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  • Telerik ASP.NET AJAX - Ajax Update Label with dynamic created Docks

    - by csharpnoob
    Hi, i try to Update a simple Label on Close Event of dynamic created RadDock. Works fine so far, Label gets the correct values but doesnt updates it. RadDock dock = new RadDock(); dock.DockMode = DockMode.Docked; dock.UniqueName = Guid.NewGuid().ToString(); dock.ID = string.Format("RadDock{0}", dock.UniqueName); dock.Title = slide.slideName; dock.Text = string.Format("Added at {0}", DateTime.Now); dock.Width = Unit.Pixel(300); dock.AutoPostBack = true; dock.CommandsAutoPostBack = true; dock.Command += new DockCommandEventHandler(dock_Command); ... void dock_Command(object sender, DockCommandEventArgs e) { Status.Text = "Removed " + ((RadDock)sender).Title + " " + ((RadDock)sender).Text; } I tried to do this: RadAjaxManager1.AjaxSettings.AddAjaxSetting(dock, Status, null); while creating the docks, but on runtime i get a NullReference Excepetion. On a Button registered with the RadAjaxManager it works to show the value assigned by dock_command. protected void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Status.Text = Status.Text; } UPDATE: The RadAjaxManager was created with integrated Wizzard of VS2008. Can't select the Docks, because the are generated while runtime. On Backend its included in AutoCompletion, so the NullReference has nothing to do with the AjaxManager itself. Like i said, works fine with the Button. <telerik:RadAjaxManager ID="RadAjaxManager1"> <telerik:AjaxSetting AjaxControlID="Button1"> <UpdatedControls> <telerik:AjaxUpdatedControl ControlID="Label1"></telerik:AjaxUpdatedControl> </UpdatedControls> </telerik:AjaxSetting>

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  • Entity Framework 4 "Generate Database from Model" to SQLEXPRESS mdf results in "Could not locate ent

    - by InfinitiesLoop
    I'm using Visual Studio 2010 RTM. I want to do model-first, so I started a new MVC app and added a new blank edmx. Created a few entities. No problem. Then I "Generate Database from Model", and allow the dialog to create a new database for me, which it does successfully as 'mydatabase.mdf' in the app's App_Data directory. Then I open the generated sql file (in Visual Studio). To run it of course I have to give it a connection. I am not sure if it's right, but I used '.\SQLEXPRESS' and Windows authentication. No idea how I'd tell it where the MDF is. Then the problem -- upon executing it, I get: Msg 911, Level 16, State 1, Line 1 Could not locate entry in sysdatabases for database 'mydatabase'. No entry found with that name. Make sure that the name is entered correctly. And indeed there were no tables created in the MDF. So... what am I doing wrong, or am I off my rocker expecting this to work? :)

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  • Cannot debug views in MVC2 project, getting "The resource cannot be found" error

    - by schefdev
    I'm running Visual Studio 2008 sp1 on Win7, with MVC2 RTM installed. I created a new MVC2 project using the wizard and am unable to debug specific pages. With webforms and even MVC1, I was able to sit on a View page, hit F5, and then have the integrated web server in VS2008 start on the page I was working on. Very handy for building up app logic. When I try this now I get a "The resource cannot be found" error page. I retried this just now with a stock new MVC2 Web Application project. Here are the steps I took after creating the new project to reproduce: Open up project settings. Under the Web subtab, set the Start Action to "Current Page". Leave all the other settings as is. Open one of the views up (e.g. Account/Register.aspx) Hit F5 to debug the project Note that the browser window which displays shows the error message "The resource cannot be found". The link I saw in my browser for this run was: http://localhost:49471/Views/Account/Register.aspx I did some googling and found suggestions related to ensuring all HTTP server pieces were installed. I double checked and made sure that "HTTP Errors" and "HTTP Redirection" were both installed. If I leave the project setting as it was originally, set to "Specific Page" with nothing in the text box, then routing works and I always get the default home page. I'm hoping this isn't the only option. Thanks!

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  • iPhone: Software Development And Distribution

    - by xsl
    I have a few quick questions about the iPhone software development. I did some research about the topic, but there are a few specific things I would like to ask here, because I will have to estimate the cost of the required hardware and software, before I am allowed to buy anything. I never did any Mac development nor have I ever owned an iPhone, so needless to say this is quite hard for me. I will buy an iMac mini with 2 GB RAM for iPhone development. I will have to use it at the same time as my regular PC, but the majority of the time I won't use the Mac at all. Do I have to buy an additional monitor, a mouse and a keyboard or is there a better solution? I will have to port a C library to the iPhone platform and develop an iPhone application that uses the ported library. Do I need anything else than the iPhone SDK to do this? If I use an external library (see above), can I test the application with the integrated emulator, or is it recommend to buy the device? In a later phase of the project I will have to buy an iPhone, but I will have to wait until the iPhone 4 is released here in Europe, because the application requires a camera. In addition to this I will have to send data to a remote webservice. Aside from these two things I don't require any other features. Can I just buy the iPhone online from another country (the iPhones here are sim locked), or should I buy one with a contract? When the application is ready, it will be installed on a few iPhones owned by our customer. Because of security reasons it is crucial that there is no third party involved in this process (i.e. the application should not be distributed on the app store). Is this possible?

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  • ASP.NET MVC in a subfolder (only) on godaddy

    - by Anthony Potts
    Okay, I have read many of the routing posts concerning putting asp.net mvc on godaddy. However, I have not come to a solution to my current problem. I am trying to publish an ASP.NET MVC application to a subfolder on godaddy. I have upgraded the account to use IIS 7 and I have included the MVC dlls in \bin\ deployment method. However, I suspect that my route is not correct. Currently, my routes are set up with the standard out of the box route: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); } I have a subdomain set up so that it looks like office.domain.com. The subdomain is pointing at a folder "/office/" which is right off the root folder. (There is not an MVC application installed in the root folder). All of my application has been placed in this 'office' folder. When I hover over the links however, the 'office' portion shows up in the link as well. e.g. Hovering over a link to the customer controller, index action yields "office.domain.com/office/Customer" as the target. This link then gets a 404 when I attempt to go to it. What should my route be to fix this? Is there something I have neglected in setting up the subdomain in godaddy? Is this something I just can't do in godaddy's domain management "tool". Do I need to set up a virtual directory for this instead of just a directory? Update: I changed the IIS settings in godaddy to use integrated pipeline mode, per this discussion and I am no longer getting 404 errors. The application worked just fine as suggested it would.

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  • Exception using Querytables in Excel Automation

    - by sam
    Hi, I'm using Automation to populate a range in Excel using a querytable.. However, when I try to add a querytable to the qorksheet I get an exception. I checked the connection string and its working fine.. Can some one please help me with this?? public void writeproc1() { try { Worksheet ws = (Worksheet)wb.Worksheets.Add(Missing.Value, Missing.Value, Missing.Value, Missing.Value); Range rng = ws.get_Range("A1", "E14"); QueryTable qt = ws.QueryTables.Add("Data Source=(local)\\SQLEXPRESS;initial catalog=temp;Integrated Security=SSPI;", rng, "Select * From Table_1"); qt.RefreshStyle = XlCellInsertionMode.xlInsertEntireRows; qt.Refresh(false); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.WriteLine(ex.ToString()); Console.ReadKey(); } } Exception Thrown System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException (0x800A03EC): Exception from HRESULT: 0x800A03EC at System.RuntimeType.ForwardCallToInvokeMember(String memberName, BindingFlags flags, Object target, Int32[] aWrapperTypes, MessageData& msgData) at Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel.QueryTables.Add(Object Connection, Range Destination, Object Sql) at tmp.Program.writeproc1() in ...Projects\tmp\tmp\Program.cs:line 25

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  • Object Moved error while consuming a webservice

    - by NandaGopal
    Hi - I've a quick question and request you all to respond soon. I've developed a web service with Form based authentication as below. 1.An entry in web.config as below. 2.In Login Page user is validate on button click event as follows. if (txtUserName.Text == "test" && txtPassword.Text == "test") { FormsAuthenticationTicket ticket = new FormsAuthenticationTicket(1, // Ticket version txtUserName.Text,// Username to be associated with this ticket DateTime.Now, // Date/time ticket was issued DateTime.Now.AddMinutes(50), // Date and time the cookie will expire false, // if user has chcked rememebr me then create persistent cookie "", // store the user data, in this case roles of the user FormsAuthentication.FormsCookiePath); // Cookie path specified in the web.config file in <Forms> tag if any. string hashCookies = FormsAuthentication.Encrypt(ticket); HttpCookie cookie = new HttpCookie(FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName, hashCookies); // Hashed ticket Response.Cookies.Add(cookie); string returnUrl = Request.QueryString["ReturnUrl"]; if (returnUrl == null) returnUrl = "~/Default.aspx"; Response.Redirect(returnUrl); } 3.Webservice has a default webmethod. [WebMethod] public string HelloWorld() { return "Hello World"; } 4.From a webApplication I am making a call to webservice by creating proxy after adding the webreferance of the above webservice. localhost.Service1 service = new localhost.Service1(); service.AllowAutoRedirect = false; NetworkCredential credentials = new NetworkCredential("test", "test"); service.Credentials = credentials; string hello = service.HelloWorld(); Response.Write(hello); and here while consuming it in a web application the below exception is thrown from webservice proxy. -- Object moved Object moved to here. --. Could you please share any thoughts to fix it?

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  • Spring Security session-management setting and IllegalStateException

    - by JayL
    I'm trying to add <session-management> in my Spring Security namespace configuration so that I can provide a different message than the login page when the session times out. As soon as I add it to my configuration it starts throwing "IllegalStateException: Cannot create a session after the response has been committed" when I access the app. I'm using Spring Security 3 and Tomcat 6. Here's my configuration: <http> <intercept-url pattern="/go.htm" access="ROLE_RESPONDENT" /> <intercept-url pattern="/complete.htm" access="ROLE_RESPONDENT" /> <intercept-url pattern="/**" access="IS_AUTHENTICATED_ANONYMOUSLY" /> <form-login login-processing-url="/j_spring_security_check" login-page="/login.htm" authentication-failure-url="/login.htm?error=true" default-target-url="/go.htm" /> <anonymous/> <logout logout-success-url="/logout_message.htm"/> <session-management invalid-session-url="/login.htm" /> </http> Everything works great until I add in the <session-management> line. What am I missing?

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  • HTTP 500 ERROR on CAS Server while setting SSLVerifyClent as "required"

    - by Huiyu.Bird
    I have 3 servers, a Apache Server, a JBOSS Server and a CAS Server for SSO. The Apache Server resolve all request with a domain such as www.request.com, and the path of CAS Server is www.request.com/cas, and JBOSS Server is www.request.com/jboss (This app got a CAS client). My problem is if I set SSLVerifyClient require for the NameVirtualHost of www.request.com in my Apache Server, I got a HTTP 500 error during the redirecting to the JBOSS Server(http://www.request.com/jboss), after logined in the CAS login page successfully. But everything goes successfully if there is no SSLVerifyClient require . Error logs of my Apache Server : [Mon Apr 19 17:07:25 2010] [error] Re-negotiation handshake failed: Not accepted by client!? Error logs of my JBOSS Server : 2010-04-19 17:29:57,263 ERROR [org.apache.catalina.core.ContainerBase.[jboss.web].[localhost].[/jboss].[jsp]] (ajp-0.0.0.0-8009-1) Servlet.service() for servlet jsp threw exception org.jasig.cas.client.validation.TicketValidationException: The CAS server returned no response. at org.jasig.cas.client.validation.AbstractUrlBasedTicketValidator.validate(AbstractUrlBasedTicketValidator.java:162) at org.jasig.cas.client.validation.AbstractTicketValidationFilter.doFilter(AbstractTicketValidationFilter.java:129) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.internalDoFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:235) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.doFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:206) at org.jasig.cas.client.authentication.AuthenticationFilter.doFilter(AuthenticationFilter.java:103) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.internalDoFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:235) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.doFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:206) at org.jasig.cas.client.session.SingleSignOutFilter.doFilter(SingleSignOutFilter.java:78) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.internalDoFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:235) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.doFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:206) at org.springframework.web.filter.CharacterEncodingFilter.doFilterInternal(CharacterEncodingFilter.java:96) at org.springframework.web.filter.OncePerRequestFilter.doFilter(OncePerRequestFilter.java:75) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.internalDoFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:235) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.doFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:206) at org.jboss.web.tomcat.filters.ReplyHeaderFilter.doFilter(ReplyHeaderFilter.java:96) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.internalDoFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:235) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.doFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:206) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardWrapperValve.in Any tips will be highly appreciated. Thanks in advance.

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  • Read multiple tables from dataset in Powershell

    - by Lucas
    I am using a function that collects data from a SQL server: function Invoke-SQLCommand { param( [string] $dataSource = "myserver", [string] $dbName = "mydatabase", [string] $sqlCommand = $(throw "Please specify a query.") ) $SqlConnection = New-Object System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection $SqlConnection.ConnectionString = "Server=$dataSource;Database=$dbName;Integrated Security=True" $SqlCmd = New-Object System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand $SqlCmd.CommandText = $sqlCommand $SqlCmd.Connection = $SqlConnection $SqlAdapter = New-Object System.Data.SqlClient.SqlDataAdapter $SqlAdapter.SelectCommand = $SqlCmd $DataSet = New-Object System.Data.DataSet $SqlAdapter.Fill($DataSet) $SqlConnection.Close() $DataSet.Tables[0] } It works great but returns only one table. I am passing several Select statements, so the dataset contains multiple tables. I replaced $DataSet.Tables[0] with for ($i=0;$i -lt $DataSet.tables.count;$i++){ $Dataset.Tables[$i] } but the console only shows the content of the first table and blank lines for each records of what should be the second table. The only way to see the result is to change the code to $Dataset.Tables[$i] | out-string but I do not want strings, I want to have table objects to work with. When I assign what is returned by the Invoke-SQLCommand to a variable, I can see that I have an array of datarow objects but only from the first table. What happened to the second table? Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks

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  • In Asp.Net MVC 2 is there a better way to return 401 status codes without getting an auth redirect

    - by Greg Roberts
    I have a portion of my site that has a lightweight xml/json REST API. Most of my site is behind forms auth but only some of my API actions require authentication. I have a custom AuthorizeAttribute for my API that I use to check for certain permissions and when it fails it results in a 401. All is good, except since I'm using forms auth, Asp.net conveniently converts that into a 302 redirect to my login page. I've seen some previous questions that seem a bit hackish to either return a 403 instead or to put some logic in the global.asax protected void Application_EndRequest() that will essentially convert 302 to 401 where it meets whatever criteria. Previous Question Previous Question 2 What I'm doing now is sort of like one of the questions, but instead of checking the Application_EndRequest() for a 302 I make my authorize attribute return 666 which indicates to me that I need to set this to a 401. Here is my code: protected void Application_EndRequest() { if (Context.Response.StatusCode == MyAuthAttribute.AUTHORIZATION_FAILED_STATUS) { //check for 666 - status code of hidden 401 Context.Response.StatusCode = 401; } } Even though this works, my question is there something in Asp.net MVC 2 that would prevent me from having to do this? Or, in general is there a better way? I would think this would come up a lot for anyone doing REST api's or just people that do ajax requests in their controllers. The last thing you want is to do a request and get the content of a login page instead of json.

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  • AppFabric Cache - An existing connection was forcibly closed by the remote host

    - by Wallace Breza
    I'm trying to get AppFabric cache up and running on my local development environment. I have Windows Server AppFabric Beta 2 Refresh installed, and the cache cluster and host configured and started running on Windows 7 64-bit. I'm running my MVC2 website in a local IIS website under a v4.0 app pool in integrated mode. HostName : CachePort Service Name Service Status Version Info -------------------- ------------ -------------- ------------ SN-3TQHQL1:22233 AppFabricCachingService UP 1 [1,1][1,1] I have my web.config configured with the following: <configSections> <section name="dataCacheClient" type="Microsoft.ApplicationServer.Caching.DataCacheClientSection, Microsoft.ApplicationServer.Caching.Core, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35" allowLocation="true" allowDefinition="Everywhere"/> </configSections> <dataCacheClient> <hosts> <host name="SN-3TQHQL1" cachePort="22233" /> </hosts> </dataCacheClient> I'm getting an error when I attempt to initialize the DataCacheFactory: protected CacheService() { _cacheFactory = new DataCacheFactory(); <-- Error here _defaultCache = _cacheFactory.GetDefaultCache(); } I'm getting the ASP.NET yellow error screen with the following: An existing connection was forcibly closed by the remote host Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Net.Sockets.SocketException: An existing connection was forcibly closed by the remote host Source Error: Line 21: protected CacheService() Line 22: { Line 23: _cacheFactory = new DataCacheFactory(); Line 24: _defaultCache = _cacheFactory.GetDefaultCache(); Line 25: }

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  • Developer certificate vs purchased certificate for WCF

    - by RemotecUk
    I understsand that if I want to use authentication in WCF then I need to install a certificate on my server which WCF will use to encrypt data passing between my server and client. For development purposes I believe I can use the makecert.exe util. to make a development certificate. What is the worst that can happen if I use this certificate on the production environment? and... Why cant I use this certificate on the production environment? and ... What is the certificate actually going to do in this scenario? [Edit: Added another question] finally... In a scenario where the website has a certificate installed to provide HTTPS support can the same certificate be used for the WCF services as well? Note on my application: Its a NetTCP client and server service. The users will log in using the same username and password which they use for the website which is passed in clear text. I would be happy to pass the u/n + p/w in cleartext to WCF but this isnt allowed by the framework and a certificate must be in place. However, I dont want to buy an certificate due to budget constraints! (Sorry for the possibly stupid question but I really dont understand this so would welcome some help with this).

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  • OAuth with Google Reader API using Objective C

    - by Dylan
    I'm using the gdata OAuth controllers to get an OAuth token and then signing my requests as instructed. [auth authorizeRequest:myNSURLMutableRequest] It works great for GET requests but POSTs are failing with 401 errors. I knew I wouldn't be able to remain blissfully ignorant of the OAuth magic. The Google Reader API requires parameters in the POST body. OAuth requires those parameters to be encoded in the signature like they were on the query string. It doesn't appear the gdata library does this. I tried hacking it in the same way it handles the query string but no luck. This is so difficult to debug as all I get is a 401 from the Google black box and I'm left to guess. I really want to use OAuth so I don't have to collect login credentials from my users but I'm about to scrap it and go with the simpler cookie based authentication that is more mature. It's possible I'm completely wrong about the reason it's failing. This is my best guess. Any suggestions for getting gdata to work or maybe an alternative iphone friendly OAuth library?

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  • Delphi Prism and LINQ to SQL / Entity Framework

    - by Vegar
    I have found many posts and examples of using LINQ-syntax in Delphi Prism (Oxygene), but I have never found anything on LINQ to SQL or Entity Framework. Is it possible to use LINQ to SQL or Entity Framework together with Prism? Where can I found such an example? Update: Olaf is giving an answer through his blog The question is now if any visual tools and code generation is provided, or if everything must be done by hand... Second update: Olaf has answered the tool/code generation-question in a comment on his site: The class designer is there, but there is no Pascal code gen. According to marc hoffman that is currently not on their list. For now you have to live with manual mapping. I guess, if you had Visual Studio (not just the VS shell), that you could add a C# library project to your solution, reference that from your Prism project. Then create the Table-Class mapping in the C# project using the visual designer. Maybe somewhat ugly, but possibly the key to get the Designer + CodeGen integrated into Prism. Who cares what language is used for the mapping . I will say this is a 1 - 0 to c# vs prism. If I did not care which language is used for the mapping - why should I care about which language is used for the rest?

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  • IOS: How to uplaod a file to specific google drive folder using google drive sdk library

    - by loganathan
    I integrated google drive sdk with my ios app. But i do not know how to upload a file to google drive specific folder. Here the code am using to upload the file. But this one uploading the file to my google drive root folder. Any one share a code to upload a file to google drive specific folder?. My Code: -(void)uploadFileToGoogleDrive:(NSString*)fileName { GTLDriveFile *driveFile = [[[GTLDriveFile alloc]init] autorelease]; driveFile.mimeType = @"application/pdf"; driveFile.originalFilename = @"test.doc"; driveFile.title = @"test.doc"; NSString *filePath = [LocalFilesDetails getUserDocumentFullPathForFileName:fileName isSignedDocument:YES]; GTLUploadParameters *uploadParameters = [GTLUploadParameters uploadParametersWithData:[NSData dataWithContentsOfFile:filePath] MIMEType:@"application/pdf"]; GTLQueryDrive *query = [GTLQueryDrive queryForFilesInsertWithObject:driveFile uploadParameters:uploadParameters]; [self.driveService executeQuery:query completionHandler:^(GTLServiceTicket *ticket, GTLDriveFile *updatedFile, NSError *error) { if (error == nil) { NSLog(@"\n\nfile uploaded into google drive\\<my_folder> foler"); } else { NSLog(@"\n\nfile uplod failed google drive\\<my_folder> foler"); } }]; }

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  • Connecting git to github on windows 7 without bash

    - by George Mauer
    I'm setting up git on my new Windows 7 machine and I'm hitting a roadblock when it comes to getting github to acknowledge my ssh key. I am doing things a little different from the standard script in that I would rather not use cygwin and prefer to use my powershell prompt. The following is what I did: I installed msysgit (portable). I went to C:\program files\git\bin and used ssh-keygen to generate a public/private ssh keypair which I put in c:\Temp I then created a directory named .ssh\ in c:\Users\myusername\ (on windows 7) I moved both the files generated by the ssh-keygen (id_rsa and id_rsa.pub) into the .ssh directory I went to my account on github, created a new public key, copy-pasted the contents of id_rsa.pub into it and saved I now go to my powershell prompt, set-alias git 'C:\program files\git\bin\git.exe' I try to now do a clone [email protected]:togakangaroo/ps-profile.git which rejects my authentication: Permission denied (publickey). fatal: The remote end hung up unexpectedly Past experience says that this means git is not recognizing my key. What steps am I missing? I have a feeling that I need to somehow configure git so that it knows where my ssh keys are (though it would seem it should look there automatically) but I don't know how to do that. Another possible clue is that when I try to run git config --global user.name "George Mauer" I get an error fatal: $HOME not set I did however set up a HOME environment user variable with the value %HOMEDRIVE%%HOMEPATH%

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  • How to share session cookies between Internet Explorer and an ActiveX components hosted in a webpage

    - by jerem
    I am currently working on a .Net application which makes HTTP requests to some web applications hosted on a IIS server. The application is deployed through ClickOnce and is working fine on simple networks architectures. One of our customers has a very complex network involving a custom authentication server on which the user has first to log himself in order to be authenticated and get access to other applications on this network. Once authenticated on this server, a session cookie is created and sent to the user. Every time the user then makes a request on a secured server of the network, this cookie is checked to grant access to the user. If this cookie is not sent with the request, the user is redirected to the login page. The only browser used is Internet Explorer. This cookie cannot be accessed from our .net application since it is executed in another process than the Internet Explorer process which was used to log the user in, and thus is not sent with our requests, which cannot be completed since the server redirects every of our requests to the login page. I had a look at embedding my application into Internet Explorer by making the main control COM visible and creating it on an HTML page with an tag. It is working properly, however the sessions cookies set earlier in the browser are not sent when the ActiveX control makes web requests. I was hoping this sharing of the session information would be automatic (although I didn't really believe it). So my questions are : Is it possible to have access to this cookie in the embedded ActiveX? How? Does it make a difference to use a .Net COM-interop component instead of a "true" ActiveX control? Also, are there specific security words to describe this kind of behaviors (given that I am not an expert at all on security topics, this lack of proper terminology makes it a lot harder to find the needed resources)? My goal is to have my application's requests look the same from the requests made by the host browser's requests, and I thought that embedding the application as an ActiveX control into the browser was the only way to achieve this, however any suggestion on another to do this is welcome.

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  • Accessing the Atlassian Crowd SOAP API with Suds (python SOAP library)

    - by SeanOC
    Has anybody had any recent success with accessing the Crowd SOAP API via the Suds Python library? I've found a few people successfully doing it in the past but Atlassian seems to have changed their WSDL since then to make the existing advice not entirely helpful. Below is the simplest example I've been trying: from suds.client import Client url = 'https://crowd.hugeinc.com/services/SecurityServer?wsdl' client = Client(url) Unfortunately that generates the following error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "<input>", line 1, in <module> File "/Users/soconnor/.virtualenvs/hugeface/lib/python2.6/site-packages/suds/client.py", line 116, in __init__ sd = ServiceDefinition(self.wsdl, s) File "/Users/soconnor/.virtualenvs/hugeface/lib/python2.6/site-packages/suds/servicedefinition.py", line 58, in __init__ self.paramtypes() File "/Users/soconnor/.virtualenvs/hugeface/lib/python2.6/site-packages/suds/servicedefinition.py", line 137, in paramtypes item = (pd[1], pd[1].resolve()) File "/Users/soconnor/.virtualenvs/hugeface/lib/python2.6/site-packages/suds/xsd/sxbasic.py", line 63, in resolve raise TypeNotFound(qref) TypeNotFound: Type not found: '(AuthenticatedToken, http://authentication.integration.crowd.atlassian.com, )' I've tried to both binding and doctors to fix this problem to no avail. Neither approach resulted in any change. Any further recommendations or suggestions would be incredibly helpful.

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  • Linq-to-Sql IIS7 Login failed for user ‘DOMAIN\MACHINENAME$’

    - by cfdev9
    I am encountering unexpected behaviour using Linq-to-sql DataContext. When I run my application locally it works as expected however after deploying to a test server which runs IIS7, I get an error Login failed for user ‘DOMAIN\MACHINENAME$’ when attempting to open objects from the DataContext. This code explains the error, which breaks on the very last line with the error "System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Login failed for user". var connStr ="Data Source=server;Initial Catalog=Test;User Id=testuser;Password=password"; //Test 1 var conn1 = new System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection(connStr); var cmdString = "SELECT COUNT(*) FROM Table1"; var cmd = new System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand(cmdString, conn1); conn1.Open(); var count1 = cmd.ExecuteScalar(); conn1.Close(); //Test 2 var conn2 = new System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection(connStr); var context = new TestDataContext(conn2); var count2 = context.Table1s.Count(); The connection string is not even using integrated security, so why is Linq-to-sql trying to connect as a specific user? If I change the server name in the connection string I get a different error so its using atleast part of the connection string, but apparently ignoring the UserId and Password. Very confused.

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  • Restlet vs Spring MVC for Restful web service

    - by zachariahyoung
    I'm researching how best to create a Restful web service on Google app engine. My end goal is to have an Android application call a web service on GAE to post and get data. At this point I not sure what the best approach is. What I know at this point is Spring MVC 3 provide the ability to create web service but it does not provide a full implementation of JAX-RS. I also have read a few blog that talk about how Spring and Restlet can be integrated together. On the other side I have read that I could only use Restlet in GAE. I would also like provide a light web interface for users to view their posted data So my questions are the following. 1. Should I just use Restlet. 2. Should I just use Spring MVC to provide my Restful web service. 3. Should I use Spring and Restlet together. At this point I think I should invest my time in Restlet because that seems to be the best approach for calling web services in Android. I'm also debating if Spring MVC is just over kill. Any thoughts would be helpful.

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  • c# SmtpClient class not able to send email using gmail

    - by Sir Psycho
    Hi, I'm having trouble with this code sending email using my gmail account. Im pulling my hair out. The same settings work fine in Thunderbird. Heres the code. I've also tried port 465 with no luck. SmtpClient ss = new SmtpClient("smtp.gmail.com", 587); ss.Credentials = new NetworkCredential("username", "pass"); ss.EnableSsl = true; ss.Timeout = 10000; ss.DeliveryMethod = SmtpDeliveryMethod.Network; ss.UseDefaultCredentials = false; MailMessage mm = new MailMessage("[email protected]", "[email protected]", "subject here", "my body"); mm.BodyEncoding = UTF8Encoding.UTF8; mm.DeliveryNotificationOptions = DeliveryNotificationOptions.OnFailure; ss.Send(mm); Heres the error "The SMTP server requires a secure connection or the client was not authenticated. The server response was: 5.5.1 Authentication Required. Learn more at " Heres the stack trace at System.Net.Mail.MailCommand.CheckResponse(SmtpStatusCode statusCode, String response) at System.Net.Mail.MailCommand.Send(SmtpConnection conn, Byte[] command, String from) at System.Net.Mail.SmtpTransport.SendMail(MailAddress sender, MailAddressCollection recipients, String deliveryNotify, SmtpFailedRecipientException& exception) at System.Net.Mail.SmtpClient.Send(MailMessage message) at email_example.Program.Main(String[] args) in C:\Users\Vince\Documents\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\email example\email example\Program.cs:line 23 at System.AppDomain._nExecuteAssembly(Assembly assembly, String[] args) at System.AppDomain.ExecuteAssembly(String assemblyFile, Evidence assemblySecurity, String[] args) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.HostingProcess.HostProc.RunUsersAssembly() at System.Threading.ThreadHelper.ThreadStart_Context(Object state) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Threading.ThreadHelper.ThreadStart()

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  • cookieless sessions with ajax

    - by thezver
    ok, i know you get sick from this subject. me too :( I've been developing a quite "big application" with PHP & kohana framework past 2 years, somewhat-successfully using my framework's authentication mechanism. but within this time, and as the app grown, many concerning state-preservation issues arisen. main problems are that cookie-driven sessions: can't be used for web-service access ( at least it's really not nice to do so.. ) in many cases problematic with mobile access don't allow multiple simultaneous apps on same browser ( can be resolved by hard trickery, but still.. ) requires many configurations and mess to work 100% right, and that's without the --browser issues ( disabled cookies, old browsers bugs & vulnerabilities etc ) many other session flaws stated in this old thread : http://lists.nyphp.org/pipermail/talk/2006-December/020358.html After a really long research, and without any good library/on-hand-solution to feet my needs, i came up with a custom solution to majority of those problems . Basically, i'ts about emulating sessions with ajax calls, with additional security/performance measures: state preserved by interchanging SID(+hash) with client on ajax calls. state data saved in memcache(or equivalent), indexed by SID security achieved by: appending unpredictible hash to SID egenerating hash on each request & validating it validating fingerprint of client on each request ( referrer,os,browser etc) (*)condition: ajax calls are not simultaneous, to prevent race-condition with session token. (hopefully Ext-Direct solves that for me) From the first glance that supposed to be not-less-secure than equivalent cookie-driven implementation, and at the same time it's simple, maintainable, and resolves all the cookies flaws.. But i'm really concerned because i often hear the rule "don't try to implement custom security solutions". I will really appreciate any serious feedback about my method, and any alternatives. also, any tip about how to preserve state on page-refresh without cookies would be great :) but thats small technical prob. Sorry if i overlooked some similar post.. there are billions of them about sessions . Big thanks in advance ( and for reading until here ! ).

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  • 550 5.7.1 our Bulk Email Senders Guidelines

    - by darkandcold
    Hello, I moved to a new server with integrated merak mail. since I forgot merak(used before), i missed to configure security options. So before I realize the issue, my smtp server was used by spammers for 2 days, hundreds times I configured security settings as what it should be (at least i hope) then i realize, i can't send e-mail to gmail or hotmail. gmail says "550 5.7.1 see our Bulk Email Senders Guidelines" yes, I saw its guidelines. first, I creat SPF records via msn senderID wizard. it completed very well. then as gmail says, I created DKIM dns records. (in Merak mail, there is option to create DKIM, i created it and save it to DNS as TXT record) it's been 2 days after doing the fixes above. but still i can't send mail gmail or hotmail. (P.S, some of my domain in merak is forwarded to my gmail account i mean when a mail arrives to [email protected] it will forward to my gmail. and the surprise it, merak mail can forward them very vell :S but can't still send mail from outlook etc.)

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  • Problem with Remember Me Service in Spring Security

    - by Gearóid
    Hi, I'm trying to implement a "remember me" functionality in my website using Spring. The cookie and entry in the persistent_logins table are getting created correctly. Additionally, I can see that the correct user is being restored as the username is displayed at the top of the page. However, once I try to access any information for this user when they return after they were "remembered", I get a NullPointerException. It looks as though the user isn't being set in the session again. My applicationContext-security.xml contains the following: <remember-me data-source-ref="dataSource" user-service-ref="userService"/> ... <authentication-provider user-service-ref="userService" /> <jdbc-user-service id="userService" data-source-ref="dataSource" role-prefix="ROLE_" users-by-username-query="select email as username, password, 1 as ENABLED from user where email=?" authorities-by-username-query="select user.id as id, upper(role.name) as authority from user, role, users_roles where users_roles.user_fk=id and users_roles.role_fk=role.name and user.email=?"/> I thought it may have had something to do with users-by-username query but surely login wouldn't work correctly if this query was incorrect? Any help on this would be greatly appreciated. Thanks, gearoid.

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