Search Results

Search found 8637 results on 346 pages for 'mind blank'.

Page 295/346 | < Previous Page | 291 292 293 294 295 296 297 298 299 300 301 302  | Next Page >

• yet another logic.

  - by Sunil

  I'm working on a research problem out of curiosity and I don't know how to program the logic that I've in mind. Let me explain it to you : I've 4 vectors say for example, v1 = 1 1 1 1 v2 = 2 2 2 2 v3 = 3 3 3 3 v4 = 4 4 4 4 Now what I want to do is to add them combination-wise. i.e v12 = v1+v2 v13 = v1+v3 v14 = v1+v4 v23 = v2+v3 v24 = v2+v4 v34 = v3+v4 Till this step it is just fine. The problem/trick is now, at the end of each iteration I give the obtained vectors into a black box function and it returns only few of the vectors say v12, v13 and v34. Now, I want to add each of these vectors one vector from v1,v2,v3,v4 which it hasn't added before. For example v3 and v4 hasn't been added to v12 so I want to create v123 and v124. similarly for all the vectors like, v12 should become : v123 = v12+v3 v124 = v12+v4 v13 should become : v132 // this should not occur because I already have v123 v134 = v13+v4; v14,v23 and v24 cannot be considered because it was deleted in the black box function so all we have in our hands to work with is v12,v13 and v34. v34 should become : v341 // cannot occur because we have 134 v342 = v34+v2 It is important that I do not do all at one step at the start like for example I can do (4 choose 3) 4C3 and finish it off but I want to do it step by step at each iteration. I've asked a modified version of this question before (without including the black box function) and got answers here. Can anybody tell me how to do it when the black box function is included ? A modification of the previous answer would also be great. Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• C++ - Totally suspend windows application

  - by HardCoder1986

  Hello! I am developing a simple WinAPI application and started from writing my own assertion system. I have a macro defined like ASSERT(X) which would make pretty the same thing as assert(X) does, but with more information, more options and etc. At some moment (when that assertion system was already running and working) I realized there is a problem. Suppose I wrote a code that does some action using a timer and (just a simple example) this action is done while handling WM_TIMER message. And now, the situation changes the way that this code starts throwing an assert. This assert message would be shown every TIMER_RESOLUTION milliseconds and would simply flood the screen. Options for solving this situation could be: 1) Totally pause application running (probably also, suspend all threads) when the assertion messagebox is shown and continue running after it is closed 2) Make a static counter for the shown asserts and don't show asserts when one of them is already showing (but this doesn't pause application) 3) Group similiar asserts and show only one for each assert type (but this also doesn't pause application) 4) Modify the application code (for example, Get / Translate / Dispatch message loop) so that it suspends itself when there are any asserts. This is good, but not universal and looks like a hack. To my mind, option number 1 is the best. But I don't know any way how this can be achieved. What I'm seeking for is a way to pause the runtime (something similiar to Pause button in the debugger). Does somebody know how to achieve this? Also, if somebody knows an efficient way to handle this problem - I would appreciate your help. Thank you.

  Read the article

• Strangest LINQ to SQL case I have ever seen

  - by kubaw

  OK, so this is the strangest issue in .net programming I have ever seen. It seems that object fields are serialized in .net web services in order of field initialization. It all started with Flex not accepting SOAP response from .net web service. I have found out that it was due to the order of serialized fields was statisfying the order of fields in declared serializable class. It had something to do with generic lists and LINQ to SQL but I can't find out what. This one is really hard to reproduce. Example to get the idea: [Serializable] public class SomeSample { public int A; public int B; public int C; } I was querying some data tables within asmx web service using linq and returning list of SomeSample objects: var r = (from ...... select new SomeSample { A = 1, C = 3 }).ToList(); Now the list was once more iterated and B field was applied some value (ex. 2). However the returned soap envelope contained following excerpt: <A>1</A><C>3</C><B>2</B> Please notice the order of serialization. If I initially initialized all fields: var r = (from ...... select new SomeSample { A = 1, B = 2, C = 3 }).ToList(); object was serialized in correct order. I must add, that in both cases the debugger shows exactly the same content of "r" variable. Am I losing my mind or is this normal behavior? Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• Making more recent items more likely to be drawn

  - by bobo

  There are a few hundred of book records in the database and each record has a publish time. In the homepage of the website, I am required to write some codes to randomly pick 10 books and put them there. The requirement is that newer books need to have higher chances of getting displayed. Since the time is an integer, I am thinking like this to calculate the probability for each book: Probability of a book to be drawn = (current time - publish time of the book) / ((current time - publish time of the book1) + (current time - publish time of the book1) + ... (current time - publish time of the bookn)) After a book is drawn, the next round of the loop will minus the (current time - publish time of the book) from the denominator and recalculate the probability for each of the remaining books, the loop continues until 10 books have been drawn. Is this algorithm a correct one? By the way, the website is written in PHP. Feel free to suggest some PHP codes if you have a better algorithm in your mind. Many thanks to you all.

  Read the article

• Can't grab foreign key during after_create callback because it doesn't exist yet!

  - by Randy

  I have some models all linked together in memory (parent:child:child:child) and saved at the same time by saving the top-most parent. This works fine. I'd like to tap into the after_create callback of one of the children to populate a changelog table. One of the attributes I need to copy/push into the changelog table is the child's foreign_key to it's direct parent, but it doesn't exist at the time after_create fires!?! Without the after_create callback, I can look in the log and see that the child is being saved before it's parent (foreign key blank) then the parent is inserted... then the child is updated with the id from the parent. The child's after_create is firing at the right time, but it happens before Rails has had a chance to update the child with the foreign_key. Is there any way to force Rails to save such a linkage of models in a certain order? ie.parent, then child (parent foreign_key exists), then that child's child (again, foreign_key is accessible) etc. ?? If not, how would I have my routine fire after a record is created AND get the foreign_key? Seems a callback like this would be helpful: after_create_with_foreign_keys

  Read the article

• How to create a timer the right way?

  - by mystify

  I always have an class which needs to set up a timer for as long as the object is alive. Typically an UIView which does some animation. Now the problem: If I strongly reference the NSTimer I create and invalidate and release the timer in -dealloc, the timer is never invalidated or released because -dealloc is never called, since the run loop maintains a strong reference to the target. So what can I do? If I cant hold a strong ref to the timer object, this is also bad because maybe I need a ref to it to be able to stop it. And a weak ref on a object is not good, because maybe i'm gonna access it when it's gone. So better have a retain on what I want to keep around. How are you guys solving this? must the superview create the timer? is that better? or should i really just make a weak ref on it and keep in mind that the run loop holds a strong ref on my timer for me, as long as it's not invalidated?

  Read the article

• slidepanel/hover help

  - by Josh

  I'm trying to create a menu navigation system from the top of the page. I want it so when I hover over the link, it drops down (the link drops down; so it'd be as if there was a whole field being hidden beyond the 0px mark) with the related field. I've gotten it to work, somehow but it still isn't right. A few issues are: when I hover over .drop_slide and then if I choose to close it by hovering back over the .drop_slide it does as it's told, which is "slide, slide". I'm interested in rectifying this issue so it doesn't do that, however I just don't know how. The idea is to have multiple links in the .slide, so I need it to be constantly open while the user mouses over the other links. Should this be created in one field? If so, how would I do that with a drop down in mind? Am I approaching this completely wrong? Lol. Should I be researching into .animate? I've been looking at it actually, but I can't get anything to grow negatively. Say; marginTop: -85px or something. ANY help is appreciated, thanks! $(document).ready(function(){ function slide() { $("#panel").slideToggle("slow"); } $(".drop_slide").hover(slide, stop); $("#panel").hover(stop, slide); });

  Read the article

• Is the below thread pool implementation correct(C#3.0)

  - by Newbie

  Hi Experts, For the first time ever I have implemented thread pooling and I found it to be working. But I am not very sure about the way I have done is the appropriate way it is supposed to be. Would you people mind in spending some valuable time to check and let me know if my approach is correct or not? If you people find that the approach is incorrect , could you please help me out in writing the correct version. I have basicaly read How to use thread pool and based on what ever I have understood I have developed the below program as per my need public class Calculation { #region Private variable declaration ManualResetEvent[] factorManualResetEvent = null; #endregion public void Compute() { factorManualResetEvent = new ManualResetEvent[2]; for (int i = 0; i < 2; i++){ factorManualResetEvent[i] = new ManualResetEvent(false); ThreadPool.QueueUserWorkItem(ThreadPoolCallback, i);} //Wait for all the threads to complete WaitHandle.WaitAll(factorManualResetEvent); //Proceed with the next task(s) NEXT_TASK_TO_BE_EXECUTED(); } #region Private Methods // Wrapper method for use with thread pool. public void ThreadPoolCallback(Object threadContext) { int threadIndex = (int)threadContext; Method1(); Method2(); factorManualResetEvent[threadIndex].Set(); } private void Method1 () { //Code of method 1} private void Method2 () { //Code of method 2 } #endregion }

  Read the article

• Need Multiple Sudoku Solutions

  - by user1567909

  I'm trying to output multiple sudoku solutions in my program. For example, when You enter this as input: 8..6..9.5.............2.31...7318.6.24.....73...........279.1..5...8..36..3...... .'s denote blank spaces. Numbers represent already-filled spaces. The output should be a sudoku solution like so: 814637925325149687796825314957318462241956873638274591462793158579481236183562749 However, I want to output multiple solutions. This would be all the solutions that should be printed: 814637925325149687796825314957318462241956873638274591462793158579481236183562749 814637925325941687796825314957318462241569873638472591462793158579184236183256749 834671925125839647796425318957318462241956873368247591682793154579184236413562789 834671925125839647796524318957318462241956873368247591682793154519482736473165289 834671925125839647796524318957318462241965873368247591682793154519482736473156289 But my program only prints out one solution. Below is my recursive solution to solving a sudoku solution bool sodoku::testTheNumber(sodoku *arr[9][9], int row, int column) { if(column == 9) { column = 0; row++; if(row == 9) return true; } if(arr[row][column]->number != 0) { return testTheNumber(arr, row, column+1); } for(int k = 1; k < 10; k++) { if(k == 10) { arr[row][column]->number = 0; return false; } if(rowIsValid(arr, k, row) && columnIsValid(arr, k, column) && boxIsValid(arr, k, row, column)) { arr[row][column]->number = k; if(testTheNumber(arr, row, column+1)==true) { return true; } arr[row][column]->number = 0; } } return false; } Could anyone help me come up with a way to print out multiple solutions? Thanks.

  Read the article

• Projecting an object into a scene based on world coordinates only

  - by user354862

  I want to place a 3D image into a scene base on world/global coordinates. I have an image of a scene. The image was captures at some global coordinate (x1, y1, z1). I am given an object that needs to be placed into this scene based on its global coordinate (x2, y2, y3). This object needs to be projected into the scene accurately similarly to perspective projection. An example may help to make this clear. Imagine there is a parking lot with some set of global coordinates. A picture is taken of a portion of the parking lot. The coordinates from the spot where the image was taken is recorded. The goal is to place a virtual vehicle into this image using the global coordinates for that vehicle. Because the global cooridnates for the vehicle may not be in the fov of the global coordinates for the image I am assuming that I will need the image coordinates, angle and possibly fov. 3D graphics is not my area so I have been looking at http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Perspective_projection#Perspective_projection. I have also been looking at Matrix3DProjection which seems to possibly be what I am looking for but it only works in Silverlight and I am trying to do this in WPF. In my mind it appears I need to determine the (X,Y,Z) coordinates that are in the fov of the image, determine the world coordinate to pixel conversion and then accurately project the vehicle into the image giving it the correct perspective such that is looks 3D i.e smaller the further away bigger closer Is there a function within WPF that can help with this or will I need to re-learn matrices and do this by hand?

  Read the article

• How do I code a tree of objects in Haskell with pointers to parent and children?

  - by axilmar

  I've got the following problem: I have a tree of objects of different classes where an action in the child class invalidates the parent. In imperative languages, it is trivial to do. For example, in Java: public class A { private List<B> m_children = new LinkedList<B>(); private boolean m_valid = true; public void invalidate() { m_valid = false; } public void addChild(B child) { m_children.add(child); child.m_parent = this; } } public class B { public A m_parent = null; private int m_data = 0; public void setData(int data) { m_data = 0; m_parent.invalidate(); } } public class Main { public static void main(String[] args) { A a = new A(); B b = new B(); b.setData(0); //invalidates A } } How do I do the above in Haskell? I cannot wrap my mind around this, since once I construct an object in Haskell, it cannot be changed. I would be much obliged if the relevant Haskell code is posted.

  Read the article

• How to learn a new programming language? And how to choose the appropriate language?

  - by Sebi

  Unfortunately my last question was closed, so I reformulated the question: I know this question was here a lot of times and can't be answered at all, but im not looking for a single name, but rather for an advice in my situation. I learned programming with Java and now I'm developing in Java for more or less 5 years (at the university) and I thinks my programming skills their are really ok/average. I have also small experience in C/C++ and C#. Now I have some spare time and I'd like to learn a new language or deepen the knowledge of Java/C/C++. But how to choose the right language to learn? I'd like to learn a language which will be usefull in the future concerning working in a software development business? I know there is no single answer, but I'm sure you could mention some languages that are more usefull than others. And what's the best way to learn such a language efficiently (bearing in mind that one has already learned some other languages)? Just doing tutorials? Or trying to implement a project? Trying to move a Java project to the new language?

  Read the article

• Conditional fieldgroups/fieldsets in Drupal 7

  - by seane

  Background: In Drupal 7, I have created a form with CCK (aka the Field UI). I used the Field group module to create a fieldgroup, but I need it to be conditional, meaning it will only display depending on a previous answer. Previous research: To create a conditional field, you can use hook_form_alter() to edit the #states attribute like so: function MYMODULE_form_alter(&$form, &$form_state, $form_id) { if ($form_id == 'person_info_node_form') { // Display 'field_maiden_name' only if married $form['field_maiden_name']['#states'] = array( 'visible' => array( ':input[name="field_married[und]"]' => array('value' => 'Yes'), ), ); } } However, there seems to be no way to use the States API for fieldgroups. One thing to note is that, while fields are stored in $form, fieldgroups are stored in $form['#groups'] as well as in $form['#fieldgroups']. I don't know how to distinguish between these, and with this in mind, I have tried to apply a #states attribute to a fieldgroup in the same manner as above. However, it only produces server errors. Question: Is there a way to make a fieldgroup display conditionally using the States API or some alternative approach?

  Read the article

• How should I solve this MySql problem (PHP) ? (Beginner)

  - by Camran

  I have several tables in a MySql database. I have a classifieds website, and at the bottom I display the users last visited classifieds. I do this by storing the ID:s of the ads to an array in the cookie. Now, my db is made up like this kindof: Main Table: // Stores global information, ie these fields have to be filled out in every record, never be blank ID Price category Seller Item Table: // Stores descriptive info about whats for sale ID AD_ID (FK) //This is the same as ID in the MAIN TABLE Color Size Mileage etc My problem is that I need to know what category the ad is in, in order to query mysql for the right information I think. So I need two variables, but the cookie only has one (ID) stored. Offcourse I could make two queries, first one just matching the ID to the main_table and fetch the category from the Main_table. Then make the second query and fetch all other info from the right table. Here is an example if the category was Vehicles: SELECT * FROM main_table, vehicles_table, WHERE main_table.id=$id_from_cookie AND main_table.ad_id=vehicles_table.ad_id As you can see above, I need the category to write in what table to check, right? But I think there must be a smarter way, like fetching them in one single query using only one variable (id from cookie)? How should I do this? Understand? Let me know if you need more input... Thanks

  Read the article

• How do I show all group headers in Access 2007 reports?

  - by Newbie

  This is a question about Reports in Access 2007. I'm unsure whether the solution will involve any programming, but hopefully someone will be able to help me. I have a report which lists all records from a particular table (call it A), and groups them by their associated record in a related table (call it B). I use the 'group headers' to add the information from table-B into the report. The problem occurs when I filter the records from table-A that are shown in the report. If I filter out all table-A records that relate to a particular record (call it X) in table-B, the report no longer shows the record-X group header. As a possible workaround, I have tried to ensure that I have one empty record in table-A for each of the records in table-B. That way I can specify NOT to filter out these empty records. However, the outcome is ugly one-record-high blank spaces at the start of each group in the report. Does anyone know of an alternative solution?

  Read the article

• Databound Label text displays old data upon save. Re-open record and data is correct?

  - by Mike Hestness

  I have a windows forms application. I have a main form and I have a button on this form to set a "Qualified" date/time stamp. I have a Databound label control that I set the value when the user clicks the button. This date/time stamp is working as far as displaying but when you click the save button it either shows blank or the previous date/time. If you then then close the record and re-open it the new date/time value is displayed so the data is getting to the database it's just not persisting in the dataset as new data?? Not sure why the databinding isn't refreshing the value. I have noticed this behavior even if I use a textbox, same thing if I do it programatically. If I manually type in a value it persists?? Here is the code I'm using in the click event of my button: string result = string.Empty; string jobOrderID = UnitOfWork.MasterDSBS.MJOBO[0].JC_IDNO.ToString(); string timeNow = DateTime.Now.ToString(); //Call Web service to make the update RadServices.Service1 rsWeb = new RadServices.Service1(); result = rsWeb.SetQualifiedDate(timeNow, jobOrderID ); //Changed the qualified label text. _btnQualify.Text = "Qualified"; rlQualifiedDate.Text = timeNow;

  Read the article

• TreeNode Selection Problems in C#

  - by user455046

  Whenever I click outside the tree nodes text, on the control part, it tigers a node click event- but doesn't highlight the node. I am unsure why this is happening. I want the node to be selected on a click- when you click the nodes text- not the whitespace- I only assume that the nodes width reaches across the whole Treenode? I have the Treeview on dock.fill mode if that has something to do with it- I tried everything but can't get it to behave correctly. Maybe someone will know what's going on. Update: if (e.Location.IsEmpty) { Seems to work better- but still selects the node in the blank place where there is no text- Obviously the node width extends across the whole treeview it seems? Is there a better way to accomplish what I want? Or is that the best way? UPDATE: Previous idea isn't working- sigh- I thought it did it but it didn't. New Problem : I think part of the problem is related to the focus now when I switch from treeview.

  Read the article

• Ordering a set of lines so that they follow one from the other

  - by george

  Line# Lat. Lon. 1a 1573313.042320 6180142.720910 .. .. 1z 1569171.442602 6184932.867930 3a 1569171.764930 6184934.045650 .. .. 3z 1570412.815667 6190358.086690 5a 1570605.667770 6190253.392920 .. .. 5z 1570373.562963 6190464.146120 4a 1573503.842910 6189595.286870 .. .. 4z 1570690.065390 6190218.190575 Each pair of lines above (a..z) represents the first and last coordinate pair of a number of points which together define a line. The lines are not listed in sequence because I don't know what the correct sequence is just by looking at the coordinates (unless I look at the lines in a map). Hence my question: how can I find programmatically (in Python) what the correct sequence is, so I can join the lines into one long line, keeping in mind the following problem: - a 'z' point (the last point in a line) may well be the first point if the line is described as proceeding in the opposite direction to other lines. e.g. one line may go from left to right, another from right to left (or top to bottom and viceversa). Thank you in advance...

  Read the article

• iphone app working on most devices but not a few

  - by Matt Facer

  Hi there. I have recently been rewriting some of my iphone app because a couple of users have said it was crashing on certain events. The event in question is when I add a new XIB to the view using the following code AddItemViewController * add_item = [[AddItemViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"AddItem" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; [self presentModalViewController:add_item animated:YES]; [add_item setViewFormat:2]; [add_item release]; it works perfectly on my iphone and a mate's ipod touch (both running 3.1.3) but another user on an ipod touch also with 3.1.3 says it crashes when the function above is called. Why could this be happening? Surely if it works on one device it should work on another?! Is there a better way to add a view which maybe doesnt crash? I have also disabled all the code on the loading xib - so it literally is loading a near blank page. It's SO annoying!! Thanks for any help.

  Read the article

• How to use Geocoder to get the current location zip code

  - by Noble6

  I am trying to get the zip code of the users current location.I have a teditText in MyActivity which should get populated based on the zip code I get from this activity. public class LocationActivity extends MyActivity { double LATITUDE; double LONGITUDE; Geocoder geocoder = new Geocoder(this, Locale.ENGLISH); { try { List<Address> addresses = geocoder.getFromLocation(LATITUDE, LONGITUDE, 1); if(addresses != null) { Address returnedZip = addresses.get(0); StringBuilder currentZip = new StringBuilder("Address:\n"); for(int i=0; i<returnedZip.getMaxAddressLineIndex(); i++) { strcurrentZip.append(returnedZip.getPostalCode()); } m_zip.setText(strcurrentZip.toString()); } else { m_zip.setText("No zip returned!"); } } catch (IOException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); m_zip.setText("zip not found!"); } } } I am not getting any response,the app logcat does not show any errors but the the editText field I want to populate remains blank.

  Read the article

• <%: %> brackets for HTML Encoding in ASP.NET 4.0

  - by Slauma

  Accidentally I found this post about a new feature in ASP.NET 4.0: Expressions enclosed in these new brackets <%: Content %> should be rendered as HTML encoded. I've tried this within a databound label in a FormView like so: <asp:Label ID="MyLabel" runat="server" Text='<%: Eval("MyTextProperty") %>' /> But it doesn't work: The text property contains script tags (for testing), but the output is blank. Using the traditional way works: <asp:Label ID="MyLabel" runat="server" Text='<%# HttpUtility.HtmlEncode(Eval("MyTextProperty")) %>' /> What am I doing wrong? (On a sidenote: I am too stupid to find any information: Google refuses to search for that thing. The VS2010 Online help on MSDN offers a lot of hits, but nothing related to my search. Stackoverflow search too. And I don't know how these "things" (the brackets I mean) are officially called to have a better search term.) Any info and additional links and resources are welcome! Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

• CSS: Why an input width:100% doesn't expand in an absolute box?

  - by Alessandro Vernet

  I have 2 inputs: they both have a width: 100%, and the second one is an absolute box: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en"> <head> <style type="text/css"> #box1 { position: absolute } #box1 { background: #666 } input { width: 100% } </style> </head> <body> <form> <input type="text"> <div id="box1"> <input type="text"> </div> </form> </body> </html> On standard-compliant browsers, the width: 100% seems to have no effect on the input inside the absolutely positioned box, but it does on the input which is not inside that absolutely absolute box. On IE7, both inputs take the whole width of the page. Two questions come to mind: Why does the width: 100% have no effect with standard-compliant browsers? I have to say that the way IE7 renders this feels more intuitive to me. How can I get IE7 to render things like the other browsers, if I can't remove the width: 100% and can't set a width on the absolutely positioned box?

  Read the article

• Apache2 configuration error: "<VirtualHost> was not closed" error

  - by Chris

  So I've already checked through my config file and I really can't see an instance where any tag hasn't been properly closed...but I keep getting this configuration error...Would you mind taking a look through the error and the config file below? Any assistance would be greatly appreciated. FYI, I've already googled the life out of the error and looked through the log extensively, I really can't find anything. Error: apache2: Syntax error on line 236 of /etc/apache2/apache2.conf: syntax error on line 1 of /etc/apache2/sites-enabled/000-default: /etc/apache2/sites-enabled/000-default:1: was not closed. Line 236 of apache2.conf: # Include the virtual host configurations: Include /etc/apache2/sites-enabled/ Contents of 000-default: <VirtualHost *:80> ServerAdmin webmaster@localhost DocumentRoot /var/www <Directory /> Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride None </Directory> <Directory /var/www/> Options Indexes FollowSymLinks MultiViews AllowOverride None Order allow,deny allow from all </Directory> ScriptAlias /cgi-bin/ /usr/lib/cgi-bin/ <Directory "/usr/lib/cgi-bin"> AllowOverride None Options +ExecCGI -MultiViews +SymLinksIfOwnerMatch Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> ErrorLog /var/log/apache2/error.log # Possible values include: debug, info, notice, warn, error, crit, # alert, emerg. LogLevel warn CustomLog /var/log/apache2/access.log combined Alias /doc/ "/usr/share/doc/" <Directory "/usr/share/doc/"> Options Indexes MultiViews FollowSymLinks AllowOverride None Order deny,allow Deny from all Allow from 127.0.0.0/255.0.0.0 ::1/128 </Directory> </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost *:443> SetEnvIf Request_URI "^/u" dontlog ErrorLog /var/log/apache2/error.log Loglevel warn SSLEngine On SSLCertificateFile /etc/apache2/ssl/apache.pem ProxyRequests Off <Proxy *> AuthUserFile /srv/ajaxterm/.htpasswd AuthName EnterPassword AuthType Basic require valid-user Order Deny,allow Allow from all </Proxy> ProxyPass / http://localhost:8022/ ProxyPassReverse / http://localhost:8022/ </VirtualHost> UPDATE I had a load of other issues with my install so I wound up just wiping it and reinstalling. If I run into the same problem, I'll repost. Everyone, thanks for your help/suggestions.

  Read the article

• Handling bounced email when using a postfix smarthost

  - by Mark Rose

  I'm running a high availability cluster, and so far, most things work great. I have two external machines that act as outgoing mail hosts (smarthosts). The internal hosts are configured to relay all email through these two external facing hosts. My smarthosts' main.cf looks like this: myhostname = lb1.example.com alias_maps = hash:/etc/aliases alias_database = hash:/etc/aliases mydestination = lb1.example.com, localhost relayhost = mynetworks = 127.0.0.0/8 10.1.248.0/24 My internal hosts' main.cf looks like this: mynetworks = 127.0.0.0/8 myhostname = web1.example.com mydestination = $myhostname, localhost.$mydomain, localhost relayhost = [10.1.248.3] smtp_fallback_relay = [10.1.248.2] lb1's internal IP is 10.1.248.2, and lb2's internal IP is 10.1.248.3. On the external hosts, email for root and www-data is forwarded to [email protected] with /etc/aliases. One advantage to using the smarthost setup is that spam filters and the like can connect back to the sending sending server. All email is sent fine, and headers look like this: Received: from lb2.example.com ([198.51.100.3]) by mx.google.com with ESMTP id y17si1571259icb.76.2011.01.13.18.20.32; Thu, 13 Jan 2011 18:20:32 -0800 (PST) Received-SPF: neutral (google.com: 198.51.100.3 is neither permitted nor denied by best guess record for domain of [email protected]) client-ip=198.51.100.3; Received: from db1.example.com (unknown [10.1.248.20]) by lb2.example.com (Postfix) with ESMTP id D364823C0BE for <[email protected]>; Thu, 13 Jan 2011 21:20:31 -0500 (EST) Received: by db1.example.com (Postfix) id C9FA7760D6A; Thu, 13 Jan 2011 21:20:31 -0500 (EST) Delivered-To: www-data@localhost Received: by db1.example.com (Postfix, from userid 0) id C1632760D6C; Thu, 13 Jan 2011 21:20:31 -0500 (EST) The problem is bounced/reject email. The external machine tries to forward the email back to the internal machine, e.g. www-data on web1 sending an email that bounces (such as a user signing up with a bad email address). An additional complication is using Google mail for the main example.com domain. In lieu of specifying every internal host in the external hosts' mydestination, is there a better way of setting things up, keeping in mind I can't adjust touch the mx for example.com?

  Read the article

• Internet Explorer keeps asking for NTLM credentials in Intranet zone

  - by Tomalak

  Long text, sorry for that. I'm trying to be as specific as possible. I'm on Windows 7 and I experience a very frustrating Internet Explorer 8 behavior. I'm in a company LAN with some intranet servers and a proxy for connecting with the outside world. On sites that are clearly recognized as being "Local Intranet" (as indicated in the IE status bar) I keep getting "Windows Security" dialog boxes that ask me to log in. These pages are served off an IIS6 with "Integrated Windows Security" enabled, NTFS permits Everyone:Read on the files themselves. If I enter my Windows credentials, the page loads fine. However, the dialog boxes will be popping up the next time, regardless if I ticked "Remember my credentials" or not. (Credentials are stored in the "Credential Manager" but that does not make any difference as to how often these login boxes appear.) If I click "Cancel", one of two things can happen: Either the page loads with certain resources missing (images, styleheets, etc), or it does not load at all and I get HTTP 401.2 (Unauthorized: Logon Failed Due to Server Configuration). This depends on whether the logon box was triggered by the page itself, or a referenced resource. The behavior appears to be completely erratic, sometimes the pages load smoothly, sometimes one resource triggers a logon message, sometimes it does not. Even simply re-loading the page can result in changed behavior. I'm using WPAD as my proxy detection mechanism. All Intranet hosts do bypass the proxy in the PAC file. I've checked every IE setting I can think of, entered host patterns, individual host names, IP ranges in every thinkable configuration to the "Local Intranet" zone, ticked "Include all sites that bypass the proxy server", you name it. It boils down to "sometimes it just does not work", and slowly I'm losing my mind. ;-) I'm aware that this is related to IE not automatically passing my NTLM credentials to the webserver but asking me instead. Usually this should only happen for NTLM-secured sites that are not recognized as being in the "Intranet" zone. As explained, this is not the case here. Especially since half of a page can load perfectly and without interruption and some page's resources (coming from the same server!) trigger the login message. I've looked at http://support.microsoft.com/kb/303650, which gives the impression of describing the problem, but nothing there seems to work. And frankly, I'm not certain if "manually editing the registry" is the right solution for this kind of problem. I'm not the only person in the world with an IE/intranet/IIS configuration, after all. I'm at a loss, can somebody give me a hint?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 291 292 293 294 295 296 297 298 299 300 301 302  | Next Page >