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  • Sql server query using function and view is slower

    - by Lieven Cardoen
    I have a table with a xml column named Data: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Users]( [UserId] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [FirstName] [nvarchar](max) NOT NULL, [LastName] [nvarchar](max) NOT NULL, [Email] [nvarchar](250) NOT NULL, [Password] [nvarchar](max) NULL, [UserName] [nvarchar](250) NOT NULL, [LanguageId] [int] NOT NULL, [Data] [xml] NULL, [IsDeleted] [bit] NOT NULL,... In the Data column there's this xml <data> <RRN>...</RRN> <DateOfBirth>...</DateOfBirth> <Gender>...</Gender> </data> Now, executing this query: SELECT UserId FROM Users WHERE data.value('(/data/RRN)[1]', 'nvarchar(max)') = @RRN after clearing the cache takes (if I execute it a couple of times after each other) 910, 739, 630, 635, ... ms. Now, a db specialist told me that adding a function, a view and changing the query would make it much more faster to search a user with a given RRN. But, instead, these are the results when I execute with the changes from the db specialist: 2584, 2342, 2322, 2383, ... This is the added function: CREATE FUNCTION dbo.fn_Users_RRN(@data xml) RETURNS varchar(100) WITH SCHEMABINDING AS BEGIN RETURN @data.value('(/data/RRN)[1]', 'varchar(max)'); END; The added view: CREATE VIEW vwi_Users WITH SCHEMABINDING AS SELECT UserId, dbo.fn_Users_RRN(Data) AS RRN from dbo.Users Indexes: CREATE UNIQUE CLUSTERED INDEX cx_vwi_Users ON vwi_Users(UserId) CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX cx_vwi_Users__RRN ON vwi_Users(RRN) And then the changed query: SELECT UserId FROM Users WHERE dbo.fn_Users_RRN(Data) = '59021626919-61861855-S_FA1E11' Why is the solution with a function and a view going slower?

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  • Better way to summarize data about stop times?

    - by Vimvq1987
    This question is close to this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2947963/find-the-period-of-over-speed Here's my table: Longtitude Latitude Velocity Time 102 401 40 2010-06-01 10:22:34.000 103 403 50 2010-06-01 10:40:00.000 104 405 0 2010-06-01 11:00:03.000 104 405 0 2010-06-01 11:10:05.000 105 406 35 2010-06-01 11:15:30.000 106 403 60 2010-06-01 11:20:00.000 108 404 70 2010-06-01 11:30:05.000 109 405 0 2010-06-01 11:35:00.000 109 405 0 2010-06-01 11:40:00.000 105 407 40 2010-06-01 11:50:00.000 104 406 30 2010-06-01 12:00:00.000 101 409 50 2010-06-01 12:05:30.000 104 405 0 2010-06-01 11:05:30.000 I want to summarize times when vehicle had stopped (velocity = 0), include: it had stopped since "when" to "when" in how much minutes, how many times it stopped and how much time it stopped. I wrote this query to do it: select longtitude, latitude, MIN(time), MAX(time), DATEDIFF(minute, MIN(Time), MAX(time)) as Timespan from table_1 where velocity = 0 group by longtitude,latitude select DATEDIFF(minute, MIN(Time), MAX(time)) as minute into #temp3 from table_1 where velocity = 0 group by longtitude,latitude select COUNT(*) as [number]from #temp select SUM(minute) as [totaltime] from #temp3 drop table #temp This query return: longtitude latitude (No column name) (No column name) Timespan 104 405 2010-06-01 11:00:03.000 2010-06-01 11:10:05.000 10 109 405 2010-06-01 11:35:00.000 2010-06-01 11:40:00.000 5 number 2 totaltime 15 You can see, it works fine, but I really don't like the #temp table. Is there anyway to query this without use a temp table? Thank you.

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  • ArrayList<Int> Collections.Sort and LineNumberReader Help How to

    - by user1819551
    I have a issue i can't get it to work now let going to the point a explain in the code thanks. This is my class: what I want to do is insert the Integers sort the list and buffer writer in a column with out coma. Now I getting this: [1110018, 1110032, 1110056, 1110059, 1110063, 1110085, 1110096, 1110123, 1110125, 1110185, 1110456, 1110459] I want like this: 111xxxxx 111xxxx xxxx....... I can't do it in single array, have to be in ArrayList. This is my collecting: list.addNumbers(numbers); list.display(); This is my writer: Is buffered coma.write("\n"+list.display()); coma.flush();<br/> Here is my class: public class IdCount {<br/> private ArrayList<Integer> properNumber = new ArrayList<>(); public void addNumbers(Integer numbers) { properNumber.add(numbers); Collections.sort(properNumber); } public String display() { //(I try .toString() Not work) return properNumber.toString(); } My second issue is LineNumberReader: This is my collecting and my writing: try { Reader input = new BufferedReader( new FileReader(inputFile)); try (Scanner in = new Scanner(input)) { while (in.hasNext()) { //(More Code) asp = new LineNumberReader(input); int rom = 0; while (asp.readLine()!=null){ rom++; } System.out.println(rom); coma.write(rom); This one will not write anything an my System Print give me only 12 0 in column.

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  • WCF ServiceContract and svcutil issue

    - by Valko
    Hi, I have a public interface auto-generated bu svcutil: [System.ServiceModel.ServiceContractAttribute(Namespace="...", ConfigurationName="...")] public interface MyInterface Then I have asmx web service inheriting it and working fine. I am trying ot convert it to WCF but when I instrument the service (in asmx.cs code behind) with ServiceContract: [ServiceContract(Namespace = "...")] public class MyService : MyInterface Also I have cerated .svc file and added the system.serviceModel setting in the config file. The goal is to migrate the asmx service to WCF service. I've got this error: The service class of type MyService both defines a ServiceContract and inherits a ServiceContract from type MyInterface. Contract inheritance can only be used among interface types. If a class is marked with ServiceContractAttribute, it must be the only type in the hierarchy with ServiceContractAttribute. The asmx service is still working fine. Only the .svc is giving me issues. My question is how to fix that. MyInterface is an interface so I do not see what the problem is and why I've got the error anyway. Note I do not want to change MyInterface, because it is autogenerated from svcutil from my wsdl schema and I do not want this interface to be edited manually. The whole idea is to have the service types automatically genereted from WSDL and to save my team development efforts with manual editing. Any help is appreciated.

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  • How can I automatically generate sql update scripts when some data is updated ?

    - by Brann
    I'd like to automatically generate an update script each time a value is modified in my database. In other words, if a stored procedure, or a query, or whatever updates column a with value b in table c (which as a pk column (i,j...k), I want to generate this : update c set a=b where i=... and j=... and k=... and store it somewhere (for example as a raw string in a table). To complicate things, I want the script to be generated only if the update has been made by a specific user. Good news is that I've got a primary key defined for all my tables. I can see how to do this using a trigger, but I would need to generate specific triggers for each table, and to update them each and every-time my schema changes. I guess there are some built-in ways to do this as SQL server sometimes need to store this kind of things (while using transactional replication for example), but couldn't find anything so far ... any ideas ? I'm also interested in ways to automatically generate triggers (probably using triggers - meta triggers, huh? - since I will need to update triggers automatically when the schema change)

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  • Getting User input with Scanner

    - by Giannis
    I am trying to have a scanner take input in a loop. Once the user wants to finish he can exit this loop. I have tried many different ways to do it but there is always some problem. This is the code: Scanner sc = new Scanner(System.in); System.out.println("Continue?[Y/N]"); while (sc.hasNext()&& (sc.next().equals("Y"))) { System.out.println("Enter first name"); String name = sc.nextLine(); System.out.println("Enter surname"); String surname = sc.nextLine(); . . . System.out.println("Continue?[Y/N]"); } } The problem with the code above, which also happens on different methods I tried, is that when the user types Y, the scanner will skip the first input for first name,and jump to the surname. If the user types N the loop stops correctly. Someone can explain the reason this happens, and how to overcome using scanner class? p.s: Doing something like while(sc.nextLine().equals("Y")), will cause the loop to terminate before getting input from user after first run of the loop.

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  • Query to MySQL from c# returns System.Byte[]

    - by karthik
    I am using the below SP to return the value of Generated Insert statement and it works fine when executed in Query browser. When i try to get the value from C#, it give's me "System.Byte[]" as return value. When i try to get the value from MySql query browser, it give's me return value as : 'insert into admindb.accounts values("54321","2","karthik2","karthik2","1");' I guess the problem is with the single quotes of the returned value. Is it so ? DELIMITER $$ DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS `admindb`.`InsGen` $$ CREATE DEFINER=`root`@`localhost` PROCEDURE `InsGen`( in_db varchar(20), in_table varchar(20), in_ColumnName varchar(20), in_ColumnValue varchar(20) ) BEGIN declare Whrs varchar(500); declare Sels varchar(500); declare Inserts varchar(2000); declare tablename varchar(20); declare ColName varchar(20); set tablename=in_table; # Comma separated column names - used for Select select group_concat(concat('concat(\'"\',','ifnull(',column_name,','''')',',\'"\')')) INTO @Sels from information_schema.columns where table_schema=in_db and table_name=tablename; # Comma separated column names - used for Group By select group_concat('`',column_name,'`') INTO @Whrs from information_schema.columns where table_schema=in_db and table_name=tablename; #Main Select Statement for fetching comma separated table values set @Inserts=concat("select concat('insert into ", in_db,".",tablename," values(',concat_ws(',',",@Sels,"),');') as MyColumn from ", in_db,".",tablename, " where ", in_ColumnName, " = " , in_ColumnValue, " group by ",@Whrs, ";"); PREPARE Inserts FROM @Inserts; EXECUTE Inserts; END $$ DELIMITER ;

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  • Save result of for loop in a vector

    - by hendrik
    i think I'm just too tired to see the mistake. i wrote a function to get the maximal value for two data sets from a for loop plot_zu <- function(x) {for (i in 1:x){ z=data_raw[grep(a[i], data_raw$Gene.names),] b=data_raw_ace[grep(a[i], data_raw_ace$Gene.names),] p<-vector("numeric", length(1:length(a))) p[i]<-max(z$t_test_diff) return(p)} } so picture: a is a vector of names and the data set (data_raw(_ace)) are filtered by it. In the end i would like to have all maxima values of column t_test_diff in a vector. After that i want to add the t_test_diff column values from data_raw_ace also. So the problem is, that i get this: [1] 1.210213 0.000000 0.000000 0.000000 0.000000 0.000000 0.000000 [8] 0.000000 0.000000 So there is a problem with brackets or something but i cannot see it ( first value fits). Sorry for no good example but i think it is understandable and an easy to solve question. If im to dumb to explain my problem right, i will add an example. !! Thx a lot !! grateful Hendrik

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  • Web Shop Schema - Document Db

    - by Maxem
    I'd like to evaluate a document db, probably mongo db in an ASP.Net MVC web shop. A little reasoning at the beginning: There are about 2 million products. The product model would be pretty bad for rdbms as there'd be many different kinds of products with unique attributes. For example, there'd be books which have isbn, authors, title, pages etc as well as dvds with play time, directors, artists etc and quite a few more types. In the end, I'd have about 9 different products with a combined column count (counting common columns like title only once) of about 70 to 100 whereas each individual product has 15 columns at most. The three commonly used ways in RDBMS would be: EAV model which would have pretty bad performance characteristics and would make it either impractical or perform even worse if I'd like to display the author of a book in a list of different products (think start page, recommended products etc.). Ignore the column count and put it all in the product table: Although I deal with somewhat bigger databases (row wise), I don't have any experience with tables with more than 20 columns as far as performance is concered but I guess 100 columns would have some implications. Create a table for each product type: I personally don't like this approach as it complicates everything else. C# Driver / Classes: I'd like to use the NoRM driver and so far I think i'll try to create a product dto that contains all properties (grouped within detail classes like book details, except for those properties that should be displayed on list views etc.). In the app I'll use BookBehavior / DvdBehaviour which are wrappers around a product dto but only expose the revelent Properties. My questions now: Are my performance concerns with the many columns approach valid? Did I overlook something and there is a much better way to do it in an RDBMS? Is MongoDb on Windows stable enough? Does my approach with different behaviour wrappers make sense?

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  • Is this a variation of the traveling salesman problem?

    - by Ville Koskinen
    I'm interested in a function of two word lists, which would return an order agnostic edit distance between them. That is, the arguments would be two lists of (let's say space delimited) words and return value would be the minimum sum of the edit (or Levenshtein) distances of the words in the lists. Distance between "cat rat bat" and "rat bat cat" would be 0. Distance between "cat rat bat" and "fat had bad" would be the same as distance between "rat bat cat" and "had fat bad", 4. In the case the number of words in the lists are not the same, the shorter list would be padded with 0-length words. My intuition (which hasn't been nurtured with computer science classes) does not find any other solution than to use brute force: |had|fat|bad| a solution ---+---+---+---+ +---+---+---+ cat| 2 | 1 | 2 | | | 1 | | ---+---+---+---+ +---+---+---+ rat| 2 | 1 | 2 | | 3 | | | ---+---+---+---+ +---+---+---+ bat| 2 | 1 | 1 | | | | 4 | ---+---+---+---+ +---+---+---+ Starting from the first row, pick a column and go to the next rows without ever revisiting a column you have already visited. Do this over and over again until you've tried all combinations. To me this sounds a bit like the traveling salesman problem. Is it, and how would you solve my particular problem?

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  • C# Fun with Generics - Mutual Dependencies

    - by Kenneth Cochran
    As an experiment I'm trying to write a generic MVP framework. I started with: public interface IPresenter<TView> where TView: IView<IPresenter<... { TView View { get; set;} } public interface IView<TPresenter> where TPresenter:IPresenter<IView<... { TPresenter Presenter { get; set; } } Obviously this can't work because the types of TView and TPresenter can't be resolved. You'd be writing Type<Type<... forever. So my next attempt looked like this: public interface IView<T> where T:IPresenter { ... } public interface IView:IView<IPresenter> { } public interface IPresenter<TView> where TView: IView { ... } public interface IPresenter: IPresenter<IView> { ... } This actually compiles and you can even inherit from these interfaces like so: public class MyView : IView, IView<MyPresenter> { ... } public class MyPresenter : IPresenter, IPresenter<MyView> { ... } The problem is in the class definition you have to define any members declared in the generic type twice. Not ideal but it still compiles. The problem's start creeping up when you actually try to access the members of a Presenter from a View or vice versa. You get an Ambiguous reference when you try to compile. Is there any way to avoid this double implementation of a member when you inherit from both interfaces? Is it even possible to resolve two mutually dependent generic types at compile time?

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  • ul sortables get serialized data

    - by russp
    Hi folks Any ideas how to get the serilized data from this function? the html is first with the JQuery function last, I cannot get the serialization to appear in the alert. When I can do that I can finish this by sending via ajax etc... <div class="column" id="col1"> <div class="portlet"> <div class="portlet-header">Feeds</div> <div class="portlet-content">Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetuer adipiscing elit</div> </div> <div class="portlet"> <div class="portlet-header">News</div> <div class="portlet-content">Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetuer adipiscing elit</div> </div> Shopping Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetuer adipiscing elit Links Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetuer adipiscing elit Images Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetuer adipiscing elit $(function() { $("#col1, #col2, #col3").sortable({ connectWith: '.column', receive : function () { serial = $('#col1').sortable('serialize'); //serial2 = $('#col2').sortable('serialize'); //serial3 = $('#col3').sortable('serialize'); alert(serial); } }); });

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  • Using an ORM with a database that has no defined relationships?

    - by Ahmad
    Consider a database(MSSQL 2005) that consists of 100+ tables which have primary keys defined to a certain degree. There are 'relationships' between tables, however these are not enforced with foreign key constraints. Consider the following simplified example of typical types of tables I am dealing with. The are clear relations between the User and City and Province tables. However, they key issues is the inconsistent data types in the tables and naming conventions. User: UserRowId [int] PK Name [varchar(50)] CityId [smallint] ProvinceRowId [bigint] City: CityRowId [bigint] PK CityDescription [varchar(100)] Province: ProvinceId [int] PK ProvinceDesc [varchar(50)] I am considering a rewrite of the application (in ASP.net MVC) that uses this data source as is similar in design to MVC storefront. However I am going through a proof of concept phase and this is one of the stumbling blocks I have come across. What are my options in terms of ORM choice that can be easily used and why? Should I even be considering an ORM? (The reason I ask this is that most explanations and tutorials all work with relatively cleanly designed existing databases, or newly created ones when compared to mine. I am thus having a very hard time trying to find a way forward with this problem) There is a huge amount of existing SQL queries, would a datamappper(eg IBatis.net) be more suitable since we could easily modify them to work and reuse the investment already made? I have found this question on SO which indicates to me that an ORM can be used - however I get the impression that this a question of mapping? Note: at the moment, the object model is not clearly defined as it was non-existent. The existing system pretty much did almost everything in SQL or consisted of overly complicated, and numerous queries to complete fucntionality. I am pretty much a noob and have zero experience around ORMs and MVC - so this an awesome learning curve I am on.

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  • Mulit-dimensional array edge/border conditions

    - by kirbuchi
    Hi, I'm iterating over a 3 dimensional array (which is an image with 3 values for each pixel) to apply a 3x3 filter to each pixel as follows: //For each value on the image for (i=0;i<3*width*height;i++){ //For each filter value for (j=0;j<9;j++){ if (notOutsideEdgesCondition){ *(**(outArray)+i)+= *(**(pixelArray)+i-1+(j%3)) * (*(filter+j)); } } } I'm using pointer arithmetic because if I used array notation I'd have 4 loops and I'm trying to have the least possible number of loops. My problem is my notOutsideEdgesCondition is getting quite out of hands because I have to consider 8 border cases. I have the following handled conditions Left Column: ((i%width)==0) && (j%3==0) Right Column: ((i-1)%width ==0) && (i>1) && (j%3==2) Upper Row: (i<width) && (j<2) Lower Row: (i>(width*height-width)) && (j>5) and still have to consider the 4 corner cases which will have longer expressions. At this point I've stopped and asked myself if this is the best way to go because If I have a 5 line long conditional evaluation it'll not only be truly painful to debug but will slow the inner loop. That's why I come to you to ask if there's a known algorithm to handle this cases or if there's a better approach for my problem. Thanks a lot.

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  • Can I specify default value?

    - by atch
    Why is it that for user defined types when creating an array of objects every element of this array is initialized with default ctor but when I create built-in type this isn't the case? And second question: is it possible to specify default value to be used while initialize? Something like this (not valid): char* p = new char[size]('\0'); And another question in this topic while I'm with arrays. I suppose that when creating an array of user defined type and knowing the fact that every elem. of this array will be initialized with default value firstly why? If arrays for built in types do not initialize their elems. with their dflts why do they do it for UDT, and secondly: is there a way to switch it off/avoid/circumvent somehow? It seems like bit of a waste if I for example have created an array with size 10000 and then 10000 times dflt ctor will be invoked and I will (later on) overwrite this values anyway. I think that behaviour should be consistent, so either every type of array should be initialized or none. And I think that the behaviour for built-in arrays is more appropriate.

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  • Question about cloning in Java

    - by devoured elysium
    In Effective Java, the author states that: If a class implements Cloneable, Object's clone method returns a field-by-field copy of the object; otherwise it throws CloneNotSupportedException. What I'd like to know is what he means with field-by-field copy. Does it mean that if the class has X bytes in memory, it will just copy that piece of memory? If yes, then can I assume all value types of the original class will be copied to the new object? class Point { private int x; private int y; @Override public Point clone() { return (Point)super.clone(); } } If what Object.clone() does is a field by field copy of the Point class, I'd say that I wouldn't need to explicitly copy fields x and y, being that the code shown above will be more than enough to make a clone of the Point class. That is, the following bit of code is redundant: @Override public Point clone() { Point newObj = (Point)super.clone(); newObj.x = this.x; //redundant newObj.y = this.y; //redundant } Am I right? I know references of the cloned object will point automatically to where the original object's references pointed to, I'm just not sure what happens specifically with value types. If anyone could state clearly what Object.clone()'s algorithm specification is (in easy language) that'd be great. Thanks

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  • Applying fine-grained security to an existing application

    - by Mark
    I've inherited a reasonably large and complex ASP.NET MVC3 web application using EF Code First on SQL Server. It uses ASP.NET Membership roles with database authentication. The controller actions are secured with attributes derived from AuthorizeAttribute that map roles to actions. There are extension methods for the finer points, such as showing a particular widget to particular roles. This is works great and I have a good understanding of the current security model. I've been asked to provide finer grained security at the data level. For example a 'Customer' user can only see data (throughout the database) associated with themselves and not other Customers. The problem is that 'Customer' is only 1 of 5 different types with their own specific restrictions (each of the 9 roles is one of these 5 types). The best thing I can think of is to go through all the data repositories and extend each and every LINQ statements/query with a filter for every user type. Even if I had time for that it doesn't seem like the most elegant way. Any suggestions? I really don't know where to start with this so anything could be helpful. Many thanks.

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  • Generic callbacks

    - by bobobobo
    Extends So, I'm trying to learn template metaprogramming better and I figure this is a good exercise for it. I'm trying to write code that can callback a function with any number of arguments I like passed to it. // First function to call int add( int x, int y ) ; // Second function to call double square( double x ) ; // Third func to call void go() ; The callback creation code should look like: // Write a callback object that // will be executed after 42ms for "add" Callback<int, int, int> c1 ; c1.func = add ; c1.args.push_back( 2 ); // these are the 2 args c1.args.push_back( 5 ); // to pass to the "add" function // when it is called Callback<double, double> c2 ; c2.func = square ; c2.args.push_back( 52.2 ) ; What I'm thinking is, using template metaprogramming I want to be able to declare callbacks like, write a struct like this (please keep in mind this is VERY PSEUDOcode) <TEMPLATING ACTION <<ANY NUMBER OF TYPES GO HERE>> > struct Callback { double execTime ; // when to execute TYPE1 (*func)( TYPE2 a, TYPE3 b ) ; void* argList ; // a stored list of arguments // to plug in when it is time to call __func__ } ; So for when called with Callback<int, int, int> c1 ; You would automatically get constructed for you by < HARDCORE TEMPLATING ACTION > a struct like struct Callback { double execTime ; // when to execute int (*func)( int a, int b ) ; void* argList ; // this would still be void*, // but I somehow need to remember // the types of the args.. } ; Any pointers in the right direction to get started on writing this?

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  • How to fetch populated associated models in CakePHP when calling read()

    - by Code Commander
    I have the following Models: class Site extends AppModel { public $name = "Site"; public $useTable = "site"; public $primaryKey = "id"; public $displayField = 'name'; public $hasMany = array('Item' => array('foreignKey' => 'siteId')); public function canView($userId, $isAdmin = false) { if($isAdmin) { return true; } return array_key_exists($this->id, $allowedSites); } } and class Item extends AppModel { public $name = "Item"; public $useTable = "item"; public $primaryKey = "id"; public $displayField = 'name'; public $belongsTo = array('Site' => array('foreignKey' => 'siteId')); public function canView($userId, $isAdmin = false) { // My problem appears to be the next line: return $this->Site->canView($userId, $isAdmin); } } In my controller I am doing something like this: $result = $this->Item->read(null, $this->request->id); // Verify permissions if(!$this->Item->canView($this->Session->read('userId'), $this->Session->read('isAdmin'))) { $this->httpCodes(403); die('Permission denied.'); } I notice that in Item->canView() $this->data['Site'] is populated with the column data from the site table. But it merely an array and not an object. On the other hand $this->Site is a Site object, but it has not been populated with the column data from the site table like $this->data. What is the proper way to have CakePHP get the associated model as the object and containing the data? Or am I going about this all wrong? Thanks!

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  • Nhibernate: Stop it from joining to a table that is not needed

    - by Aaron
    I have two tables (tbArea, tbPost) that relate to the following classes. class Area { int ID string Name ... } class Post { int ID string Title Area Area ... } These two classes map up with Fluent Nhibernate. Below is the post mapping. public class PostMapping : ClassMap<Post> { public PostMapping() { Cache.NonStrictReadWrite(); this.Table("tbPost"); Id(x => x.ID) .Column("PostID") .GeneratedBy .Identity(); References(x => x.Area) .ForeignKey("AreaID") .Column("AreaID"); ... } } Any time I perform a query on the Post table "where AreaID = 1(any AreaId)", nhibernate will join to the area table. (What Nhibernate generates for a query) SELECT post fields , area fields (automatically added) FROM tbPost p LEFT JOIN tbArea a on p.areaid = a.areaid where p.areaid = 1 I have tried setting Area to LazyLoad, to Fetch.Select, ReadOnly, and any other setting on the reference and still it will always join to Area. I am trying to optimize the backend database queries, and since I don't need the area object loaded just filtered I would like to eliminate the unnecessary join to Area each time I Query post. What configurations do I need to change or mappings to get area to still be related to post in my objects, but not query it when I filter on AreaID?

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  • Do COM Dll References Require Manual Disposal? If so, How?

    - by Drew
    I have written some code in VB that verifies that a particular port in the Windows Firewall is open, and opens one otherwise. The code uses references to three COM DLLs. I wrote a WindowsFirewall class, which Imports the primary namespace defined by the DLLs. Within members of the WindowsFirewall class I construct some of the types defined by the DLLs referenced. The following code isn't the entire class, but demonstrates what I am doing. Imports NetFwTypeLib Public Class WindowsFirewall Public Shared Function IsFirewallEnabled as Boolean Dim icfMgr As INetFwMgr icfMgr = CType(System.Activator.CreateInstance(Type.GetTypeFromProgID("HNetCfg.FwMgr")), INetFwMgr) Dim profile As INetFwProfile profile = icfMgr.LocalPolicy.CurrentProfile Dim fIsFirewallEnabled as Boolean fIsFirewallEnabled = profile.FirewallEnabled return fIsFirewallEnabled End Function End Class I do not reference COM DLLs very often. I have read that unmanaged code may not be cleaned up by the garbage collector and I would like to know how to make sure that I have not introduced any memory leaks. Please tell me (a) if I have introduced a memory leak, and (b) how I may clean it up. (My theory is that the icfMgr and profile objects do allocate memory that remains unreleased until after the application closes. I am hopeful that setting their references equal to nothing will mark them for garbage collection, since I can find no other way to dispose of them. Neither one implements IDisposable, and neither contains a Finalize method. I suspect they may not even be relevant here, and that both of those methods of releasing memory only apply to .Net types.)

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  • Pass Linq Expression to a function

    - by Kushan Hasithe Fernando
    I want to pass a property list of a class to a function. with in the function based on property list I'm going to generate a query. As exactly same functionality in Linq Select method. Here I'm gonna implement this for Ingress Database. As an example, in front end I wanna run a select as this, My Entity Class is like this public class Customer { [System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Name="Id",IsPrimaryKey=true)] public string Id { get; set; } [System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Name = "Name")] public string Name { get; set; } [System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Name = "Address")] public string Address { get; set; } [System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Name = "Email")] public string Email { get; set; } [System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Name = "Mobile")] public string Mobile { get; set; } } I wanna call a Select function like this, var result = dataAccessService.Select<Customer>(C=>C.Name,C.Address); then,using result I can get the Name and Address properties' values. I think my Select function should looks like this, ( *I think this should done using Linq Expression. But im not sure what are the input parameter and return type. * ) Class DataAccessService { // I'm not sure about this return type and input types, generic types. public TResult Select<TSource,TResult>(Expression<Func<TSource,TResult>> selector) { // Here using the property list, // I can get the ColumnAttribute name value and I can generate a select query. } } This is a attempt to create a functionality like in Linq. But im not an expert in Linq Expressions. There is a project call DbLinq from MIT, but its a big project and still i couldn't grab anything helpful from that. Can someone please help me to start this, or can someone link me some useful resources to read about this.

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  • Finding parent class and id

    - by Breezer
    Well after countless tries i can't get this work? <script type="text/javascript"> $("td input").focusout(function() { var column = $(this).parent('td').attr('class'); var row = $(this).parent('tr').attr('id'); $('#dat').HTML(row+" "+column); }); </script> And the html looks like this <tr class="numbers" id="1"> <td class="a" align="right">1</td> <td class="b"><input class="input" type="text" value=""/></td> <td class="c"><input class="input" type="text" value=""/></td> <td class="d"><input class="input" type="text" value=""/></td> <td class="e"><input class="input" type="text" value=""/></td> <td class="f">0</td> <td class="g"><input class="input" type="text" value=""/></td> </tr> can anyone point me to the right direction on what might be wrong? thanks in advance regards

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  • Concatenate 2 text elements on a line with full-width border using CSS only

    - by Michael Horne
    Okay, I'm a newbie to CSS3, so please be gentle. ;-) I'm working with some Wordpress code (Woocommerce plugin, to be exact), and I'm trying to format a line of code in a sidebar so that 2 separate text items (one in an <a, the other in a <span are all on the same line, the full width of the column, and with a bottom border. It looks something like this (except the bottom border on each text do not go all the way across the enclosing sidebar box): http://www.dalluva.com/temp/browse-catalog.JPG (sorry, I'm new and can't post inline images yet) Here's the code fragment I'm trying to live with (i.e. I don't want to change it): <div class="widget"> ... <ul class="product-categories"> <li class="cat-item"> <a href="http://localhost/dalluva/shop/product-category/books/">Books</a> <span class="count">(5)</span> </li> ... And here's the CSS I have now: .widget ul li a { border-bottom: 1px solid #e9e9e9; line-height:1.0; padding: 5px 0 5px 22px; display: inline-block; } .widget ul li span { border-bottom: 1px solid #e9e9e9; line-height: 1.0; padding: 5px 0 5px 0; display: inline-block; } The output in the image above looks right for this CSS code, but when I change the 'span' CSS to include a width:100%, it causes the span element to wrap to the next line, looking like this: http://www.dalluva.com/temp/browse-catalog-2.JPG I've played with white-space:nowrap, overflow:hidden, etc, but I can't seem to find a way to have both the <a and the <span text on the same line with the border extending the full width of the column. Any suggestions on getting the desired effect through CSS only? Thanks. Michael

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  • python gui events out of order

    - by dave
    from Tkinter import * from tkMessageBox import * class Gui: def __init__(self, root): self.container = Frame(root) self.container.grid() self.inputText = Text(self.container, width=50, height=8) self.outputText = Text(self.container, width=50, height=8, bg='#E0E0E0', state=DISABLED) self.inputText.grid(row=0, column=0) self.outputText.grid(row=0, column=1) self.inputText.bind("<Key>", self.translate) def translate(self, event): input = self.inputText.get(0.0, END) output = self.outputText.get(0.0, END) self.outputText.config(state=NORMAL) self.outputText.delete(0.0, END) self.outputText.insert(INSERT, input) self.outputText.config(state=DISABLED) showinfo(message="Input: %s characters\nOutput: %s characters" % (len(input), len(input))) root = Tk() #toplevel object app = Gui(root) #call to the class where gui is defined root.mainloop() #enter event loop Working on a gui in tkinter I'm a little confused as to the sequence the event handlers are run. If you run the above code you'll hopefully see... 1) Editing the text widget triggers the event handler but it seems to fire it off without registering the actual change, 2) Even when the text widget is cleared (ie, keep pressing BackSpace) it still seems to have a one character length string, 3) The output widget only receives its update when the NEXT event trigger is fired despite the fact the data came on the previous event. Is this just how bindings work in tkinter or am i missing something here? The behaviour i would like when updating the input widget is: 1) Show the change, 2) Enter event handler, 3) Update output widget, 4) Show message box.

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