Search Results

Search found 8687 results on 348 pages for 'per ersson'.

Page 286/348 | < Previous Page | 282 283 284 285 286 287 288 289 290 291 292 293  | Next Page >

  • Approaches for animating a C# property over time?

    - by Mario Fritsch
    I'm currently trying to animate a bunch of public properties on certain objects. Usually they are of type float or vectors of floats (the type is known at compile-time). I want to be able to: assign a static value to them (MyObject.Duration = 10f;) or assign a random value to them by specifying a minimum and maximum value and optionally also a weight (MyObject.Duration = new RandomFloat(5f, 20f, 2f);) or "bind" this property to the property of another object (think of a child object binding some of its properties to its parent object, like its color or size or sth.) or assign sort of a keyframe animation to them, specifying a variable number of keyframes with timecode and the property's value at that specific point in time as well as information about how to interpolate between these frames The keyframes should be able to accept random values for each frame, both for the time and the property's value. What would be a practical approach for this kind of system? Currently I'm thinking about polymorphism: implement a base class or interface with a public Value-property and/or GetValue(float time)-method and then creating different sub classes like StaticValue, RandomValue, BindingValue and AnimatedValue implementing this base class or interface. Doesn't seem very elegant, though, and the initialization of even simple objects becomes a bit tedious. Another idea would be to implement these properties just as regular floats or vectors and create special "Modifier"-types binding to these properties. To retrieve the "real" value of the property, I'd first call any Modifier bound to the property, which would in turn update the actual object's property for me to retrieve later on. That would most likely mean using reflection at some point, which could be quite bad for performance as I'll probably have thousands of properties to update dozens of times per second. Any suggestions on this? Being a novice I'm (hopefully) missing some far more elegant and/or practical solution than I'm already playing around with :( Edit: Probably should have mentioned this earlier, but WPF isn't an option - it's not available on all targetted platforms, so I can't rely on it. I'm aware of its powerful databinding and animation capabilities, but I need to roll my own (or find some other lightweight alternative meeting my needs).

    Read the article

  • Need to exclude results in a MySQL query where two table fields are not of certain values (brain far

    - by DondeEstaMiCulo
    I don't know if I'm just burnt out and can't think, or what... But I can't seem to make this work right... (We're using MySQL 5.1...) I have two tables which have some transactional stuff stored in them. There will be many records per user_id in each table. Table1 and Table2 have a one-to-one relationship with each other. I want to pull records from both tables, but I want to exclude records which have certain values in both tables. I don't care if they both don't have these values, or if just one does, but both tables should not have both values. (Does this make any sense? lol) For example: SELECT t1.id, t1.type, t2.name FROM table1 t1 INNER JOIN table2 t2 ON table.xid = table2.id WHERE t1.user_id = 100 AND (t1.type != 'FOO' AND t2.name != 'BAR') So t1.type is type ENUM with about 10 different options, and t2.name is also type ENUM with 2 options. My expected results would look a little like: 1, FOO, YUM 2, BOO, BAR 3, BOO, YUM But instead, all I'm getting is: 3, BOO, YUM Because it's filtering out all records which has 'FOO' as the type, and 'BAR' as the name. I keep waiting for that D'oh! moment where it hits me and I feel like an idiot for not realizing what I'm doing wrong. But it hasn't come. And I still feel like an idiot, lol. I appreciate any light any of you can shed on this! Many thanks in advance for the help!

    Read the article

  • web service slowdown

    - by user238591
    Hi, I have a web service slowdown. My (web) service is in gsoap & managed C++. It's not IIS/apache hosted, but speaks xml. My client is in .NET The service computation time is light (<0.1s to prepare reply). I expect the service to be smooth, fast and have good availability. I have about 100 clients, response time is 1s mandatory. Clients have about 1 request per minute. Clients are checking web service presence by tcp open port test. So, to avoid possible congestion, I turned gSoap KeepAlive to false. Until there everything runs fine : I bearly see connections in TCPView (sysinternals) New special synchronisation program now calls the service in a loop. It's higher load but everything is processed in less 30 seconds. With sysinternals TCPView, I see that about 1 thousands connections are in TIME_WAIT. They slowdown the service and It takes seconds for the service to reply, now. Could it be that I need to reset the SoapHttpClientProtocol connection ? Someone has TIME_WAIT ghosts with a web service call in a loop ?

    Read the article

  • Mysql query in drupal database - groupwise maximum with duplicate data

    - by nselikoff
    I'm working on a mysql query in a Drupal database that pulls together users and two different cck content types. I know people ask for help with groupwise maximum queries all the time... I've done my best but I need help. This is what I have so far: # the artists SELECT users.uid, users.name AS username, n1.title AS artist_name FROM users LEFT JOIN users_roles ur ON users.uid=ur.uid INNER JOIN role r ON ur.rid=r.rid AND r.name='artist' LEFT JOIN node n1 ON n1.uid = users.uid AND n1.type = 'submission' WHERE users.status = 1 ORDER BY users.name; This gives me data that looks like: uid username artist_name 1 foo Joe the Plumber 2 bar Jane Doe 3 baz The Tooth Fairy Also, I've got this query: # artwork SELECT n.nid, n.uid, a.field_order_value FROM node n LEFT JOIN content_type_artwork a ON n.nid = a.nid WHERE n.type = 'artwork' ORDER BY n.uid, a.field_order_value; Which gives me data like this: nid uid field_order_value 1 1 1 2 1 3 3 1 2 4 2 NULL 5 3 1 6 3 1 Additional relevant info: nid is the primary key for an Artwork every Artist has one or more Artworks valid data for field_order_value is NULL, 1, 2, 3, or 4 field_order_value is not necessarily unique per Artist - an Artist could have 4 Artworks all with field_order_value = 1. What I want is the row with the minimum field_order_value from my second query joined with the artist information from the first query. In cases where the field_order_value is not valuable information (either because the Artist has used duplicate values among their Artworks or left that field NULL), I would like the row with the minimum nid from the second query.

    Read the article

  • Creating many polygons with OpenGL is slow?

    - by user146780
    I want to draw many polygons to the screen but i'm quickly noticing that it slows down quickly. As a test I did this: for(int i = 0; i < 50; ++i) { glBegin( GL_POLYGON); glColor3f( 0.0f, 1, 0.0f ); glVertex2f( 500.0 + frameGL.GetCameraX(), 0.0f + frameGL.GetCameraY()); glColor3f( 0.0f, 1.0f, 0.0f ); glVertex2f( 900.0 + frameGL.GetCameraX(), 0.0f + frameGL.GetCameraY()); glColor3f( 0.0f, 0.0f, 0.5 ); glVertex2f(900.0 + frameGL.GetCameraX(), 500.0f + frameGL.GetCameraY() + (150)); glColor3f( 0.0f, 1.0f, 0.0f ); glVertex2f( 500 + frameGL.GetCameraX(), 500.0f + frameGL.GetCameraY()); glColor3f( 1.0f, 1.0f, 0.0f ); glVertex2f( 300 + frameGL.GetCameraX(), 200.0f + frameGL.GetCameraY()); glEnd(); } This is only 50 polygons and already it's gtting slow. I can't upload them directly to the card because my program will allow the user to reshape the verticies. My question is, how can I speed this up. I'm not using depth. I also know it's not my GetCamera() functions because if I create 500,000 polygons spread apart t's fine, it just has trouble showing them in the view. If a graphics card can support 500,000,000 on screen polygons per second, this should be easy right? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Crystal Reports.NET problems accessing FieldObject for page count

    - by Stuart A
    Hi, We're using Crystal Reports.NET that was bundled with VS2005. We have a confirmation booking form letter report that we want to batch print. Generally this prints one page per person on letterhead paper, however occasionally if they've booked lots of courses the letter rolls over to two pages. The second page should not be printed to letterhead paper. Basically, because it's a rare occurance I was just going to print the lot and pause if a particular letter went over 1 page. I.e. Load the report, grab the page count, hollah at the user if it's more than one page otherwise carry on regardless. I have dropped a TotalPageCount on the footer of my report (Which I would supress if it worked!) and then try and read it in my application. Once I've loaded the document I am trying to call report.ReportDefinition.ReportObjects("TotalPageCount1") Which is of type CrystalDecisions.CrystalReports.Engine.FieldObject I cannot seem to get the value out of this for love nor money (nor any amount of cursing and swearing!) I can read any items of type TextObject, but if I append the TotalPageCount to a text field, it shows correctly in the report but then returns "Page count: TotalPageCount" rather than "Page count: 1" for example. Soo, short of going out of my mind, does anyone have any suggestions? Either a way to read the value or a way round it. The printer doesn't have multiple trays, though even if we got one, I'm not sure how to convince crystal to print different pages to different trays. Best regards, Stuart P.S. - is it a sign that the "crystal-reports" tag has a count of 666? :O(

    Read the article

  • Python program to search for specific strings in hash values (coding help)

    - by Diego
    Trying to write a code that searches hash values for specific string's (input by user) and returns the hash if searchquery is present in that line. Doing this to kind of just learn python a bit more, but it could be a real world application used by an HR department to search a .csv resume database for specific words in each resume. I'd like this program to look through a .csv file that has three entries per line (id#;applicant name;resume text) I set it up so that it creates a hash, then created a string for the resume text hash entry, and am trying to use the .find() function to return the entire hash for each instance. What i'd like is if the word "gpa" is used as a search query and it is found in s['resumetext'] for three applicants(rows in .csv file), it prints the id, name, and resume for every row that has it.(All three applicants) As it is right now, my program prints the first row in the .csv file(print resume['id'], resume['name'], resume['resumetext']) no matter what the searchquery is, whether it's in the resumetext or not. lastly, are there better ways to doing this, by searching word documents, pdf's and .txt files in a folder for specific words using python (i've just started reading about the re module and am wondering if this may be the route, rather than putting everything in a .csv file.) def find_details(id2find): resumes_f=open("resume_data.csv") for each_line in resumes_f: s={} (s['id'], s['name'], s['resumetext']) = each_line.split(";") resumetext = str(s['resumetext']) if resumetext.find(id2find): return(s) else: print "No data matches your search query. Please try again" searchquery = raw_input("please enter your search term") resume = find_details(searchquery) if resume: print resume['id'], resume['name'], resume['resumetext']

    Read the article

  • Where clause on joined table used for user defined key/value pairs

    - by Steve Wright
    Our application allows administrators to add “User Properties” in order for them to be able to tailor the system to match their own HR systems. For example, if your company has departments, you can define “Departments” in the Properties table and then add values that correspond to “Departments” such as “Jewelry”, “Electronics” etc… You are then able to assign a department to users. Here is the schema: In this schema, a User can have only one UserPropertyValue per Property, but doesn’t have to have a value for the property. I am trying to build a query that will be used in SSRS 2005 and also have it use the PropertyValues as the filter for users. My query looks like this: SELECT UserLogin, FirstName, LastName FROM Users U LEFT OUTER JOIN UserPropertyValues UPV ON U.ID = UPV.UserID WHERE UPV.PropertyValueID IN (1, 5) When I run this, if the user has ANY of the property values, they are returned. What I would like to have is where this query will return users that have values BY PROPERTY. So if PropertyValueID = 1 is of Department (Jewelry), and PropertyValueID = 5 is of EmploymentType (Full Time), I want to return all users that are in Department Jewelry that are EmployeeType of Full Time, can this be done? Here's a full data example: User A has Department(Jewelry value = 1) and EmploymentType(FullTime value = 5)User B has Department(Electronics value = 2) and EmploymentType(FullTime value = 5)User C has Department(Jewelry value = 1) and EmployementType(PartTime value = 6) My query should only return User A using the above query UPDATE: I should state that this query is used as a dataset in SSRS, so the parameter passed to the query will be @PropertyIDs and it is defined as a multi-value parameter in SSRS. WHERE UPV.PropertyValueID IN (@PropertyIDs)

    Read the article

  • How to check if there is an active session in a JSF page?

    - by Roberto de Santis
    Hi, there is a way to check if there is an active session directly in jsf page? I have try this but it doesn't work: <p:ajaxStatus onerror="#{session == null ? 'idleDialog.show();' : null}" thank you in advance @Update I have see that onerror isn't fired even if viewExpiredException occurr. @Update 1 Ok i have implemented something that may work: <h:form> <p:idleMonitor timeout="10000" idleListener="#{idleMonitorController.idleListener}" onidle="sessionPoll.stop();idleDialog.show();"/> </h:form> <p:dialog header="Sessione scaduta per inattività" widgetVar="idleDialog" modal="true" width="400"> <h:outputText value="Sessione scaduta" /> <h:button value="Ripristina Sessione" onclick="idleDialog.hide();sessionPoll.start();" /> </p:dialog> <h:form prependId="false"> <p:poll widgetVar="sessionPoll" interval="1"/> </h:form> and this is the listner: public void idleListener(IdleEvent event) { System.out.println("aaaa"); final HttpServletRequest request = (HttpServletRequest) FacesContext.getCurrentInstance().getExternalContext().getRequest(); request.getSession(false).invalidate(); } now the only problem is that the session.invalidate doesn't work

    Read the article

  • Forwarding HTTP Request with Direct Server Return

    - by Daniel Crabtree
    I have servers spread across several data centers, each storing different files. I want users to be able to access the files on all servers through a single domain and have the individual servers return the files directly to the users. The following shows a simple example: 1) The user's browser requests http://www.example.com/files/file1.zip 2) Request goes to server A, based on the DNS A record for example.com. 3) Server A analyzes the request and works out that /files/file1.zip is stored on server B. 4) Server A forwards the request to server B. 5) Server B returns file1.zip directly to the user without going through server A. Note: steps 4 and 5 must be transparent to the user and cannot involve sending a redirect to the user as that would violate the requirement of a single domain. From my research, what I want to achieve is called "Direct Server Return" and it is a common setup for load balancing. It is also sometimes called a half reverse proxy. For step 4, it sounds like I need to do MAC Address Translation and then pass the request back onto the network and for servers outside the network of server A tunneling will be required. For step 5, I simply need to configure server B, as per the real servers in a load balancing setup. Namely, server B should have server A's IP address on the loopback interface and it should not answer any ARP requests for that IP address. My problem is how to actually achieve step 4? I have found plenty of hardware and software that can do this for simple load balancing at layer 4, but these solutions fall short and cannot handle the kind of custom routing I require. It seems like I will need to roll my own solution. Ideally, I would like to do the routing / forwarding at the web server level, i.e. in PHP or C# / ASP.net. However, I am open to doing it at a lower level such as Apache or IIS, or at an even lower level, i.e. a custom proxy service in front of everything.

    Read the article

  • Load images into separate movie clips from a XML, Flash, Actionscript 3.0

    - by James Dunay
    I have an xml image bank, pretty standard, and I have a loader, along with movie clips that I want the images loaded into, the problem that I am running into is I want the images to load into separate movie clips, so I’m using a case statement to specify where they go. However, I can only get them to load into a single movie clip, I assume they are loading ontop of each other and I don’t know how to get them to separate out. I’ll post my code. It doesn’t make any sense to me but if you have any suggestions that would be real great. I can make separate loaders and then just do 1 image per loader, but that just doesn’t sound right to me. var counterNumber:Number = 0; function callThumbs():void{ for (var i:Number = 0; i <3; i++){ thumbLoaded(); counterNumber++; } } function thumbLoaded(){ var photoLoader = new Loader(); switch (counterNumber){ case 1: photoLoader.load(new URLRequest(MovieClip(this.parent).xml.photos.imageOne.image.@url[0])); whole.boxOne.pictureLoader.addChild(photoLoader); trace("1Done"); break; case 2: photoLoader.load(new URLRequest(MovieClip(this.parent).xml.photos.imageTwo.image.@url[0])); whole.boxTwo.pictureLoader.addChild(photoLoader); trace("2Done"); break; } }

    Read the article

  • validation controls are not validating on enabling on client side using java script, plz guide

    - by haansi
    Hi, As per requirement I disabled all validation controls in page on PageLoad event in server side. On clicking submit button I want to activate them and validate the page and if the page is ok submit other wise not. I am able to enable all validaters but one thing that I am unable to understand is that they do not validate the page. I set alerts and check they are being enabled but they do not validate the page and let the page submit. I am sorry I couldn't get where I am wrong, may be there need to call some validation method as well or I should prevent default behavior of button. please guide me. Below is my script: <script type="text/javascript"> function NextClicked() { var _ddlStatus = document.getElementById("<%=ddlEmpStatus.ClientID%>"); var _selectedIndex = _ddlStatus.selectedIndex; if (_selectedIndex == 0) { alert("Nothing selected"); }<br/> else<br/> if (_selectedIndex == 1) { for (i = 0; i < Page_Validators.length; i++) { Page_Validators[i].Enabled = true; } } } </script> thanks in anticipation.

    Read the article

  • C# Combining lines

    - by Mike
    Hey everybody, this is what I have going on. I have two text files. Umm lets call one A.txt and B.txt. A.txt is a config file that contains a bunch of folder names, only 1 listing per folder. B.txt is a directory listing that contains folders names and sizes. But B contains a bunch of listing not just 1 entry. What I need is if B, contains A. Take all lines in B that contain A and write it out as A|B|B|B ect.... So example: A.txt: Apple Orange Pear XBSj HEROE B.txt: Apple|3123123 Apple|3434 Orange|99999999 Orange|1234544 Pear|11 Pear|12 XBSJ|43949 XBSJ|43933 Result.txt: Apple|3123123|3434 Orange|99999999|1234544 Pear|11|12 XBSJ|43949|43933 This is what I had but it's not really doing what I needed. string[] combineconfig = File.ReadAllLines(@"C:\a.txt"); foreach (string ccline in combineconfig) { string[] readlines = File.ReadAllLines(@"C:\b.txt"); if (readlines.Contains(ccline)) { foreach (string rdlines in readlines) { string[] pslines = rdlines.Split('|'); File.AppendAllText(@"C:\result.txt", ccline + '|' + pslines[0]); } } I know realize it's not going to find the first "if" because it reads the entire line and cant find it. But i still believe my output file will not contain what I need.

    Read the article

  • Grails - Removing an item from a hasMany association List on data bind?

    - by ecrane
    Grails offers the ability to automatically create and bind domain objects to a hasMany List, as described in the grails user guide. So, for example, if my domain object "Author" has a List of many "Book" objects, I could create and bind these using the following markup (from the user guide): <g:textField name="books[0].title" value="the Stand" /> <g:textField name="books[1].title" value="the Shining" /> <g:textField name="books[2].title" value="Red Madder" /> In this case, if any of the books specified don't already exist, Grails will create them and set their titles appropriately. If there are already books in the specified indices, their titles will be updated and they will be saved. My question is: is there some easy way to tell Grails to remove one of those books from the 'books' association on data bind? The most obvious way to do this would be to omit the form element that corresponds to the domain instance you want to delete; unfortunately, this does not work, as per the user guide: Then Grails will automatically create a new instance for you at the defined position. If you "skipped" a few elements in the middle ... Then Grails will automatically create instances in between. I realize that a specific solution could be engineered as part of a command object, or as part of a particular controller- however, the need for this functionality appears repeatedly throughout my application, across multiple domain objects and for associations of many different types of objects. A general solution, therefore, would be ideal. Does anyone know if there is something like this included in Grails?

    Read the article

  • uploading images with the help of arrays and fetch errors

    - by bonny
    i use a script to upload a couple of images to a directory. the code works great in case of just one picture will be uploaded. if i like to upload two images or more and have an extension that is not accepted, the script will upload the one with the extension that is allowed to upload and shows the errormessage for the one who is not accepted. but the upload takes place. that's my first problem. second problem will be: in case of an errormessage i would like to display a message in which it is said, which of the images will be not allowed. i do not know how to fetch this one that has an unaccepted ending into a variable that i can echo to the errormessage. here is the code i use: if(!empty($_FILES['image']['tmp_name'])){ $allowed_extension = array('jpg', 'jpeg', 'png', 'bmp', 'tiff', 'gif'); foreach($_FILES['image']['name'] as $key => $array_value){ $file_name = $_FILES['image']['name'][$key]; $file_size = $_FILES['image']['size'][$key]; $file_tmp = $_FILES['image']['tmp_name'][$key]; $file_extension = strtolower(end(explode('.', $file_name))); if (in_array($file_extension, $allowed_extension) === false){ $errors[] = 'its an unaccepted format in picture $variable_that_count'; continue; } if ($file_size > 2097152){ $errors[] = 'reached maxsize of 2MB per file in picture $variable_that_count'; } if (count($errors) == 0){ $path = "a/b/c/"; $uploadfile = $path."/".basename($_FILES['image']['name'][$key]); if (move_uploaded_file($_FILES['image']['tmp_name'][$key], $uploadfile)){ echo "success."; } } } } hope it will be clear what i like to approach. if there is someone who could help out i really would appreciate. thanks a lot.

    Read the article

  • Mapping relationships from multiple databases in NHibernate

    - by mannish
    I have a multi-database application configured with NHibernate. The entities that correspond to tables from each database are in their own separate assemblies (an assembly per database if you will). I have a need/desire to relate an entity from one database to an entity of another database. Everything up to this point works as I want it to (the application handles multiple session factories, etc.). The relationship I want is many-to-one, but in reality my application only cares about one side of the relationship (for reasons that aren't relevant). The relevant entities are Project and PMProject, where a Project HAS A PMProject. When I map the many-to-one, I get the following error: NHibernate.MappingException: An association from the table PROJECTS refers to an unmapped class: SDMS.PPRM.PMProject The Project mapping itself reads (ignore the funky column naming; it's an Oracle db): <many-to-one name="PMProject" class="SDMS.PPRM.PMProject" column="PM_PROJECT_ID" cascade="none" /> In the class attribute, I'm referencing the appropriate assembly, but I get that error which seems to tell me it simply can't find the mapping file for PMProject. But that file exists (it's set as embedded resource), the session factory instantiation works without fail; so I'm at a loss on how to tell the Project mapping how/where to look for the appropriate mapping. Is there something I'm missing? A better way to go about this? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Cant display button on specific rows of UITableView properly for iPhone

    - by varunwg
    Hi, I am trying to have a button for selected rows of my table. Here is the example code I am using: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *ControlRowIdentifier = @"ControlRowIdentifier"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:ControlRowIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:ControlRowIdentifier] autorelease]; } if ([indexPath row] > 5) { UIImage *buttonUpImage = [UIImage imageNamed:@"button_up.png"]; UIImage *buttonDownImage = [UIImage imageNamed:@"button_down.png"]; UIButton *button = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeCustom]; button.frame = CGRectMake(0.0, 0.0, buttonUpImage.size.width, buttonUpImage.size.height); [button setBackgroundImage:buttonUpImage forState:UIControlStateNormal]; [button setBackgroundImage:buttonDownImage forState:UIControlStateHighlighted]; [button setTitle:@"Tap" forState:UIControlStateNormal]; [button addTarget:self action:@selector(buttonTapped:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; cell.accessoryView = button; } NSUInteger row = [indexPath row]; NSString *rowTitle = [list objectAtIndex:row]; cell.textLabel.text = rowTitle; return cell; } This code works absolutely fine when loaded for 1st time. So, as per the logic it shows 'Tap' button for all rows greater than 5. Problem occurs when I scroll up and down. Once I do that it just starts putting that button at any random row. I dont understand why it does that and it'll be really helpful if someone can give some tips on this. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Trying to make a plugin system in C++

    - by Pirate for Profit
    I'm making a task-based program that needs to have plugins. Tasks need to have properties which can be easily edited, I think this can be done with Qt's Meta-Object Compiler reflection capabilities (I could be wrong, but I should be able to stick this in a QtPropertyBrowser?) So here's the base: class Task : public QObject { Q_OBJECT public: explicit Task(QObject *parent = 0) : QObject(parent){} virtual void run() = 0; signals: void taskFinished(bool success = true); } Then a plugin might have this task: class PrinterTask : public Task { Q_OBJECT public: explicit PrinterTask(QObject *parent = 0) : Task(parent) {} void run() { Printer::getInstance()->Print(this->getData()); // fictional emit taskFinished(true); } inline const QString &getData() const; inline void setData(QString data); Q_PROPERTY(QString data READ getData WRITE setData) // for reflection } In a nutshell, here's what I want to do: // load plugin // find all the Tasks interface implementations in it // have user able to choose a Task and edit its specific Q_PROPERTY's // run the TASK It's important that one .dll has multiple tasks, because I want them to be associated by their module. For instance, "FileTasks.dll" could have tasks for deleting files, making files, etc. The only problem with Qt's plugin setup is I want to store X amount of Tasks in one .dll module. As far as I can tell, you can only load one interface per plugin (I could be wrong?). If so, the only possible way to do accomplish what I want is to create a FactoryInterface with string based keys which return the objects (as in Qt's Plug-And-Paint example), which is a terrible boilerplate that I would like to avoid. Anyone know a cleaner C++ plugin architecture than Qt's to do what I want? Also, am I safely assuming Qt's reflection capabilities will do what I want (i.e. able to edit an unknown dynamically loaded tasks' properties with the QtPropertyBrowser before dispatching)?

    Read the article

  • Determine an elements position in a variable length grid of elements

    - by gaoshan88
    I have a grid of a variable number of elements. Say 5 images per row and a variable number of images. I need to determine which column (for lack of a better word) each image is in... i.e. 1, 2, 3, 4 or 5. In this grid, images 1, 6, 12 and 17 would be in column 1 while 4, 9 and 15 would be in column 4. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 What I am trying to do is apply a background image to each element based on it's column position. An example of this hard coded and inflexible (and if I'm barking up the wrong tree here by all means tell me how you'd ideally accomplish this as it always bugs me when I see someone ask "How do I build a gold plated, solar powered jet pack to get to the top of this building?" when they really should be asking "Where's the elevator?"): switch (imgnum){ case "1" : case "6" : case "11" : value = "1"; break; case "2" : case "7" : case "12" : value = "2"; break; case "3" : case "8" : case "13" : value = "3"; break; case "4" : case "9" : case "14" : value = "4"; break; case "5" : case "10" : case "15" : value = "5"; break; default : value = ""; } $('.someclass > ul').css('background','url("/img/'+value+'.png") no-repeat');

    Read the article

  • Load Testing Java Web Application - find TPS / Avg transaction response time

    - by Steve
    I would like to build my own load testing tool in Java with the goal of being able to load test a web application I am building throughout the development cycle. The web application will be receiving server to server HTTP Post requests and I would like to find its starting transaction per second (TPS) capacity along with the avgerage response time. The Post request and response messages will be in XML (I dont' think that's really applicable though :) ). I have written a very simple Java app to send transactions and count how many transactions it was able to send in one second (1000 ms) however I don't think this is the best way to load test. Really what I want is to send any number of transactions at exactly the same time - i.e. 10, 50, 100 etc. Any help would be appreciated! Oh and here is my current test app code: Thread[] t = new Thread[1]; for (int a = 0; a < t.length; a++) { t[a] = new Thread(new MessageLoop()); } startTime = System.currentTimeMillis(); System.out.println(startTime); for (int a = 0; a < t.length; a++) { t[a].start(); } while ((System.currentTimeMillis() - startTime) < 1000 ) { } if ((System.currentTimeMillis() - startTime) > 1000 ) { for (int a = 0; a < t.length; a++) { t[a].interrupt(); } } long endTime = System.currentTimeMillis(); System.out.println(endTime); System.out.println("Total time: " + (endTime - startTime)); System.out.println("Total transactions: " + count); private static class MessageLoop implements Runnable { public void run() { try { //Test Number of transactions while ((System.currentTimeMillis() - startTime) < 1000 ) { // SEND TRANSACTION HERE count++; } } catch (Exception e) { } } }

    Read the article

  • Some images fails to load on Windows Server 2008

    - by Guffa
    I have an application running on a Windows Server 2008, that is processing uploaded images. Currently it successfully processes about 8000 images per day, creating 11 different sizes of each image. The problem that I have is that sometimes the application fails to load some images, I get the error "System.Runtime.InteropServices.ExternalException: A generic error occurred in GDI+.". The upload only accepts files with a JPEG extension (jpg/jpeg/jpe) or with a JPEG MIME type, and from what I can tell those images are really JPEG images. If I look at the image file in windows explorer on the server, it can successfully extract the thumbnail from the file, but if I try to open it, I get the error message "This is not a valid bitmap file, or it's format is not currently supported." from Paint. If I copy the image to my own computer, running Windows 7, there is no problem opening the image. It works in Paint, Windows Photo Viewer, Adobe Bridge, and Photoshop. If I try to load the image using Image.FromStream the same way as in the application running on the server, it loads just fine. (I have copied the file back to the server, and it still doesn't work, so there is nothing in the copying process that changes it.) When I look at the image information in Bridge, I see that the images are created using Picasa 3.0, but other than that I can't see anything special about them. I haven't yet found anyone having the same problem, or any known problems like this with the Picasa application. Has anyone had any similar problem, or know if there is something special about images created using Picasa? Is there any image codec that needs installing on the server to handle all kinds of JPEG images?

    Read the article

  • Validating parameters according to a fixed reference

    - by James P.
    The following method is for setting the transfer type of an FTP connection. Basically, I'd like to validate the character input (see comments). Is this going overboard? Is there a more elegant approach? How do you approach parameter validation in general? Any comments are welcome. public void setTransferType(Character typeCharacter, Character optionalSecondCharacter) throws NumberFormatException, IOException { // http://www.nsftools.com/tips/RawFTP.htm#TYPE // Syntax: TYPE type-character [second-type-character] // // Sets the type of file to be transferred. type-character can be any // of: // // * A - ASCII text // * E - EBCDIC text // * I - image (binary data) // * L - local format // // For A and E, the second-type-character specifies how the text should // be interpreted. It can be: // // * N - Non-print (not destined for printing). This is the default if // second-type-character is omitted. // * T - Telnet format control (<CR>, <FF>, etc.) // * C - ASA Carriage Control // // For L, the second-type-character specifies the number of bits per // byte on the local system, and may not be omitted. final Set<Character> acceptedTypeCharacters = new HashSet<Character>(Arrays.asList( new Character[] {'A','E','I','L'} )); final Set<Character> acceptedOptionalSecondCharacters = new HashSet<Character>(Arrays.asList( new Character[] {'N','T','C'} )); if( acceptedTypeCharacters.contains(typeCharacter) ) { if( new Character('A').equals( typeCharacter ) || new Character('E').equals( typeCharacter ) ){ if( acceptedOptionalSecondCharacters.contains(optionalSecondCharacter) ) { executeCommand("TYPE " + typeCharacter + " " + optionalSecondCharacter ); } } else { executeCommand("TYPE " + typeCharacter ); } } }

    Read the article

  • Avoid slowdowns while using off-site database

    - by Anders Holmström
    The basic layout of my problem is this: Website (ASP.NET/C#) hosted at a dedicated hosting company (location 1) Company database (SQL Server) with records of relevant data (location 2). Location 1 & 2 connected through VPN. Customer visiting the website and wanting to pull data from the company database. No possibility of changing the server locations or layout (i.e. moving the website to an in-office server isn't possible). What I want to do is figure out the best way to handle the data acces in this case, minimizing the need for time-expensive database calls over the VPN. The first idea I'm getting is this: When a user enters the section of the website needing the DB data, you pull all the needed tables from the database into a in-memory dataset. All subsequent views/updates to the data is done on this dataset. When the user leaves (logout, session timeout, browser closed etc) the dataset gets sent to the SQL server. I'm not sure if this is a realistic solution, and it obviously has some problems. If two web visitors are performing updates on the same data, the one finishing up last will have their changes overwriting the first ones. There's also no way of knowing you have the latest data (i.e. if a customer pulls som info on their projects and we update this info while they are viewing them, they won't see these changes PLUS the above overwriting issue will arise). The other solution would be to somehow aggregate database calls and make sure they only happen when you need them, e.g. during data updates but not during data views. But then again the longer a pause between these refreshing DB calls, the bigger a chance that the data view is out of date as per the problem described above. Any input on the above or some fresh ideas would be most welcome.

    Read the article

  • Can't store UTF-8 in RDS despite setting up new Parameter Group using Rails on Heroku

    - by Lail
    I'm setting up a new instance of a Rails(2.3.5) app on Heroku using Amazon RDS as the database. I'd like to use UTF-8 for everything. Since RDS isn't UTF-8 by default, I set up a new Parameter Group and switched the database to use that one, basically per this. Seems to have worked: SHOW VARIABLES LIKE '%character%'; character_set_client utf8 character_set_connection utf8 character_set_database utf8 character_set_filesystem binary character_set_results utf8 character_set_server utf8 character_set_system utf8 character_sets_dir /rdsdbbin/mysql-5.1.50.R3/share/mysql/charsets/ Furthermore, I've successfully setup Heroku to use the RDS database. After rake db:migrate, everything looks good: CREATE TABLE `comments` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `commentable_id` int(11) DEFAULT NULL, `parent_id` int(11) DEFAULT NULL, `content` text COLLATE utf8_unicode_ci, `child_count` int(11) DEFAULT '0', `created_at` datetime DEFAULT NULL, `updated_at` datetime DEFAULT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`), KEY `commentable_id` (`commentable_id`), KEY `index_comments_on_community_id` (`community_id`), KEY `parent_id` (`parent_id`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB AUTO_INCREMENT=4 DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 COLLATE=utf8_unicode_ci; In the markup, I've included: <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> Also, I've set: production: encoding: utf8 collation: utf8_general_ci ...in the database.yml, though I'm not very confident that anything is being done to honor any of those settings in this case, as Heroku seems to be doing its own config when connecting to RDS. Now, I enter a comment through the form in the app: "Úbe® ƒåiL", but in the database I've got "Úbe® Æ’Ã¥iL" It looks fine when Rails loads it back out of the database and it is rendered to the page, so whatever it is doing one way, it's undoing the other way. If I look at the RDS database in Sequel Pro, it looks fine if I set the encoding to "UTF-8 Unicode via Latin 1". So it seems Latin-1 is sneaking in there somewhere. Somebody must have done this before, right? What am I missing?

    Read the article

  • Randomly sorting an array

    - by Cam
    Does there exist an algorithm which, given an ordered list of symbols {a1, a2, a3, ..., ak}, produces in O(n) time a new list of the same symbols in a random order without bias? "Without bias" means the probability that any symbol s will end up in some position p in the list is 1/k. Assume it is possible to generate a non-biased integer from 1-k inclusive in O(1) time. Also assume that O(1) element access/mutation is possible, and that it is possible to create a new list of size k in O(k) time. In particular, I would be interested in a 'generative' algorithm. That is, I would be interested in an algorithm that has O(1) initial overhead, and then produces a new element for each slot in the list, taking O(1) time per slot. If no solution exists to the problem as described, I would still like to know about solutions that do not meet my constraints in one or more of the following ways (and/or in other ways if necessary): the time complexity is worse than O(n). the algorithm is biased with regards to the final positions of the symbols. the algorithm is not generative. I should add that this problem appears to be the same as the problem of randomly sorting the integers from 1-k, since we can sort the list of integers from 1-k and then for each integer i in the new list, we can produce the symbol ai.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 282 283 284 285 286 287 288 289 290 291 292 293  | Next Page >