasancustoms.g2g.converters; import ir.khorasancustoms.g2g.persistance.CatalogValue; import java.util.ResourceBundle; import javax.faces.application.FacesMessage; import javax.faces.component.UIComponent; import javax.faces.context.FacesContext; import javax.faces.convert.Converter; import javax.faces.convert.FacesConverter; import org.hibernate.Session; import org.hibernate.SessionFactory; import org.hibernate.Transaction; import org.hibernate.cfg.Configuration; @FacesConverter("ir.khorasancustoms.CatalogValueConverter") public class CatalogValueConverter implements Converter { @Override public Object getAsObject(FacesContext context, UIComponent component, String value) { SessionFactory factory = new Configuration().configure().buildSessionFactory(); Session session = factory.openSession(); try { int id = Integer.parseInt(value); CatalogValue catalogValue = (CatalogValue) session.load(CatalogValue .class, id); return catalogValue; } catch (Exception ex) { Transaction tx = session.getTransaction(); if (tx.isActive()) { tx.rollback(); } ResourceBundle rb = ResourceBundle.getBundle("application"); String message = rb.getString("databaseConnectionFailed"); FacesContext.getCurrentInstance().addMessage(null, new FacesMessage(FacesMessage.SEVERITY_FATAL, message, message)); } finally { session.close(); } return null; } @Override public String getAsString(FacesContext context, UIComponent component, Object value) { return ((CatalogValue) value).getId() + ""; } } and my facelet: <h:outputText value="#{lbls.paymentUnit}:"/> <h:selectOneMenu id="paymentUnit" label="#{lbls.paymentUnit}" value="#{price.price.ctvUnit}" required="true"> <f:selectItems value="#{price.paymentUnits}"/> <f:converter converterId="ir.khorasancustoms.CatalogValueConverter"/> </h:selectOneMenu> <h:message for="paymentUnit" infoClass="info" errorClass="error" warnClass="warning" fatalClass="fatal"/>

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