Search Results

Search found 14062 results on 563 pages for 'domain forwarding'.

Page 286/563 | < Previous Page | 282 283 284 285 286 287 288 289 290 291 292 293  | Next Page >

  • Querying and ordering results of a database in grails using transient fields

    - by Azder
    I'm trying to display paged data out of a grails domain object. For example: I have a domain object Employee with the properties firstName and lastName which are transient, and when invoking their setter/getter methods they encrypt/decrypt the data. The data is saved in the database in encrypted binary format, thus not sortable by those fields. And yet again, not sortable by transient ones either, as noted in: http://www.grails.org/GSP+Tag+-+sortableColumn . So now I'm trying to find a way to use the transients in a way similar to: Employee.withCriteria( max: 10, offset: 30 ){ order 'lastName', 'asc' order 'firstName', 'asc' } The class is: class Employee { byte[] encryptedFirstName byte[] encryptedLastName static transients = [ 'firstName', 'lastName' ] String getFirstName(){ decrypt("encryptedFirstName") } void setFirstName(String item){ encrypt("encryptedFirstName",item) } String getLastName(){ decrypt("encryptedLastName") } void setLastName(String item){ encrypt("encryptedLastName",item) } }

    Read the article

  • sendmail and MX records when mail server is not on web host

    - by Jim Nelson
    This is a problem I'm sure is easy to fix, but I've been banging my head on it all day. I'm developing a new web site for a client. The web site resides at (this is an example) website.com. I have a PHP form script to email visitors' requests to [email protected]. When I coded this on a staging server on a different domain, all worked fine. When I moved it to website.com, the mail messages never arrived. The web server is on a virtual host with a major ISP. Here's what I've learned since then: My client's mail server is Microsoft Exchange on a box physically in their office. Whenever someone on the outside world emails [email protected], the mail arrives. But if the web server sends to the same email address, it fails every time. This is not a PHP problem. I secure shell in to the web server and have tested this both with sendmail and the UNIX mail application. I've also tested it by emailing various email accounts from the shell. I can email myself, for example, just nobody at the website.com domain. In short, when I'm logged in to website.com, mail to [email protected], [email protected], [email protected] all fail. All other addresses work fine. What I've discovered is those dropped emails are routed to the web server's "catchall" account where they sit in its inbox. I've done an MX lookup on website.com. The MX record points to mailsec.website.com. I can telnet to mailsec.website.com port 25 and see the SMTP server. It appears to me that website.com isn't doing an MX lookup when it's sending mail to [email protected]. My theory is that it recognizes the domain as local, sees that there's no "requests" user account to deliver it to, and drops the mail into the catchall account. What I want is to force sendmail to do the MX lookup and send the message on to the Exchange server. I'm at wit's end here. I can't figure out how to do this. For that matter, I may be way off base here and have misdiagnosed this entirely. Internet mail and MX has always seemed a black art to me, and my ignorance is certainly showing in this question.

    Read the article

  • iframe form not submitting in IE7

    - by Lauren
    For some reason I can submit the form data on this Review and Submit page here in Chrome and FF but not IE7: https://checkout.netsuite.com/s.nl?c=659197&n=1&sc=4&category=confirm Email:[email protected] Pass:test03 Click on "here" where it says "Your Third Party Shipper Numbers (To enter one, click here.)" I removed my javascript that automatically refreshes the page to make sure that wasn't refreshing before anything was submitted somehow. Could the difference in IE7 have to do with the fact that the domain of the form (forms.netsuite.com) is different than the domain of the parent page(checkout.netsuite.com) and it's being submitted over HTTPS?

    Read the article

  • Grails / GORM, Disable First-level Cache

    - by Stephen Swensen
    Suppose I have the following Domain class mapping to a legacy table, utilizing read-only second-level cache, and having a transient field: class DomainObject { static def transients = ['userId'] Long id Long userId static mapping = { cache usage: 'read-only' table 'SOME_TABLE' } } I have a problem, references to DomainObject are being shared due to first-level caching, and thus transient fields are writing over each other. For example, def r1 = DomainObject.get(1) r1.userId = 22 def r2 = DomainObject.get(1) r2.userId = 34 assert r1.userId == 34 That is, r1 and r2 are references to the same instance. This is undesirable, I would like to cache the table data without sharing references. Any ideas? [Edit] Understanding the situation better now, I believe my question boils down to the following: Is there anyway to disable first level cache for a specific domain class while still using second level cache?

    Read the article

  • How do I do automatic data serialization of data objects in Haskell

    - by Adam Gent
    One of the huge benefits in languages that have some sort of reflection/introspecition is that objects can be automatically constructed from a variety of sources. For example in Java I can use the same objects for persisting to a db (with Hibernate) serializing to XML (with JAXB) or serializing to JSON (json-lib). You can do the same in Ruby and Python also usually following some simple rules for properties or annotations for Java. Thus I don't need lots "Domain Transfer Objects". I can concentrate on the domain I am working in. It seems in very strict FP like Haskell and Ocaml this is not possible. Particularly Haskell. The only thing I have seen is doing some sort of preprocessing or meta-programming (ocaml). Is it just accepted that you have to do all the transformations from the bottom upwards? In other words you have to do lot of boring work to turn a data type in haskell into JSON/XML/DB Row object and back again into a data object.

    Read the article

  • Active Directory: User UPN or DN for NTLM name, using pure LDAP?

    - by Bernd Haug
    I have a Java app that can authenticate to LDAP by logging users into the AD LDAP server with the NTLM name (which they are used to - this is a requirement). I now also need to do authorization, and hence need to find a forest-unique identifier for the user (DN or UPN should work), from which I can further query the directory. The method needs to be absolutely portable, even if the AD is structured in an unusual fashion, otherwise I could just do a string replacement and search for a UPN of "${ntlm-user}@${ntlm-domain}.${configured-trailing-domain}" How can I do this, using pure LDAP? Currently, I'm using the java.naming.directory package, which I'd like to keep using, since it doesn't throw up problems when not binding with a DN but logging in with an NTLM name?

    Read the article

  • C#: Check if administrator has write access to a file

    - by Bilal Aslam
    The Problem: I need to check if a user (local user or domain user, either one is possible) has write access to a file (if you're curious, %windir%\system32\inetsrv\applicationHost.config. This file is protected by Windows and you need to be an administrator to write to it.) My Solution: The general construct is: using (Impersonator impersonator = new Impersonator(domain, username, password)) { try { using (FileStream fs = File.OpenWrite(appHostConfigPath)) { return true; } catch { return false; } } As you can imagine, the Impersonator class is an IDisposible which uses native interop to call LogonUser. Nothing too creative, and it works. Where I am stuck: On Windows OSs with UAC enabled, this function always return false even if the user specified by username is an administrator. Even though my program is running elevated as an administrator, I suspect what's happening is that the impersonated code is running as a limited administrator. Hence, the method is returning false. I don't have any creative solutions to this. Can anyone help?

    Read the article

  • PowerShell 2.0 and how to handle exceptions ?

    - by Primoz
    Why I get error message printed on the console when running these two simple samples ? I want that I get "Error testing :)" printed on the console insted of: Get-WmiObject : The RPC server is unavailable. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x800706BA) At line:3 char:15 + Get-WmiObject <<<< -ComputerName possibly.nonexisting.domain.com -Credential (Get-Credential) -Class Win32_logicaldisk + CategoryInfo : InvalidOperation: (:) [Get-WmiObject], COMException + FullyQualifiedErrorId : GetWMICOMException,Microsoft.PowerShell.Commands.GetWmiObjectCommand or Attempted to divide by zero. At line:3 char:13 + $i = 1/ <<<< 0 + CategoryInfo : NotSpecified: (:) [], ParentContainsErrorRecordException + FullyQualifiedErrorId : RuntimeException First example: try { $i = 1/0 Write-Host $i } catch [Exception] { Write-Host "Error testing :)" } Second example: try { Get-WmiObject -ComputerName possibly.nonexisting.domain.com -Credential (Get-Credential) -Class Win32_logicaldisk } catch [Exception] { Write-Host "Error testing :)" } Thank you very much!

    Read the article

  • apache mod_rewrite redirection problem

    - by warttack
    ok i am having a problem with redirection on apache, i have a domain configured on my hosting account but the domain needs to be redirected to a folder. eg: / is root of server where the mysite.com answers /mysite is where the files are so i got this htaccess code to do the job: Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^(www.)?mysite.com$ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/mysite/ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /mysite/$1 RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^(www.)?mysite.com$ RewriteRule ^(/)?$ mysite/index.php [L] plus i made an index.php to redirect to mysite folder. everything seems to be working good the only problem is i added a forum on /mysite/forums/ and for some reason instead of getting mysite.com/forums/ in the browser im getting mysite.com/mysite/forums/ could anyone help me solve this problem? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • How to create a RESTful web service in asp.net?

    - by jonhobbs
    Hi Guys, I simply want to create a fairly basic REST service, so that I can expose some of the data in my asp.net/SQL server application to the outside works, like this..... http://domain.com/api/offices - would return an xml set of office locations. http://domain.com/api/offices/15 - would return all the details of office 15. It's all fairly standard stuff (including basic authentication) but there seem to be several ways to achieve this using Microsoft technologies and I don't really know where to start. These seem to be the options... 1) WCF 2) ASP.NET MVC 3) ADO.NET Data Services 4) Rest Starter Kit project templates? Which of these is the easiest and most "up-to-date" solution to creating a web service?

    Read the article

  • Is there a way to circumvent CA1726:UsePreferredTerms?

    - by klausbyskov
    I have a problem with the code analysis rule CA1726:UsePreferredTerms. Our business domain has two crucial concepts named Case and Flag. According to CA, it's apparently a deadly sin to use these names, however I really don't care since, as I said, they are crucial concepts in our domain model. CA complains not only about the type declarations but about every method parameter-name aswell. So does anyone know if there is a workaround other than adding loads of suppressions or disabling the rule altogether? Could I add the names to a custom dictionary?

    Read the article

  • Prepend 'www' to an HTTPS url using .htaccess & mod_rewrite

    - by webfac
    I have a dilemma with this one. With the following code I am able to force SSL on any non SSL url, however when the user (and results from Google) take the user to http://mysite.co.za then we hit an issue as the url is then rewritten to https://mysite.co.za Due to the fact that my certificate is bound to www.mysite.co.za it immediately throws a security error because of the missing 'www' in the url. Can someone point out a way to add the www to the domain when the domain starts with HTTPS and not HTTP? Much appreciated. And the current code to add the https:// is as follows: RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^www\. RewriteCond %{HTTPS}s ^on(s)| RewriteRule ^ http%1://www.%{HTTP_HOST}%{REQUEST_URI} [L,R=301]

    Read the article

  • Tabbed javascript widget for a Rails app

    - by neilc
    A user registers on our Rails app and they're given javascript to embed a widget in their website. The widget has a tabbed interface, like the JQuery tabs http://stilbuero.de/jquery/tabs_3/. iFrames have been tested, but the widget form factor and cross-domain policy negates the use of iframes. The widget is very dynamic and will often update the DOM with new content - and because of cross-domain policy, it looks as though JSONP is necessary. I understand that 'widget.js.erb' needs to create the widget layout, reference a stylesheet, render the tabs, etc - but once a tab is clicked, how does the widget request the content from the Rails app and render it in the DOM?

    Read the article

  • Getting two variables in the URL with htaccess

    - by Wayne
    What way it is to be to get two GET methods in the URL by htaccess? RewriteRule ^adm/(.*)$ adm.php?mode=$1 I've used that for the example URL: http://www.domain.com/adm/thismode Now I want to get two methods like: http://www.domain.com/adm/thismode/othermode I've tried this: RewriteRule ^adm/(.*)$/(.*)$ adm.php?mode=$1&othermode=$2 But doesn't seem to work... how do I get it to do that? EDIT: $mode1 = $_GET['mode']; $mode2 = $_GET['othermode']; Like this...

    Read the article

  • GWT : Type of Container

    - by moorsu
    I see that there are two ways of transferring objects from server to client Use the same domain object (Contact.java) as used in the service layer. (I do not use hibernate) Use the HashMap to send the domain object field values in the form of Map with the help of BeanUtilsBean class. For multiple objects, use the List. Similary, use the Map to submit form values from client to server Is there any performance advantage for option 1 over 2?. Is there a way to hide the classname/package name that is sent to the browser if we use option 1?. thanks!.

    Read the article

  • Tricking the server to load files faster?

    - by Yongho
    If we have a website with multiple images and videos, I've read that it's best to serve them from other domains so that the browser can simultaneously download a bunch of files, rather than waiting one by one for each file to be downloaded. For example, if we have a website http://example.com/, we might consider serving: Videos from http://video.example.com/ Images from http://images.example.com/ etc. Question: can we achieve the simultaneous downloading by tricking the browser into believing that the files are hosted there, or do they actually need to be at that location? We can, for example, pretend to serve video from http://video.example.com/ when actually it's just a clever htaccess rewrite that ACTUALLY serves from http://example.com/video.php. In this case, the video is being served from the main domain but because we refer it as http://video.example.com/, it may think that it's another domain and thus load files simultaneously, rather than one by one. Is this feasible?

    Read the article

  • Should I be concerned about performance with connections to multiple databases?

    - by Josh Ryan
    I have a PHP app that is running on an Apache server with MySQL databases. Based on the subdomain that users access, I am connecting them to a database (sub1.domain.com connects to database_sub1 and sub2.domain.com connects to database_sub2). Right now there are 10 subdomain-database combos, but that number could potentially grow to well over 100. So, is this a bad thing? Considering my situation, is myslq_pconnect a better way to go? Thanks, and please let me know if more info would be helpful. Josh

    Read the article

  • Jquery Uploader not saving to a folder in the site root

    - by Iain Simpson
    im trying to integrate the Jquery Uploader into my website http://blueimp.github.com/jQuery-File-Upload/ The problem I am having is that I cant seem to get it save the folder I want to to save to. In the UploadHander.php I have the following settings 'script_url' => $this->get_full_url().'/', 'upload_dir' => dirname($_SERVER['SCRIPT_FILENAME']).'./images/machinery/', 'upload_url' => $this->get_full_url().'./images/machinery/', This results in an image uploaded url that looks like this http://domain.com/rcsetch/up/server/php/machinery/image.jpg Other than putting my php files in the root of the website, im not sure how to get it to work, as what I want it to do is upload the files to http://domain.com/images/machinery and not to the create a folder in the directory where all the php files for the uploader are located.

    Read the article

  • Can only access asp.net app on localhost

    - by Kevin Donn
    I'm trying to get an asp.net application up on IIS on a Windows Server 2008 machine. I can hit the app from localhost, no problem. But I can't access the app using the server's domain name either locally or from another machine on the network. But here's the odd part. I can access a normal file on IIS using the domain name, both from a browser running on the server and from a browser running on another machine on the network. Here's a synopsis ("http" converted to "htp" below because I don't have enough points to have all these links in my message): From IE on the server itself: works htp://localhost/foo.htm works htp://localhost/App works htp://test.foo.com/foo.htm dead htp://test.foo.com/App From IE on another machine: works htp://test.foo.com/foo.htm dead htp://test.foo.com/App And when I say "dead" I mean the request times out. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Can a client determine whether the server has accept()'d a unix socket?

    - by Havoc P
    I'm dealing with a buggy server that will sometimes fail to accept() connections (but leaves its listening socket open). This is on Linux with unix domain sockets. Currently the only way to detect this is that after sending a bunch of data, the buffer fills up and blocks, and the server isn't sending any replies. This long-after-the-fact failure mode is hard to distinguish from other bugs - the server could be unresponsive for other reasons. Especially for unix domain sockets it seems the kernel should know whether accept() has occurred; is there any way to find this out? Can the client block until accept() happens somehow, or at least check whether it has? This is just for debugging purposes so it can be a little ugly.

    Read the article

  • How to rewrite to a virtual directory with a different application

    - by Eytan Levit
    Hi, I have a CMS application that manages multiple websites, today whenever i change the codebehind of one of these websites - i have to rebuild the dll for all websites, deploy it - this disconnects all current sessions and is really bad. The iis is configured to listen to all domain requests, if the request is to one of the websites' domain , the application rewrites it, or example, if someone requests for http://www.example.com, and example.com is configured in the application to be website 12, it is rewritten to http://www.example.com/websites/12/default.aspx. This is done for all websites. We want to seperate the dlls of the websites from each other, and from the main CMS, we have a virtual directory to each websites, but when trying to rewrite to it, we discover that IIS support this (we get an "Could not load type '_12._Default'". error). How can we perform this rewrite so it does rewrite to virtual directories, or if anyone has any other solution for the initial dll seperation problem. Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • Powershell and some simple string manipulation

    - by Pat
    need some help with building a powershell script to help with some basic string manipulation. I know just enough powershell to get in trouble, but can't figure out the syntax or coding to make this work. I have a text file that looks like this - Here is your list of servers: server1 server2.domain.local server3 Total number of servers: 3 I need to take that text file and drop the first and last lines (Always first and last.) Then I need to take every other line and basically turn it into a CSV file. The final output should be a text file that looks like this - server1,server2.domain.local,server3 Any suggestions on where to start? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Redirects in RoR: Which one to use?

    - by scrr
    Hello, we are making a website that takes a generated incoming link and forwards the user who is clicking on it to another website while saving a record of the action in our DB. I guess it's basically what ad-services like AdSense do. However, what is the best way to redirect the user? I think html-meta-tag-redirects are out of question. So what other options are there? head :moved_permanently, :location => "http://www.domain.com/" This one is a 301-redirect. The next one is a 302: redirect_to "http://www.domain.com" Are there any others? And which is best to use for our case? The links are highly-dynamic and change all the time. We want to make sure we don't violate any existing standards and of course we don't want search-engines to tag us as spammers (which we are not, btw). Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Is a .Net membership database portable, or are accounts somehow bound to the originating Web site or

    - by Deane
    I have an ASP.Net Web site using .Net Membership with a SQL Server provider, so the users and roles are stored in the SQL tables created by Aspnet_regsql.exe. Is this architecture totally self-contained and portable, or are users in it somehow bound to the specific Web site on which they create their account? Put another way, if we create a bunch of users in dev or UAT, the back up and restore this database to another server, accessed under another domain name, should it still work just fine? We're seeing some odd behavior when we move the database, like users losing group affiliation and such, and I'm curious how portable and environment-agnostic this database really is. I have a sneaking suspicion that something is bound to the machine key or the domain.

    Read the article

  • Apache issue with subdomains

    - by mike
    I just setup a subdomain with the following RewriteCond: RewriteCond $1 !^search.php$ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteRule ^/?([^/]+)$ search.php?q=$1 [L,NS] I'm using the same rewrite condition on my main domain and it works perfectly. However, when I set it up on the subdomain, it simply outputs "index.php" when going to http://subdomain.domain.com Every page on the subdomain outputs the page name in the body instead of processing the code, except for the search page, which appears to be working correctly. Any idea why every page but the search page works? What can I do to correct it?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 282 283 284 285 286 287 288 289 290 291 292 293  | Next Page >