Search Results

Search found 10634 results on 426 pages for 'pass it on'.

Page 293/426 | < Previous Page | 289 290 291 292 293 294 295 296 297 298 299 300  | Next Page >

  • C# thread safety for class instances

    - by Steveng
    I am learning C# and I am confused with the thread safety of the copies of the class instances as below: eg: classA objA; classA objB = objA; objA.field1 = value2; //do I need lock around modification of field1? //let say we pass the objB to another thread objB.field1 = value1 //do I need a lock for objB because of the modification of field1? I am confused because coming from the background of C++, the class in C# is the reference type. If both objA and objB refer to the same memory underlying, then I would need a lock to protect the simultaneous writing to the field1. Could someone confirm with this or am I missing something? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Mysql Connection Error from 1.1.1 to 1.2.1

    - by Chromag
    I upgraded from 1.1.1 to 1.2.1 and I seem to be getting the following exception when it attempts to connect to MySQL: The last packet sent successfully to the server was 0 milliseconds ago. The driver has not received any packets from the server. at com.mysql.jdbc.Util.handleNewInstance(Util.java:407) at com.mysql.jdbc.SQLError.createCommunicationsException(SQLError.java:1116) at com.mysql.jdbc.MysqlIO.<init>(MysqlIO.java:343) ... Caused by: java.net.ConnectException: Connection refused at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.socketConnect(Native Method) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.doConnect(PlainSocketImpl.java:333) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.connectToAddress(PlainSocketImpl.java:195) I've confirmed that MySQL is indeed running and seems to be working fine. The following is the line from my application.conf file (with user/pass/db replaced): db=mysql:username:password@databasename I also tried using the full JDBC configuration. Did I miss something? This worked just fine in 1.1.1. I'm running MySQL 5.1.41. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • What is the maximum length of a string parameter to Stored procedure?

    - by padmavathi
    I have a string of length 1,44,000 which has to be passed as a parameter to a stored procedure which is a select query on a table. When a give this is in a query (in c# ) its working fine. But when i pass it as a parameter to stored procedure its not working. Here is my stored procedure where in i have declared this parameter as NVARCHAR(MAX) ------------------------------------------------------ set ANSI_NULLS ON set QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON go CREATE PROCEDURE [dbo].[ReadItemData](@ItemNames NVARCHAR(MAX),@TimeStamp as DATETIME) AS select * from ItemData where ItemName in (@ItemNames) AND TimeStamp=@TimeStamp --------------------------------------------------------------------- Here the parameter @ItemNames is a string concatinated with different names such as 'Item1','Item2','Item3'....etc. Can anyone tell what went wrong here? Thanks & Regards Padma

    Read the article

  • Assign parameters to function according to parameter names

    - by Korcholis
    I have an assoc array with a list of what are parameters to me. Here's an example: array( 'param1' => 'value1', 'param4' => 'value4', 'param3' => 'value3', 'param2' => 'value2', ); Note that they may come unsorted. Now, is there a way I can make a call (static or from an instance, using call_user_func_array or similar) and correctly pass each value to each parameter? Just to be sure, an example function I'd like to call using that parameter array is one such this: exampleFunction($param1, $param2, $param3, $param4) { ... } PS: Reflection is great, but I'm concerned about execution times (which, at least, in Java tends to increase a lot when using Reflection). If you know any other way to do so, it would be awesome.

    Read the article

  • Why can't I enforce derived classes to have parameterless constructors?

    - by FrisbeeBen
    I am trying to do the following: public class foo<T> where T : bar, new() { public foo() { _t = new T(); } private T _t; } public abstract class bar { public abstract void someMethod(); // Some implementation } public class baz : bar { public overide someMethod(){//Implementation} } And I am attempting to use it as follows: foo<baz> fooObject = new foo<baz>(); And I get an error explaining that 'T' must be a non-abstract type with a public parameterless constructor in order to use it as parameter 'T' in the generic type or method. I fully understand why this must be, and also understand that I could pass a pre-initialized object of type 'T' in as a constructor argument to avoid having to 'new' it, but is there any way around this? any way to enforce classes that derive from 'bar' to supply parameterless constructors?

    Read the article

  • Using an ActiveX object from an Outlook hosted webpage - possible?

    - by Nic Wise
    I'm trying to do the following: We have an outlook plugin, written in .NET (and C++). It does various things, and is manually installed on the end users machines (usually via AD deployment or similar) We are changing our search to use a webpage-based search, but from within outlook. That part is ok, however we want to communicate from the webpage to the surrounding outlook application. We can call into outlook by exposing an ActiveX object from our plugin, however we get security warnings, even if it's signed and marked as safe for scripting. Is this even possible? Has anyone done it? Anyone have a better way of doing it? We only need to pass in a small amount of data (a message id), and only from the webpage to outlook [update]: This is the error: automation server can't create object. We can get around it a bit by turning things off in IE, but thats not a good way to do it! Thanks

    Read the article

  • MySQL transaction conundrum

    - by David Faitelson
    I need to perform several inserts in a single atomic transaction. For example: start transaction; insert ... insert ... commit; However when MySQL encounters an error it aborts only the particular statement that caused the error. For example, if there is an error in the second insert statement the commit will still take place and the first insert statement will be recorded. Thus, when errors occur a MySQL transaction is not really a transaction. To overcome this problem I have used an error exit handler where I rollback the transaction. Now the transaction is silently aborted but I don't know what was the problem. So here is the conundrum for you: How can I both make MySQL abort a transaction when it encounters an error, and pass the error code on to the caller?

    Read the article

  • Express one dimension of 2d array as new array

    - by user208080
    I have a 2d array a[3,3]. How can I express one dimension as a new array and pass it to some function? int[,] a = new int[3,3]; a[0,0] = 1; ... string b = concatenate(a[0]); // where concatenate is a function // take a one dimension array as param Also, can I create a 65000x65000 array with C#? I got some "out of memory" error.

    Read the article

  • Django GenericRelation doesn't save related object's id - is this a bug or am I doing it wrong?

    - by pinkeen
    I have a model with a generic relation (call it A), when creating an instance of this object I pass an instance of another model (call it B) as the initializer of the content_object field (via kwargs of the constructor). If I don't save B before creating A then when saving A the content_object_id is saved to the db as NULL. If I save B before passing it to the constructor of A then everything's allright. It's not logical. I assumed that the ID of the related object (B) is fetched when doing A.save() and it should throw some kind of an exception if B isn't saved yet but it just fails silently. I don't like the current solution (saving B beforhand) because we don't know yet if I will be always willing to keep the object, not just scrap it, and there are performance considerations - what if I will add some another data and save it once more shortly after. class BaseNodeData(models.Model): ... extnodedata_content_type = models.ForeignKey(ContentType, null=True) extnodedata_object_id = models.PositiveIntegerField(null=True) extnodedata = generic.GenericForeignKey(ct_field='extnodedata_content_type', fk_field='extnodedata_object_id') class MarkupNodeData(models.Model): raw_content = models.TextField() Suppose we do: markup = MarkupNodeData(raw_content='...') base = BaseNodeData(..., extnodedata=markup) markup.save() base.save() # both records are inserted to the DB but base is stored with extnodedata_object_id=NULL markup = MarkupNodeData(raw_content='...') base = BaseNodeData(..., extnodedata=markup) base.save() markup.save() # no exception is thrown and everything is the same as above markup = MarkupNodeData(raw_content='...') markup.save() base = BaseNodeData(..., extnodedata=markup) base.save() # this works as expected Of course I can do it this way, but it doesn't change anything: base = BaseNodeData(...) base.extnodedata = markup My question is - is this a bug in django which I should report or maybe I'm doing something wrong. Docs on GenericRelations aren't exactly verbose.

    Read the article

  • [C++] Boost test: catch user defined exceptions

    - by user231536
    If I have user defined exceptions in my code, I can't get Boost test to consider them as failures. For example, BOOST_AUTO_TEST_CASE_EXPECTED_FAILURES(MyTest,1) BOOST_AUTO_TEST_CASE(MyTest) { // code which throws user defined exception, not derived from std::exception. } I get a generic message: Caught exception: .... unknown location(0):.... It does not recognize this error as a failure since it is not a std::exception. So it does not honor the expected_failures clause. How do I enforce that the piece of code should always throw an exception? THis seems to be a useful thing to want. In case future code changes cause the code to pass and the exception is not thrown, I want to know that.

    Read the article

  • Why is Django sending the wrong email template?

    - by Mark
    I'm so baffled... I keep staring at this code, looking for the typo, but I can't find it! template = 'emails/transporter_joined' tt = loader.get_template(template+'.txt') c = Context({'user':user, 'fee': settings.FEE * Decimal('100.00'),'settings':settings}) e = EmailMultiAlternatives('Activate Your Account', tt.render(c), '[email protected]', [user.email]) try: ht = loader.get_template(template+'.html') e.attach_alternative(ht.render(c), 'text/html') except: pass e.send() First it should load the 'emails/transporter_joined.txt' template, and adds that to the email. And then it tries to load a '.html' version and attaches that too. In Gmail you can see the the "original email" with both emails, and all the headers in plain text. It very clearly shows the .txt version twice. the .html and .txt files are definitely different. What am I doing wrong here? If I replace this tt = loader.get_template(template+'.txt') With .html instead, then it sends the .html twice... it must be Django that's screwing up, no?

    Read the article

  • How to use the merge command

    - by Vaccano
    Say I have a table called Employee (has ID, NAME, ADDRESS, and PHONE columns). (Not my real problem, but simplified to make the question easier.) If I call a sproc called UpdateEmployee and I pass in a @Name, @Address, @Phone and @ID. Can merge be used to easily check to see if the ID exists? If it does to update the name, address and phone? and if it does not to insert them? I see examples on the net, but they are huge and hairy. I would like a nice simple example if possible. (We recently upgraded to SQL 2008, so I am new to the merge command.)

    Read the article

  • Singleton wrapper for Context

    - by kpdvx
    I'm considering creating a singleton wrapper for a Context so my model objects, if necessary, can open and read from a database connection. My model objects do not have access to a Context, and I'd like to avoid needing to pass a reference to a Context from object to object. I was planning to place into this singleton a reference to the Context returned by Application.getApplicationContext(). This singleton object would be initialized in my custom Application instance before anything else would need to or have a chance to use it. Can anyone think of a reason to not do this?

    Read the article

  • correct technical term for this pattern

    - by Oliver A.
    sometimes I use a pattern which is very similar to the singleton pattern: There is one default instance which and a static get method to aces it. But you may create other instances and pass it as optional parameter and if you want to and you can even replace the default instance with a instance from a child class. So it is NO SINGLETON at all but it is used like one singleton in most cases. Anyone got an idea who to call something like this ? Maybe half*** singleton? domiton?

    Read the article

  • WPF Logical Tree - bottom up vs. top down

    - by Dor Rotman
    Hello, I've read the MSDN article about the layouts pass, that states: When a node is added or removed from the logical tree, property invalidations are raised on the node's parent and all its children. As a result, a top-down construction pattern should always be followed to avoid the cost of unnecessary invalidations on nodes that have already been validated. Now lets assume I do this. Won't the users see the control tree populate itself and the layout change several times during the control creation process? I want the whole control tree to just appear completely full. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • valid xml element in java replaceAll doesnt seem working well

    - by John
    Im trying to create a xml file from a POJO , in which i have a property that stores urls, I have been using the below method to replace all & in the url String to make the xml conform to standards and pass it as an html char entity but the string does not change. public static String forHrefAmpersand(String aURL){ return aURL.replaceAll("&", "&"); } the value might be www.abc.com/controller?a=1&next=showResults I have even tried changing the above method to use "/" as i read replaceAll uses regular expression but replaceAll is not working as exprected, Can anyone tell me what is the mistake im doing ? Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • MVC3 application I want javascript methods to fire on passed in route values

    - by DavieDave
    I have an MVC3 application in Visual Studio 2010. I have a view with several dropdowns that do javascript calls to populate dropdowns based on the selected value, some of which are disabled initially. That all works great with the initial state of nothing. If I however pass routevalues to the dropdowns from a redirect to this action, I do get the value set correctly but it's not enabled like it should be on the dropdown for example and when I post the form, the ones that are greyed out are not passed back on the form. How can I correct this?

    Read the article

  • Any way to stringify a variable id / symbol in Python?

    - by otz
    I'm wondering if it is possible at all in python to stringify variable id/symbol -- that is, a function that behaves as follows: >>> symbol = 'whatever' >>> symbol_name(symbol) 'symbol' Now, it is easy to do it on a function or a class (if it is a direct reference to the object): >>> def fn(): pass >>> fn.func_name 'fn' But I'm looking for a general method that works on all cases, even for indirect object references. I've thought of somehow using id(var), but no luck yet. Is there any way to do it?

    Read the article

  • can I get .class from generic type argument?

    - by Mike S
    I have the following class: public abstract class MyClass<T extends Object> { protected T createNewFromData(Reader reader){ GSON.fromJSON(reader,T.class); // T.class isn't allowed :( } } How do I pass a Class<T instance into there? Is there some wierd and wacky work around? Is there a way to get a Class<T reference other than from a pre-instantiated Object of type T? It won't let me do this either: T t = new T(); Class<T> klass = t.class; ANSWER BELOW Thanks to the accepted answer, here is the solution: Type type = new TypeToken<T>(){}.getType(); return gson.fromJson(reader, type);

    Read the article

  • Can I get parameter names/values procedurally from the currently executing function?

    - by Pwninstein
    I would like to do something like this: public MyFunction(int integerParameter, string stringParameter){ //Do this: LogParameters(); //Instead of this: //Log.Debug("integerParameter: " + integerParameter + // ", stringParameter: " + stringParameter); } public LogParameters(){ //Look up 1 level in the call stack (if possible), //Programmatically loop through the function's parameters/values //and log them to a file (with the function name as well). //If I can pass a MethodInfo instead of analyzing the call stack, great. } I'm not even sure what I want to do is possible, but it would be very nice to be able to automatically output parameter names/values at runtime to a file without explicitly writing the code to log them. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Facing difficulty in moving the two id's

    - by user1806560
    By means of <?php echo $productlist->productid;?> in href i am passing the productid,its fine based on that i can able to display the items. The url is looking like this when i am passing like this http://localhost/sample/index.php/userlogin/items/35 . <ul class="left_menu"> <li class="odd"><a href="<?php echo BASE_INDEX_URL;?>/userlogin/items/<?php echo $productlist->productid;?>"> <?php echo $productlist->productname; ?> </a></li> </ul> My model is taking the value like this public function items($productid=0) { } But i want to pass one more id as categoryid in the href, how can i do that My model is taking the value like this(for 2 parameters) public function items($productid=0,$categoryid=0) { }

    Read the article

  • Class templating std::set key types

    - by TomFLuff
    I have a class to evaluate set algebra but wish to template it. At the minute it looks a bit like this set.h: template<typename T> class SetEvaluation { public: SetEvaluation<T>(); std::set<T> evaluate(std::string in_expression); } set.cpp template<typename T> std::set<T> SetEvaluation<T>::evaluate(std::string expression) { std::set<T> result; etc etc... } But i'm getting undefined reference errors when compiling. Is it possible to declare the return type as std::set<T> and then pass std::string as the class template param. There are no errors in the class but only when I try to instantiate SetEvaluation<std::string> Can anyone shed light on this problem? thanks

    Read the article

  • Google Analytics - Goal Funnel Steps

    - by Daniel
    Is there a way to test the url you're entering in a step, to see if Google Analytics will recognize it? What I'd like to do is provide some web page or some web service with a URL, and get a pass or fail. It passes if Google Analytics recognizes a page hit to the url. Let me give some context. We've been having issues with our goal funnel steps in Google Analytics. The instructions on adding steps say not to use the domain. e.g. DO NOT use : http://www.mysite.com/step1.html INSTEAD use: /step1.html Our custom CRM uses friendly urls and as a result GA is having a hard time picking up on them. So we've experimented with changing around url we've placed in the step, however we've got to wait a day to see if the new url we've provided is going to work! Hence why we're looking for something quicker.

    Read the article

  • How do I link to another action in Magento whilst passing a parameter to the controller?

    - by desbest
    I need to pass a parameter, because I would like to redirect back to the module and query string of the current page. So I can get from showdown/index?id=35 --click--- showdown/vote?id=1 showdown/vote?id=1 --redirect-- showdown/index?id=35 The vote action is not seen. (The redirect method doesn't work as it takes the index.php url only and no actions, and I cannot find a helper in Magento for creating hyperlinks.) Does Magneto have a link helper for this? Example of stuff I want: <a href="<?php echo Mage::Helper->Link->($url, $array); ?> then $array or whatever variables gets sent to the controller.

    Read the article

  • PHP exec problem with s3-put

    - by schneck
    Hi there, I use the s3-bash-project to upload data to an S3-Bucket. My command looks like this: /mypath/s3_bash/s3-put -v -k '123456789' -s '/mypath/secret' -T '/mypath/upload/myuploadfile' '/my.bucket/mykeyname' I can run the command from the command line (Mac OS X), and it works well. Now I want to execute it from a PHP-Script: exec($command, $output); but in output, the "s3-put"-command only returns the command's help text. I log the command, and it works if I c&p it from the log the the command line, so there not a problem. It seems that PHP does not pass all the parameters to the command line, although I run escapeshellarg() over all the parameters. I'm using a local XAMPP-Test environment, safe_mode is off. Any ideas?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 289 290 291 292 293 294 295 296 297 298 299 300  | Next Page >