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  • Implementing search functionality with multiple optional parameters against database table.

    - by quarkX
    Hello, I would like to check if there is a preferred design pattern for implementing search functionality with multiple optional parameters against database table where the access to the database should be only via stored procedures. The targeted platform is .Net with SQL 2005, 2008 backend, but I think this is pretty generic problem. For example, we have customer table and we want to provide search functionality to the UI for different parameters, like customer Type, customer State, customer Zip, etc., and all of them are optional and can be selected in any combinations. In other words, the user can search by customerType only or by customerType, customerZIp or any other possible combinations. There are several available design approaches, but all of them have some disadvantages and I would like to ask if there is a preferred design among them or if there is another approach. Generate sql where clause sql statement dynamically in the business tier, based on the search request from the UI, and pass it to a stored procedure as parameter. Something like @Where = ‘where CustomerZip = 111111’ Inside the stored procedure generate dynamic sql statement and execute it with sp_executesql. Disadvantage: dynamic sql, sql injection Implement a stored procedure with multiple input parameters, representing the search fields from the UI, and use the following construction for selecting the records only for the requested fields in the where statement. WHERE (CustomerType = @CustomerType OR @CustomerType is null ) AND (CustomerZip = @CustomerZip OR @CustomerZip is null ) AND ………………………………………… Disadvantage: possible performance issue for the sql. 3.Implement separate stored procedure for each search parameter combinations. Disadvantage: The number of stored procedures will increase rapidly with the increase of the search parameters, repeated code.

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  • Minimal framework in Scala for collections with inheriting return type

    - by Rex Kerr
    Suppose one wants to build a novel generic class, Novel[A]. This class will contain lots of useful methods--perhaps it is a type of collection--and therefore you want to subclass it. But you want the methods to return the type of the subclass, not the original type. In Scala 2.8, what is the minimal amount of work one has to do so that methods of that class will return the relevant subclass, not the original? For example, class Novel[A] /* What goes here? */ { /* Must you have stuff here? */ def reverse/* What goes here instead of :Novel[A]? */ = //... def revrev/*?*/ = reverse.reverse } class ShortStory[A] extends Novel[A] /* What goes here? */ { override def reverse: /*?*/ = //... } val ss = new ShortStory[String] val ss2 = ss.revrev // Type had better be ShortStory[String], not Novel[String] Does this minimal amount change if you want Novel to be covariant? (The 2.8 collections do this among other things, but they also play with return types in more fancy (and useful) ways--the question is how little framework one can get away with if one only wants this subtypes-always-return-subtypes feature.)

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  • ASP.NET MVC: How to show value in a label from selected Drop Down List item?

    - by Lillie
    Hi! I'm trying to show a value of selected Drop Down List item in a label. I managed to make this work with Web Forms but with MVC I'm totally lost. My Index looks like this: [...] <% using (Html.BeginForm()) { %> <table> <tr> <td>Processor</td> <td><%= Html.DropDownList("lstProcessor1", new SelectList((IEnumerable)ViewData["Processor1List"], "product_price", "product_description")) %></td> </tr> <tr> <td>Total Amount</td> <td>0,00 €</td> </tr> </table> <input type="submit" value="Submit" /> <% } %> [...] And my HomeController starts with: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.Mvc; using System.Web.Mvc.Ajax; using MvcApplication1.Models; namespace MvcApplication1.Controllers { [HandleError] public class HomeController : Controller { // Connect database DB50DataContext _ctx = new DB50DataContext(); // GET: /Home/ public ActionResult Index() { // Search: Processors var products = from prod in _ctx.products where prod.product_searchcode == "processor1" select prod; ViewData["Processort1List"] = products; return View(); } I would like the product_price to show on the second line of the table, where it now says 0,00 €. It should also update the price automatically when the item from the Drop Down List is changed. I guess I should use JQuery but I have no idea how. Could someone please give me some tips how to do this?

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  • Strangest LINQ to SQL case I have ever seen

    - by kubaw
    OK, so this is the strangest issue in .net programming I have ever seen. It seems that object fields are serialized in .net web services in order of field initialization. It all started with Flex not accepting SOAP response from .net web service. I have found out that it was due to the order of serialized fields was statisfying the order of fields in declared serializable class. It had something to do with generic lists and LINQ to SQL but I can't find out what. This one is really hard to reproduce. Example to get the idea: [Serializable] public class SomeSample { public int A; public int B; public int C; } I was querying some data tables within asmx web service using linq and returning list of SomeSample objects: var r = (from ...... select new SomeSample { A = 1, C = 3 }).ToList(); Now the list was once more iterated and B field was applied some value (ex. 2). However the returned soap envelope contained following excerpt: <A>1</A><C>3</C><B>2</B> Please notice the order of serialization. If I initially initialized all fields: var r = (from ...... select new SomeSample { A = 1, B = 2, C = 3 }).ToList(); object was serialized in correct order. I must add, that in both cases the debugger shows exactly the same content of "r" variable. Am I losing my mind or is this normal behavior? Thanks in advance.

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  • Common Properties: Consolidating Loan, Purchase, Inventory and Sale tables into one Transaction tabl

    - by Frank Computer
    Pawnshop Application: I have separate tables for Loan, Purchase, Inventory & Sales transactions. Each tables rows are joined to their respective customer rows by: customer.pk [serial] = loan.fk [integer]; = purchase.fk [integer]; = inventory.fk [integer]; = sale.fk [integer]; Since there are so many common properties within the four tables, I consolidated the four tables into one table called "transaction", where a column: transaction.trx_type char(1) {L=Loan, P=Purchase, I=Inventory, S=Sale} Scenario: A customer initially pawns merchandise, makes a couple of interest payments, then decides he wants to sell the merchandise to the pawnshop, who then places merchandise in Inventory and eventually sells it to another customer. I designed a generic transaction table where for example: transaction.main_amount DECIMAL(7,2) in a loan transaction holds the pawn amount, in a purchase holds the purchase price, in inventory and sale holds sale price. This is clearly a denormalized design, but has made programming alot easier and improved performance. Any type of transaction can now be performed from within one screen, without the need to change to different tables.

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  • Using Moq to Validate Separate Invocations with Distinct Arguments

    - by Thermite
    I'm trying to validate the values of arguments passed to subsequent mocked method invocations (of the same method), but cannot figure out a valid approach. A generic example follows: public class Foo { [Dependency] public Bar SomeBar { get; set; } public void SomeMethod() { this.SomeBar.SomeOtherMethod("baz"); this.SomeBar.SomeOtherMethod("bag"); } } public class Bar { public void SomeOtherMethod(string input) { } } public class MoqTest { [TestMethod] public void RunTest() { Mock<Bar> mock = new Mock<Bar>(); Foo f = new Foo(); mock.Setup(m => m.SomeOtherMethod(It.Is<string>("baz"))); mock.Setup(m => m.SomeOtherMethod(It.Is<string>("bag"))); // this of course overrides the first call f.SomeMethod(); mock.VerifyAll(); } } Using a Function in the Setup might be an option, but then it seems I'd be reduced to some sort of global variable to know which argument/iteration I'm verifying. Maybe I'm overlooking the obvious within the Moq framework?

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  • C# return and display syntax issue

    - by thatdude
    I am having trouble passing the return value from TheMethod() to Main and displaying the word if the if statement is passed as true. I have thought of two ways of doing this, neither has worked but I think I am missing synatx. Using a return ?; non void method and then displaying the returned value. Using a void method and actually writing out(example below) So yes I am new at this, however I have made so many iterations everything is blending together and I have forgot what I have tried. Any help on the syntax be great for either of these ways. Basically I need it to iterate numbers 1,2,3,4 and depending on if the current iteration matches an expression in the if statements it will display a word. Example: if (3 = i) { Console.WriteLine("Word"); } Code: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Threading.Tasks; namespace Proj5 { class Program { int i = 0; static void Main(int i) { for (i = 0; i < 101; i++) { Console.WriteLine("test"); } } string TheMethod(int i) { string f = "Word1"; string b = "Word2"; if (i == 3) { return f; } if (i == 5) { return b; } if (0 == (i % 3)) { return f; } if (0 == i % 5) { return b; } else { return b; } } } }

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  • jQuery: Convert to a single tag

    - by user1909565
    I want to convert the below HTML to single tag: Before : <div class="Parent1"> <div class="Child1"> <a href="#">Child1</a> </div> <div class="Child2"> <a href="#">Child2</a> </div> </div> <div class="Parent2"> <div class="Child1"> <a href="#">Child1</a> </div> <div class="Child2"> <a href="#">Child2</a> </div> </div> After : <div class="Parent1"> <button>Child1</button> <button>Child2</button> </div> <div class="Parent2"> <button>Child1</button> <button>Child2</button> </div> i tried with wrapping/unwrapping. But it does not work. This I want to be generic.

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  • Change Default Winform Icon Across Entire App

    - by Kyle Gagnet
    Can I change the default icon used on a Winform? Most of my forms have their icon property set to a custom icon. For the few forms that slip through the cracks, I don't want the generic "hey look, he made this in visual studio" icon. One solution is to tediously check every one of my forms to make sure they either have a custom icon set or have ShowIcon set to False. Another solution is to have every one of my forms inherit from a base class that sets a custom icon in the constructor. Aside from those solutions, what other options do I have? EDIT: I was hoping there would be a way to replace the source of the stock icon with my own. Is it in a resource file somewhere? Or is it embedded in a .NET dll that I can't (or really, really shouldn't) modify? BOUNTY EDIT: Is there a way to accomplish this without editing or writing a single line of code? I don't care how impractical, complicated, waste-of-time the solution is... I just want to know if it's possible. I need to satisfy my curiosity.

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  • What does this Java generics paradigm do and what is it called?

    - by Tom
    I'm looking at some Java classes that have the following form: public abstract class A <E extends A<E>> implements Comparable <E> { public final int compareTo( E other ) { // etc } } public class B extends A <B> { // etc } public class C extends A <C> { // etc } My usage of "Comparable" here is just to illustrate a possible use of the generic parameter "E". Does this usage of generics/inheritance have a name? What is it used for? My impression is that this allows the abstract class to provide a common implementation of a method (such as compareTo) without having to provide it in the subclasses. However, in this example, unlike an inherited method it would restrict subclasses to invoking compareTo on other instances of the same subclass, rather than any "A" subclass. Does this sound right? Anyway, just curious if any gurus out there have seen this before and know what it does. Thanks!

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  • How do I add two lists in Linq so addedList[x] = listOne[x] + listTwo[x]?

    - by Audie
    I want to add two lists of a numeric type such that addedList[x] = listOne[x] + listTwo[x] The output of the list needs to be a Generic.IEnumerable that I can use in future linq queries. While I was able to do it using the code below, I can't help but feel like there must be a better way. Any ideas? List<int> firstList = new List<int>(new int[] { 1, 3, 4, 2, 5, 7, 2, 5, 7, 8, 9, 0 }); List<int> secondList = new List<int>(new int[] { 4, 6, 8, 3, 1, 5, 9, 3, 0 }); int findex = 0; ILookup<int, int> flookup = firstList.ToLookup(f => { int i = findex; findex++; return i; }, p => p); var listsAdded = from grp in flookup select grp.First() + secondList.ElementAtOrDefault(grp.Key); foreach (int i in listsAdded) Console.WriteLine(i);

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  • C# remote web request certificate error

    - by Ben
    Hi. I am currently integrating a payment gateway into an application. Following a successful transaction the remote payment gateway posts details of the transaction back to my application (ITN). It posts to a HttpHandler that is used to read and validate the data. Part of the validation performed is a POST made by the handler to a validation service provided by the payment gateway. This effectively posts some of the original form values received back to the payment gateway to ensure they are valid. The url that I am posting back to is: "https://sandbox.payfast.co.za/eng/query/validate" and the code I am using: /// <summary> /// Posts the data back to the payment processor to validate the data received /// </summary> public static bool ValidateITNRequestData(NameValueCollection formVariables) { bool isValid = true; try { using (WebClient client = new WebClient()) { string validateUrl = (UseSandBox) ? SandboxValidateUrl : LiveValidateUrl; byte[] responseArray = client.UploadValues(validateUrl, "POST", formVariables); // get the resposne and replace the line breaks with spaces string result = Encoding.ASCII.GetString(responseArray); result = result.Replace("\r\n", " ").Replace("\r", "").Replace("\n", " "); if (result == null || !result.StartsWith("VALID")) { isValid = false; LogManager.InsertLog(LogTypeEnum.OrderError, "PayFast ITN validation failed", "The validation response was not valid."); } } } catch (Exception ex) { LogManager.InsertLog(LogTypeEnum.Unknown, "Unable to validate ITN data. Unknown exception", ex); isValid = false; } return isValid; } However, on calling WebClient.UploadValues the following exception is raised: System.Net.WebException: The underlying connection was closed: Could not establish trust relationship for the SSL/TLS secure channel. ---> System.Security.Authentication.AuthenticationException: The remote certificate is invalid according to the validation procedure. at System.Net.Security.SslState.StartSendAuthResetSignal(ProtocolToken message, AsyncProtocolRequest asyncRequest, Exception exception) at For the sake of brevity I haven't listed the full call stack (I can do if anyone thinks it will help). The remote certificate does appear to be valid. To get around the problem I did try adding a new RemoteCertificateValidationCallback that always returned true but just ended up getting the following exception: System.Security.SecurityException: Request for the permission of type 'System.Security.Permissions.SecurityPermission, mscorlib, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089' failed. at System.Security.CodeAccessSecurityEngine.Check(Object demand, StackCrawlMark& stackMark, Boolean isPermSet) at System.Security.CodeAccessPermission.Demand() at System.Net.ServicePointManager.set_ServerCertificateValidationCallback(RemoteCertificateValidationCallback value) at NopSolutions.NopCommerce.Payment.Methods.PayFast.PayFastPaymentProcessor.ValidateITNRequestData(NameValueCollection formVariables) The action that failed was: Demand The type of the first permission that failed was: System.Security.Permissions.SecurityPermission The Zone of the assembly that failed was: MyComputer So I am not sure this will work in medium trust? Any help would be much appreciated. Thanks Ben

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  • Stop lazy loading or skip loading a property in NHibernate? Proxy cannot be serialized through WCF

    - by HelloSam
    Consider I have a parent, child relationship class and mapping. I am using NHibernate to read the object from the database, and intended to use WCF to send the object across the wire. Goal For reading the parent object, I want to selectively, at different execution path, decide when I would want to load the child object. Because I don't want to read more than what I needed. Those partially loaded object must be able to sent through WCF. When I mean I don't load it, neither side will access such property. Problem When such partially loaded object is being sent through WCF, as those property is marked as [DataContract], it cannot be serialized as the property is lazy load proxy instead of real known type. What I want to archive, or solution that I can think of lazy=false or lazy=true doesn't work. Former will eagerly fetch all the relationships, latter will create a proxy. But I want nothing instead - a null would be the best. I don't need lazy load. I hope to get a null for those references that I don't want to fetch. A null, but not just a proxy. This will makes WCF happy, and waste less time to have a lazy-load proxy constructed. Like could I have a null proxy factory? -OR- Or making WCF ignoring those property that's a proxy instead of real. I tried the IDataContractSurrogate solution, but only parent is passed to GetObjectToSerialize, I never observe an proxy being passed through GetObjectToSerialize, leaving no chance to un-proxy it. Edit After reading the comments, more surfing on the Internet... It seems to me that DTO would shift major part of the computation to the server side. But for the project I am working on, 50% of time the client is "smarter" than the server and the server is more like a data store with validation and verification. Though I agree the server is not exactly dumb - I have to decide when to fetch the extra references already, and DTO will make this very explicit. Maybe I should just take the pain. I didn't know http://automapper.codeplex.com/ before, this motivates me a little more to take the pain. On the other hand, I found http://trentacular.com/2009/08/how-to-use-nhibernate-lazy-initializing-proxies-with-web-services-or-wcf/, which seems to be working with IDataContractSurrogate.GetObjectToSerialize.

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  • Run MySQL INSERT Query multiple times (insert values into multiple tables)

    - by Derek
    Hi, basically, I have 3 tables; users and projects (which is a many-to-many relationship), then I have 'usersprojects' to allow the one-to-many formation. When a user adds a project, I need the project information stored and then the 'userid' and 'projectid' stored in the usersprojects table. It sounds like its really straight forward but I'm having problems with the syntax I think!? As it stands, I have this as my INSERT queries (values going into 2 different tables): $project_id = $_POST['project_id']; $projectname = $_POST['projectname']; $projectdeadline = $_POST['projectdeadline']; $projectdetails = $_POST['projectdetails']; $user_id = $_POST['user_id']; $sql = "INSERT INTO projects (projectid, projectname, projectdeadline, projectdetails) VALUES ('{$projectid}','{$projectname}','{$projectdeadline}','{$projectdetails}')"; $sql = "INSERT INTO usersprojects (userid, projectid) VALUES ('{$userid}','{$projectid}')"; None of the information is being stored in the projects table, but the user ID is being stored in the usersprojects table (but not project ID!?)... I did have it working where the project information is stored correctly with a project ID, before I added this bit: $sql = "INSERT INTO usersprojects (userid, projectid) VALUES ('{$userid}','{$projectid}')"; But before the code above was put in, obviously no info is being stored in usersprojects table. The source code that links the script: <form id="addform" name="addform" method="POST" action="addproject-run.php"> <label>Project Name:</label> <input name="projectname" size="40" id="projectname" value="<?php if (isset($_POST['projectname'])); ?>"/><br /> <input name="user_id" input type="hidden" size="40" id="user_id" value="<?php echo $_SESSION['SESS_USERID']; ?>"/> <label>Project Deadline:</label> <input name="projectdeadline" size="40" id="projectdeadline" value="In the format of 'YYYY-MM-DD'<?php if (isset($_POST['projectdeadline'])); ?>"/><br /> <label>Project Details:</label> <textarea rows="5" cols="20" name="projectdetails" id="projectdetails"><?php if (isset($_POST['projectdetails'])); ?></textarea> <br /> <br /> <input value="Create Project" class="addbtn" type="submit" /> </form></div> So I think I'm right in saying I have the syntax for the SQL statement to be run an insert query of values into 2 tables? Any help is much appreciated! Thanks.

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2: Updating a Linq-To-Sql Entity with an EntitySet

    - by Simon
    I have a Linq to Sql Entity which has an EntitySet. In my View I display the Entity with it's properties plus an editable list for the child entites. The user can dynamically add and delete those child entities. The DefaultModelBinder works fine so far, it correctly binds the child entites. Now my problem is that I just can't get Linq To Sql to delete the deleted child entities, it will happily add new ones but not delete the deleted ones. I have enabled cascade deleting in the foreign key relationship, and the Linq To Sql designer added the "DeleteOnNull=true" attribute to the foreign key relationships. If I manually delete a child entity like this: myObject.Childs.Remove(child); context.SubmitChanges(); This will delete the child record from the DB. But I can't get it to work for a model binded object. I tried the following: // this does nothing public ActionResult Update(int id, MyObject obj) // obj now has 4 child entities { var obj2 = _repository.GetObj(id); // obj2 has 6 child entities if(TryUpdateModel(obj2)) //it sucessfully updates obj2 and its childs { _repository.SubmitChanges(); // nothing happens, records stay in DB } else ..... return RedirectToAction("List"); } and this throws an InvalidOperationException, I have a german OS so I'm not exactly sure what the error message is in english, but it says something along the lines of that the entity needs a Version (Timestamp row?) or no update check policies. I have set UpdateCheck="Never" to every column except the primary key column. public ActionResult Update(MyObject obj) { _repository.MyObjectTable.Attach(obj, true); _repository.SubmitChanges(); // never gets here, exception at attach } I've read alot about similar "problems" with Linq To Sql, but it seems most of those "problems" are actually by design. So am I right in my assumption that this doesn't work like I expect it to work? Do I really have to manually iterate through the child entities and delete, update and insert them manually? For such a simple object this may work, but I plan to create more complex objects with nested EntitySets and so on. This is just a test to see what works and what not. So far I'm disappointed with Linq To Sql (maybe I just don't get it). Would be the Entity Framework or NHibernate a better choice for this scenario? Or would I run into the same problem?

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  • One-to-one Mapping issue with NHibernate/Fluent: Foreign Key not updateing

    - by Trevor
    Summary: Parent and Child class. One to one relationship between the Parent and Child. Parent has a FK property which references the primary key of the Child. Code as follows: public class NHTestParent { public virtual Guid NHTestParentId { get; set; } public virtual Guid ChildId { get { return ChildRef.NHTestChildId; } set { } } public virtual string ParentName { get; set; } protected NHTestChild _childRef; public virtual NHTestChild ChildRef { get { if (_childRef == null) _childRef = new NHTestChild(); return _childRef; } set { _childRef = value; } } } public class NHTestChild { public virtual Guid NHTestChildId { get; set; } public virtual string ChildName { get; set; } } With the following Fluent mappings: Parent Mapping Id(x => x.NHTestParentId); Map(x => x.ParentName); Map(x => x.ChildId); References(x => x.ChildRef, "ChildId").Cascade.All(); Child Mapping: Id(x => x.NHTestChildId); Map(x => x.ChildName); If I do something like (pseudo code) ... HTestParent parent = new NHTestParent(); parent.ParentName = "Parent 1"; parent.ChildRef.ChildName = "Child 1"; nhibernateSession.SaveOrUpdate(aParent); Commit; ... I get an error: "Invalid index 3 for this SqlParameterCollection with Count=3" If I change the parent 'References' line as follows (i.e. provide the name of the child property I'm pointing at): References(x => x.ChildRef, "ChildId").PropertyRef("NHTestChildId").Cascade.All(); I get the error: "Unable to resolve property: NHTestChildId" So, I tried the 'HasOne()' reference setting, as follows: HasOne<NHTestChild>(x => x.ChildRef).ForeignKey("ChildId").Cascade.All().Fetch.Join(); This results in the save working, but the load fails to find the child. If I inspect the SQL Nhibernate produces I can see that NHibernate is assuming the Primary key of the parent is the link to the child (i.e. load join condition is "parent.NHTestParentId = child.NHTestChildId). The 'ForeignKey' specified appears to be ignored. I can set any value and no error occurs - the join just always fails and no child is returned. I've tried a number of slight variations on the above. It seems like it should be a simple thing to achieve. Any ideas?

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  • MVC2 Client validation with Annotations in View with RenderAction

    - by Olle
    I'm having problem with client side validation on a View that renders a dropdownlist with help of a Html.RenderAction. I have two controllers. SpecieController and CatchController and I've created ViewModels for my views. I want to keep it as DRY as possible and I will most probably need a DropDownList for all Specie elsewhere in the near future. When I create a Catch i need to set a relationship to one specie, I do this with an id that I get from the DropDownList of Species. ViewModels.Catch.Create [Required] public int Length { get; set; } [Required] public int Weight { get; set; } [Required] [Range(1, int.MaxValue)] public int SpecieId { get; set; } ViewModels.Specie.List public DropDownList(IEnumerable<SelectListItem> species) { this.Species = species; } public IEnumerable<SelectListItem> Species { get; private set; } My View for the Catch.Create action uses the ViewModels.Catch.Create as a model. But it feels that I'm missing something in the implemetation. What I want in my head is to connect the selected value in the DropDownList that comes from the RenderAction to my SpecieId. View.Catch.Create <div class="editor-label"> <%: Html.LabelFor(model => model.SpecieId) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%-- Before DRY refactoring, works like I want but not DRY <%: Html.DropDownListFor(model => model.SpecieId, Model.Species) %> --%> <% Html.RenderAction("DropDownList", "Specie"); %> <%: Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.SpecieId) %> </div> CatchController.Create [HttpPost] public ActionResult Create(ViewModels.CatchModels.Create myCatch) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { // Can we make this StronglyTyped? int specieId = int.Parse(Request["Species"]); // Save to db Catch newCatch = new Catch(); newCatch.Length = myCatch.Length; newCatch.Weight = myCatch.Weight; newCatch.Specie = SpecieService.GetById(specieId); newCatch.User = UserService.GetUserByUsername(User.Identity.Name); CatchService.Save(newCatch); } This scenario works but not as smooth as i want. ClientSide validation does not work for SpecieId (after i refactored), I see why but don't know how I can ix it. Can I "glue" the DropDownList SelectedValue into myCatch so I don't need to get the value from Request["Species"] Thanks in advance for taking your time on this.

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  • Cross-table linq query with EF4/POCO

    - by Basiclife
    Hi All, I'm new to EF(any version) and POCO. I'm trying to use POCO entities with a generic repository in a "code-first" mode(?) I've got some POCO Entities (no proxies, no lazy loading, nothing). I have a repository(of T as Entity) which provides me with basic get/getsingle/getfirst functionality which takes a lambda as a parameter (specifically a System.Func(Of T, Boolean)) Now as I'm returning the simplest possible POCO object, none of the relationship parameters work once they've been retrieved from the database (as I would expect). However, I had assumed (wrongly) that my lambda query passed to the repository would be able to use the links between entities as it would be executed against the DB before the simple POCO entities are generated. The flow is: GUI calls: Public Function GetAllTypesForCategory(ByVal CategoryID As Guid) As IEnumerable(Of ItemType) Return ItemTypeRepository.Get(Function(x) x.Category.ID = CategoryID) End Function Get is defined in Repository(of T as Entity): Public Function [Get](ByVal Query As System.Func(Of T, Boolean)) As IEnumerable(Of T) Implements Interfaces.IRepository(Of T).Get Return ObjectSet.Where(Query).ToList() End Function The code doesn't error when this method is called but does when I try to use the result set. (This seems to be a lazy loading behaviour so I tried adding the .ToList() to force eager loading - no difference) I'm using unity/IOC to wire it all up but I believe that's irrelevant to the issue I'm having NB: Relationships between entities are being configured properly and if I turn on proxies/lazy loading/etc... this all just works. I'm intentionally leaving all that turned off as some calls to the BL will be from a website but some will be via WCF - So I want the simplest possible objects. Also, I don't want a change in an object passed to the UI to be committed to the DB if another BL method calls Commit() Can someone please either point out how to make this work or explain why it's not possible? All I want to do is make sure the lambda I pass in is performed against the DB before the results are returned Many thanks. In case it matters, the container is being populated with everything as shown below: Container.AddNewExtension(Of EFRepositoryExtension)() Container.Configure(Of IEFRepositoryExtension)(). WithConnection(ConnectionString). WithContextLifetime(New HttpContextLifetimeManager(Of IObjectContext)()). ConfigureEntity(New CategoryConfig(), "Categories"). ConfigureEntity(New ItemConfig()). ... )

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  • Sharing a UIView between UIViewControllers in a UITabBarController

    - by Wireless Designs
    Hi all - I have a UIScrollView that houses a gallery of images the user can scroll through. This view needs to be visible on each of three separate UIViewControllers that are housed within a UITabBarController. Right now, I have three separate UIScrollView instances in the UITabBarController subclass, and the controller manages keeping the three synchronized (when a user scrolls the one they can see, programmatically scrolling the other two to match, etc.), which is not ideal. I would like to know if there is a way to work with only ONE instance of the UIScrollView, but have it show up only in the UIViewController that the user is currently interacting with. This would completely eliminate all the synchronization code. Here is basically what I have now in the UITabBarController (which is where all this is currently managed): @interface ScrollerTabBarController : UITabBarController { FirstViewController *firstView; SecondViewController *secondView; ThirdViewController *thirdView; UIScrollView *scrollerOne; UIScrollView *scrollerTwo; UIScrollView *scrollerThree; } @property (nonatomic,retain) IBOutlet FirstViewController *firstView; @property (nonatomic,retain) IBOutlet SecondViewController *secondView; @property (nonatomic,retain) IBOutlet ThirdViewController *thirdView; @property (nonatomic,retain) IBOutlet UIScrollView *scrollerOne; @property (nonatomic,retain) IBOutlet UIScrollView *scrollerTwo; @property (nonatomic,retain) IBOutlet UIScrollView *scrollerThree; @end @implementation ScrollerTabBarController - (void)layoutScroller:(UIScrollView *)scroller {} - (void)scrollToMatch:(UIScrollView *)scroller {} - (void)viewDidLoad { [self layoutScroller:scrollerOne]; [self layoutScroller:scrollerTwo]; [self layoutScroller:scrollerThree]; [scrollerOne setDelegate:self]; [scrollerTwo setDelegate:self]; [scrollerThree setDelegate:self]; [firstView setGallery:scrollerOne]; [secondView setGallery:scrollerTwo]; [thirdView setGallery:scrollerThree]; } - (void)scrollViewDidEndDecelerating:(UIScrollView *)scrollView { [self scrollToMatch:scrollView]; } @end The UITabBarController gets notified (as the scroll view's delegate) when the user scrolls one of the instances, and then calls methods like scrollToMatch: to sync up the other two with the user's choice. Is there something that can be done, using a many-to-one relationship on IBOutlet or something like that, to narrow this down to one instance so I'm not having to manage three scroll views? I tried keeping a single instance and moving the pointer from one view to the next using the UITabBarControllerDelegate methods (calling setGallery:nil on the current and setGallery:scrollerOne on the next each time it changed), but the scroller never moved to the other tabs. Thanks in advance!

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  • Deletes not cascading for self-referencing entities

    - by jwaddell
    I have the following (simplified) Hibernate entities: @Entity @Table(name = "package") public class Package { protected Content content; @OneToOne(cascade = {javax.persistence.CascadeType.ALL}) @JoinColumn(name = "content_id") @Fetch(value = FetchMode.JOIN) public Content getContent() { return content; } public void setContent(Content content) { this.content = content; } } @Entity @Table(name = "content") public class Content { private Set<Content> subContents = new HashSet<Content>(); private ArchivalInformationPackage parentPackage; @OneToMany(fetch = FetchType.EAGER) @JoinTable(name = "subcontents", joinColumns = {@JoinColumn(name = "content_id")}, inverseJoinColumns = {@JoinColumn(name = "elt")}) @Cascade(value = {org.hibernate.annotations.CascadeType.DELETE, org.hibernate.annotations.CascadeType.REPLICATE}) @Fetch(value = FetchMode.SUBSELECT) public Set<Content> getSubContents() { return subContents; } public void setSubContents(Set<Content> subContents) { this.subContents = subContents; } @ManyToOne(cascade = {CascadeType.ALL}) @JoinColumn(name = "parent_package_id") public Package getParentPackage() { return parentPackage; } public void setParentPackage(Package parentPackage) { this.parentPackage = parentPackage; } } So there is one Package, which has one "top" Content. The top Content links back to the Package, with cascade set to ALL. The top Content may have many "sub" Contents, and each sub-Content may have many sub-Contents of its own. Each sub-Content has a parent Package, which may or may not be the same Package as the top Content (ie a many-to-one relationship for Content to Package). The relationships are required to be ManyToOne (Package to Content) and ManyToMany (Content to sub-Contents) but for the case I am currently testing each sub-Content only relates to one Package or Content. The problem is that when I delete a Package and flush the session, I get a Hibernate error stating that I'm violating a foreign key constraint on table subcontents, with a particular content_id still referenced from table subcontents. I've tried specifically (recursively) deleting the Contents before deleting the Package but I get the same error. Is there a reason why this entity tree is not being deleted properly? EDIT: After reading answers/comments I realised that a Content cannot have multiple Packages, and a sub-Content cannot have multiple parent-Contents, so I have modified the annotations from ManyToOne and ManyToMany to OneToOne and OneToMany. Unfortunately that did not fix the problem. I have also added the bi-directional link from Content back to the parent Package which I left out of the simplified code.

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  • Fluent NHibernate - How to map a non nullable foreign key that exists in two joined tables

    - by vakman
    I'm mapping a set of membership classes for my application using Fluent NHibernate. I'm mapping the classes to the asp.net membership database structure. The database schema relevant to the problem looks like this: ASPNET_USERS UserId PK ApplicationId FK NOT NULL other user columns ... ASPNET_MEMBERSHIP UserId PK,FK ApplicationID FK NOT NULL other membership columns... There is a one to one relationship between these two tables. I'm attempting to join the two tables together and map data from both tables to a single 'User' entity which looks like this: public class User { public virtual Guid Id { get; set; } public virtual Guid ApplicationId { get; set; } // other properties to be mapped from aspnetuser/membership tables ... My mapping file is as follows: public class UserMap : ClassMap<User> { public UserMap() { Table("aspnet_Users"); Id(user => user.Id).Column("UserId").GeneratedBy.GuidComb(); Map(user => user.ApplicationId); // other user mappings Join("aspnet_Membership", join => { join.KeyColumn("UserId"); join.Map(user => user.ApplicationId); // Map other things from membership to 'User' class } } } If I try to run with the code above I get a FluentConfiguration exception Tried to add property 'ApplicationId' when already added. If I remove the line "Map(user = user.ApplicationId);" or change it to "Map(user = user.ApplicationId).Not.Update().Not.Insert();" then the application runs but I get the following exception when trying to insert a new user: Cannot insert the value NULL into column 'ApplicationId', table 'ASPNETUsers_Dev.dbo.aspnet_Users'; column does not allow nulls. INSERT fails. The statement has been terminated. And if I leave the .Map(user = user.ApplicationId) as it originally was and make either of those changes to the join.Map(user = user.ApplicationId) then I get the same exception above except of course the exception is related to an insert into the aspnet_Membership table So... how do I do this kind of mapping assuming I can't change my database schema?

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  • How do I merge a transient entity with a session using Castle ActiveRecordMediator?

    - by Daniel T.
    I have a Store and a Product entity: public class Store { public Guid Id { get; set; } public int Version { get; set; } public ISet<Product> Products { get; set; } } public class Product { public Guid Id { get; set; } public int Version { get; set; } public Store ParentStore { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } In other words, I have a Store that can contain multiple Products in a bidirectional one-to-many relationship. I'm sending data back and forth between a web browser and a web service. The following steps emulates the communication between the two, using session-per-request. I first save a new instance of a Store: using (new SessionScope()) { // this is data from the browser var store = new Store { Id = Guid.Empty }; ActiveRecordMediator.SaveAndFlush(store); } Then I grab the store out of the DB, add a new product to it, and then save it: using (new SessionScope()) { // this is data from the browser var product = new Product { Id = Guid.Empty, Name = "Apples" }); var store = ActiveRecordLinq.AsQueryable<Store>().First(); store.Products.Add(product); ActiveRecordMediator.SaveAndFlush(store); } Up to this point, everything works well. Now I want to update the Product I just saved: using (new SessionScope()) { // data from browser var product = new Product { Id = Guid.Empty, Version = 1, Name = "Grapes" }; var store = ActiveRecordLinq.AsQueryable<Store>().First(); store.Products.Add(product); // throws exception on this call ActiveRecordMediator.SaveAndFlush(store); } When I try to update the product, I get the following exception: a different object with the same identifier value was already associated with the session: 00000000-0000-0000-0000-000000000000, of entity:Product" As I understand it, the problem is that when I get the Store out of the database, it also gets the Product that's associated with it. Both entities are persistent. Then I tried to save a transient Product (the one that has the updated info from the browser) that has the same ID as the one that's already associated with the session, and an exception is thrown. However, I don't know how to get around this problem. If I could get access to a NHibernate.ISession, I could call ISession.Merge() on it, but it doesn't look like ActiveRecordMediator has anything similar (SaveCopy threw the same exception). Does anyone know the solution? Any help would be greatly appreciated!

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  • link_to passing paramater and display problem - tag feature - Ruby on Rails

    - by bgadoci
    I have gotten a great deal of help from KandadaBoggu on my last question and very very thankful for that. As we were getting buried in the comments I wanted to break this part out. I am attempting to create a tag feature on the rails blog I am developing. The relationship is Post has_many :tags and Tag belongs_to :post. Adding and deleting tags to posts are working great. In my /view/posts/index.html.erb I have a section called tags where I am successfully querying the Tags table, grouping them and displaying the count next to the tag_name (as a side note, I mistakenly called the column containing the tag name, 'tag_name' instead of just 'name' as I should have) . In addition the display of these groups are a link that is referencing the index method in the PostsController. That is where the problem is. When you navigate to /posts you get an error because there is no parameter being passed (without clicking the tag group link). I have the .empty? in there so not sure what is going wrong here. Here is the error and code: Error You have a nil object when you didn't expect it! You might have expected an instance of Array. The error occurred while evaluating nil.empty? /views/posts/index.html.erb <% @tag_counts.each do |tag_name, tag_count| %> <tr> <td><%= link_to(tag_name, posts_path(:tag_name => tag_name)) %></td> <td>(<%=tag_count%>)</td> </tr> <% end %> PostsController def index @tag_counts = Tag.count(:group => :tag_name, :order => 'updated_at DESC', :limit => 10) @posts=Post.all(:joins => :tags,:conditions=>(params[:tag_name].empty? ? {}: { :tags => { :tag_name => params[:tag_name] }} ) ) respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.xml { render :xml => @posts } format.json { render :json => @posts } format.atom end end

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  • Best practices for sending automated daily emails from web service

    - by Tauren
    I am running a web service that currently sends confirmation emails out to new users via the gmail smtp servers. As I'm only getting a few new users each day, this hasn't been a problem. I've recently added new features to the webapp that will require a customized message to be sent out to each user every day. Think of this as similar to the regular messages LinkedIn sends out that give you a status report on the activity in your network. Every user's message will be different. With thousands of users, this means thousands of unique messages will be sent each day. Edit: I've since found that these types of email are called "transactional or relationship messages". Spamtacular has a good article on differentiating between marketing and transactional email. I don't think using gmail's smtp servers will cut it anymore, but I don't know that for sure. I don't know what gmail's maximum outgoing messages per account is (it might be 100/day), but they limit outgoing mail to 500 recipients per message. I'm not sending a single message to 500 recipients, but I'm going to be sending 1000's of customized messages with each recipient getting one per day. I'm interested to learn any best practices for doing this (especially for Java-based webapps). Here are some of my thoughts and concerns on it: Should I set up my own outgoing mail server? If I do this, it seems like I'll have all sorts of other issues to worry about, such as preventing mail server abuse, monitoring bounces, allowing ways to opt-out of emails, etc. Are there any tools or services to help with this? Maybe something like OpenEMM or a services like MailChimp? But those seem focused more toward email marketing campaigns. I don't think I should have the webapp itself handle sending emails as it currently is for new user signups. I'm thinking I should setup a separate messaging server that can access the same backend/datastore as the webapp. Thoughts on this? Should I consider setting up some sort of message queueing service to help with this, such as JMS, RabbitMQ, ActiveMQ, etc.? Do I need to provide users a way to opt-out? Do I need to flag these as bulk messages? I don't really consider these email marketing messages, but I'm unsure what is considered appropriate or proper netiquette. Any advice is appreciated. I'm also very interested in open source tools or web services that simplify things and could help me to ramp up as quickly as possible. Thanks!

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  • Best practices concerning view model and model updates with a subset of the fields

    - by Martin
    By picking MVC for developing our new site, I find myself in the midst of "best practices" being developed around me in apparent real time. Two weeks ago, NerdDinner was my guide but with the development of MVC 2, even it seems outdated. It's an thrilling experience and I feel privileged to be in close contact with intelligent programmers daily. Right now I've stumbled upon an issue I can't seem to get a straight answer on - from all the blogs anyway - and I'd like to get some insight from the community. It's about Editing (read: Edit action). The bulk of material out there, tutorials and blogs, deal with creating and view the model. So while this question may not spell out a question, I hope to get some discussion going, contributing to my decision about the path of development I'm to take. My model represents a user with several fields like name, address and email. All the names, in fact, on field each for first name, last name and middle name. The Details view displays all these fields but you can change only one set of fields at a time, for instance, your names. The user expands a form while the other fields are still visible above and below. So the form that is posted back contains a subset of the fields representing the model. While this is appealing to us and our layout concerns, for various reasons, it is to be shunned by serious MVC-developers. I've been reading about some patterns and best practices and it seems that this is not in key with the paradigm of viewmodel == view. Or have I got it wrong? Anyway, NerdDinner dictates using FormCollection och UpdateModel. All the null fields are happily ignored. Since then, the MVC-community has abandoned this approach to such a degree that a bug in MVC 2 was not discovered. UpdateModel does not work without a complete model in your formcollection. The view model pattern receiving most praise seems to be Dedicated view model that contains a custom view model entity and is the only one that my design issue could be made compatible with. It entails a tedious amount of mapping, albeit lightened by the use of AutoMapper and the ideas of Jimmy Bogard, that may or may not be worthwhile. He also proposes a 1:1 relationship between view and view model. In keeping with these design paradigms, I am to create a view and associated view for each of my expanding sets of fields. The view models would each be nearly identical, differing only in the fields which are read-only, the views also containing much repeated markup. This seems absurd to me. In future I may want to be able to display two, more or all sets of fields open simultaneously. I will most attentively read the discussion I hope to spark. Many thanks in advance.

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