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  • Saving JQuery Draggable Sitemap Values Correctly

    - by mdolon
    I am trying to implement Boagworld's Sitemap tutorial, however I am running into difficulty trying to correctly save the child/parent relationships. The HTML is as follows, however populated with other items as well: <input type="hidden" name="sitemap-order" id="sitemap-order" value="" /> <ul id=”sitemap”> <li id="1"> <dl> <dt><a href=”#”>expand/collapse</a> <a href=”#”>Page Title</a></dt> <dd>Text Page</dd> <dd>Published</dd> <dd><a href=”#”>delete</a></dd> </dl> <ul><!–child pages–></ul> </li> </ul> And here is the JQuery code: $('#sitemap li').prepend('<div class="dropzone"></div>'); $('#sitemap li').draggable({ handle: ' > dl', opacity: .8, addClasses: false, helper: 'clone', zIndex: 100 }); var order = ""; $('#sitemap dl, #sitemap .dropzone').droppable({ accept: '#sitemap li', tolerance: 'pointer', drop: function(e, ui) { var li = $(this).parent(); var child = !$(this).hasClass('dropzone'); //If this is our first child, we'll need a ul to drop into. if (child && li.children('ul').length == 0) { li.append('<ul/>'); } //ui.draggable is our reference to the item that's been dragged. if (child) { li.children('ul').append(ui.draggable); }else { li.before(ui.draggable); } //reset our background colours. li.find('dl,.dropzone').css({ backgroundColor: '', backgroundColor: '' }); li.find('.dropzone').css({ height: '8px', margin: '0' }); // THE PROBLEM: var parentid = $(this).parent().attr('id'); menuorder += ui.draggable.attr('id')+'=>'+parentid+','; $("#sitemap-order").val(order); }, over: function() { $(this).filter('dl').css({ backgroundColor: '#ccc' }); $(this).filter('.dropzone').css({ backgroundColor: '#aaa', height: '30px', margin: '5px 0'}); }, out: function() { $(this).filter('dl').css({ backgroundColor: '' }); $(this).filter('.dropzone').css({ backgroundColor: '', height: '8px', margin: '0' }); } }); When moving items into the top-level (without parents), the parentid value I get is of the first list item (the parent container), so I can never remove the parent value and have a top-level item. Is there a no-brainer answer that I'm just not seeing right now? Any help is appreciated.

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  • JavaScript - Inheritance in Constructors

    - by j0ker
    For a JavaScript project we want to introduce object inheritance to decrease code duplication. However, I cannot quite get it working the way I want and need some help. We use the module pattern. Suppose there is a super element: a.namespace('a.elements.Element'); a.elements.Element = (function() { // public API -- constructor Element = function(properties) { this.id = properties.id; }; // public API -- prototype Element.prototype = { getID: function() { return this.id; } }; return Element; }()); And an element inheriting from this super element: a.namespace('a.elements.SubElement'); a.elements.SubElement = (function() { // public API -- constructor SubElement = function(properties) { // inheritance happens here // ??? this.color = properties.color; this.bogus = this.id + 1; }; // public API -- prototype SubElement.prototype = { getColor: function() { return this.color; } }; return SubElement; }()); You will notice that I'm not quite sure how to implement the inheritance itself. In the constructor I have to be able to pass the parameter to the super object constructor and create a super element that is then used to create the inherited one. I need a (comfortable) possibility to access the properties of the super object within the constructor of the new object. Ideally I could operate on the super object as if it was part of the new object. I also want to be able to create a new SubElement and call getID() on it. What I want to accomplish seems like the traditional class based inheritance. However, I'd like to do it using prototypal inheritance since that's the JavaScript way. Is that even doable? Thanks in advance! EDIT: Fixed usage of private variables as suggested in the comments. EDIT2: Another change of the code: It's important that id is accessible from the constructor of SubElement.

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  • Retrieving the Selected value dynamically in JQuery

    - by Chakradhar
    i have this html, this is generated dynamically based on question number <fieldset id="selectfield"> <label class="select">What ur is Profession? </label> <br> <div class="ui-select"><a href="#" role="button" id="72+_select-button" aria-haspopup="true" aria-owns="72+_select-menu" data-theme="c" class="ui-btn ui-btn-icon-right ui-btn-corner-all ui-shadow ui-btn-hover-c ui-btn-up-c"><span class="ui-btn-inner ui-btn-corner-all" aria-hidden="true"><span class="ui-btn-text">Business</span><span class="ui-icon ui-icon-arrow-d ui-icon-shadow"></span></span></a> <select name="selectedObjects" id="72+_select" data-native-menu="false" tabindex="-1"> <option value="-1">--Select--</option> <option value="769">Salaried</option> <option selected="selected" value="770">Business</option> <option value="771">Self Emp</option> </select></div> </fieldset> click button is <div data-theme="c" class="ui-btn ui-btn-corner-all ui-shadow ui-btn-hover-c ui-btn-up-c" aria-disabled="false"><span class="ui-btn-inner ui-btn-corner-all" aria-hidden="true"><span class="ui-btn-text">Next</span></span> <input type="submit" id="72+_b" onclick="return SaveDropDown(this);" value="Next" class="ui-btn-hidden" aria-disabled="false"> </div> i have written this JS in SaveDropDown(this) function SaveDropDown(button) { var fieldsetName = getQuestionName(button.id)+'+_select'; var select = $(fieldsetName +"option:selected").val(); return false; } the questionname function is function getQuestionName(buttonid) { var splitstr = buttonid.split('+'); var fieldsetName = '#' + splitstr[0]; return fieldsetName; } but its returning the undefined how do i retrieve the select value dynamically. any help is appreciated.

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  • How to display an external content in my website using javascript

    - by Chris
    Hello! This is my first post! I have a question about javascript...here is my code: <html> <head> <title>Geolocation Demo</title> </head> <body> <h1>Geolocation Demo</h1> <p>Latitude: <span id="lat">0.00</span> Longitude: <span id="lon">0.00</span> City: <span id="city">Loading...</span></p> <p><a id="city_link" href="http://tinygeocoder.com/" target="_blank">View City</a></p> <p><a id="gmaps_link" href="http://maps.google.co.uk/" target="_blank">View on Google Maps</a></p> <script language="javascript"> // show the position on the page and make a google maps link function showPosition(position) { var lat = position.coords.latitude; var lon = position.coords.longitude; document.getElementById("lat").innerHTML = lat; document.getElementById("lon").innerHTML = lon; var gmaps_url = "http://maps.google.co.uk/maps?f=q&source=s_q&hl=en&geocode=&q=" + lat + "+" + lon; var city_url = "http://tinygeocoder.com/create-api.php?g=" + lat + "," + lon; document.getElementById("gmaps_link").href = gmaps_url; document.getElementById("city_link").href = city_url; } </script> </body> </html> As you can see, this script target my geolocation. Specifically, Lat and Lon are working perfectly. In addinition, i want to display and region info (like city). So, i found a website which i provide the coordinates and it returns me a region name. My question is if i can display the name of region without clicking the link "View city" but in the field "city"...is it possible to pass the webpage content (http://tinygeocoder.com/create-api.php?g=" + lat + "," + lon;) into my webpage? The content of this page is only the name as i said...no html tags! Thank you!

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  • Stretching DIV to 100% height and width of window but not less than 800x600px

    - by El Eme
    I have a page that needs to stretch and resize with with window and I've managed to do that but I need that the "inner div" (#pgContent) stretch if the window is resized to higher dimensions but that it doesn't shrink more than, let's say for example 800 x 600 px. As I have it now it stretches well but it also shrinks more than I want! It's working as I want in width but not in height!? Here's a visual example: My CSS: * { margin: 0; padding: 0; outline: 0; } /*| PAGE LAYOUT |*/ html, body { height: 100%; width: 100%; /*text-align: center;*/ /*IE doesn't ~like this*/ cursor: default; } #pgWrapper { z-index: 1; min-height: 100%; height: auto !important; /*min-height: 600px;*/ /* THIS SHOULD WORK BUT IT DOESN'T */ height: 100%; min-width: 1000px; width: 100%; position: absolute; overflow: hidden; text-align: center; background: #000; } #pgContent { position: absolute; top: 30px; left: 30px; right: 30px; bottom: 50px; overflow: hidden; background: #CCC; } #footWrapper { z-index: 2; height: 50px; min-width: 940px; position: absolute; left: 30px; right: 30px; bottom: 0px; background: #C00; } /*| END PAGE LAYOUT |*/ And the HTML: <body> <div id="pgWrapper"> <div id="pgContent"> This DIV should stretch with window but never lower than for example 800px x 600px!<br /> If window size is lower then scrollbars should appear. </div> </div> <div id="footWrapper"> <div id="footLft"></div> <div id="footRgt"></div> </div> </body> If someone could give me a help on this I would appreciate. Thanks in advance.

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  • Unit Testing - Am I doing it right?

    - by baron
    Hi everyone, Basically I have been programing for a little while and after finishing my last project can fully understand how much easier it would have been if I'd have done TDD. I guess I'm still not doing it strictly as I am still writing code then writing a test for it, I don't quite get how the test becomes before the code if you don't know what structures and how your storing data etc... but anyway... Kind of hard to explain but basically lets say for example I have a Fruit objects with properties like id, color and cost. (All stored in textfile ignore completely any database logic etc) FruitID FruitName FruitColor FruitCost 1 Apple Red 1.2 2 Apple Green 1.4 3 Apple HalfHalf 1.5 This is all just for example. But lets say I have this is a collection of Fruit (it's a List<Fruit>) objects in this structure. And my logic will say to reorder the fruitids in the collection if a fruit is deleted (this is just how the solution needs to be). E.g. if 1 is deleted, object 2 takes fruit id 1, object 3 takes fruit id2. Now I want to test the code ive written which does the reordering, etc. How can I set this up to do the test? Here is where I've got so far. Basically I have fruitManager class with all the methods, like deletefruit, etc. It has the list usually but Ive changed hte method to test it so that it accepts a list, and the info on the fruit to delete, then returns the list. Unit-testing wise: Am I basically doing this the right way, or have I got the wrong idea? and then I test deleting different valued objects / datasets to ensure method is working properly. [Test] public void DeleteFruit() { var fruitList = CreateFruitList(); var fm = new FruitManager(); var resultList = fm.DeleteFruitTest("Apple", 2, fruitList); //Assert that fruitobject with x properties is not in list ? how } private static List<Fruit> CreateFruitList() { //Build test data var f01 = new Fruit {Name = "Apple",Id = 1, etc...}; var f02 = new Fruit {Name = "Apple",Id = 2, etc...}; var f03 = new Fruit {Name = "Apple",Id = 3, etc...}; var fruitList = new List<Fruit> {f01, f02, f03}; return fruitList; }

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  • How would you structure your entity model for storing arbitrary key/value data with different data t

    - by Nathan Ridley
    I keep coming across scenarios where it will be useful to store a set of arbitrary data in a table using a per-row key/value model, rather than a rigid column/field model. The problem is, I want to store the values with their correct data type rather than converting everything to a string. This means I have to choose either a single table with multiple nullable columns, one for each data type, or a set of value tables, one for each data type. I'm also unsure as to whether I should use full third normal form and separate the keys into a separate table, referencing them via a foreign key from the value table(s), or if it would be better to keep things simple and store the string keys in the value table(s) and accept the duplication of strings. Old/bad: This solution makes adding additional values a pain in a fluid environment because the table needs to be modified regularly. MyTable ============================ ID Key1 Key2 Key3 int int string date ---------------------------- 1 Value1 Value2 Value3 2 Value4 Value5 Value6 Single Table Solution This solution allows simplicity via a single table. The querying code still needs to check for nulls to determine which data type the field is storing. A check constraint is probably also required to ensure only one of the value fields contains non-nulll data. DataValues ============================================================= ID RecordID Key IntValue StringValue DateValue int int string int string date ------------------------------------------------------------- 1 1 Key1 Value1 NULL NULL 2 1 Key2 NULL Value2 NULL 3 1 Key3 NULL NULL Value3 4 2 Key1 Value4 NULL NULL 5 2 Key2 NULL Value5 NULL 6 2 Key3 NULL NULL Value6 Multiple-Table Solution This solution allows for more concise purposing of each table, though the code needs to know the data type in advance as it needs to query a different table for each data type. Indexing is probably simpler and more efficient because there are less columns that need indexing. IntegerValues =============================== ID RecordID Key Value int int string int ------------------------------- 1 1 Key1 Value1 2 2 Key1 Value4 StringValues =============================== ID RecordID Key Value int int string string ------------------------------- 1 1 Key2 Value2 2 2 Key2 Value5 DateValues =============================== ID RecordID Key Value int int string date ------------------------------- 1 1 Key3 Value3 2 2 Key3 Value6 How do you approach this problem? Which solution is better? Also, should the key column be separated into a separate table and referenced via a foreign key or be should it be kept in the value table and bulk updated if for some reason the key name changes?

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  • Wordpress post query php custom field conditional

    - by Andy
    Here's the situation: In wordpress I'm trying to reset a post WP_Query so that I can rewrite the post link based on whether or not a custom field exists in the post. I'm trying to give the post a NEW link in the custom field. All I've managed to do here is kill the link entirely. Any and all help is greatly appreciated, I'm pretty green to php. Here's my WP_Query: <?php $recentPosts = new WP_Query(); $recentPosts->query('showposts=3'); ?> <?php while ($recentPosts->have_posts()) : $recentPosts->the_post(); ?> <div <?php post_class() ?> id="post-<?php the_ID(); ?>"> <?php $attribute = the_title_attribute(); $title = the_title(); $key = 'NewPostLink'; $newLink = get_post_meta( $post->ID, $key, TRUE ); if ($newLink != '') { $theLink = get_permalink ($post->ID ); if (has_post_thumbnail()) { $image = get_the_post_thumbnail( $post->ID ); echo '<div class="thumbnailbox"><div class="thumbnail"><a href="'.$theLink.'">'.$image.'</a></div></div>'; echo '<h2><a href="'.$theLink.'" rel="bookmark" title="Permanent Link to '.$attribute.'">'.$title.'</a></h2>'; } else { echo '<h2><a href="'.$theLink.'" rel="bookmark" title="Permanent Link to '.$attribute.'">'.$title.'</a></h2>'; } } else { $theLink = $newLink; if (has_post_thumbnail()) { $image = get_the_post_thumbnail( $post->ID ); echo '<div class="thumbnailbox"><div class="thumbnail"><a href="'.$theLink.'">'.$image.'</a></div></div>'; echo '<h2><a href="'.$theLink.'" rel="bookmark" title="Permanent Link to '.$attribute.'">'.$title.'</a></h2>'; } else { echo '<h2><a href="'.$theLink.'" rel="bookmark" title="Permanent Link to '.$attribute.'">'.$title.'</a></h2>'; } } ?> <small><?php the_time('F jS, Y') ?></small> <div class="entry"> <?php the_excerpt(); ?> </div> </div> <?php endwhile; ?>

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  • SQL query - choosing 'last updated' record in a group, better db design?

    - by Jimmy
    Hi, Let's say I have a MySQL database with 3 tables: table 1: Persons, with 1 column ID (int) table 2: Newsletters, with 1 column ID (int) table 3: Subscriptions, with columns Person_ID (int), Newsletter_ID (int), Subscribed (bool), Updated (Datetime) Subscriptions.Person_ID points to a Person, and Subscription.Newsletter_ID points to a Newsletter. Thus, each person may have 0 or more subscriptions to 0 or more magazines at once. The table Subscriptions will also store the entire history of each person's subscriptions to each newsletter. If a particular Person_ID-Newsletter_ID pair doesn't have a row in the Subscriptions table, then it's equivalent to that pair having a subscription status of 'false'. Here is a sample dataset Persons ID 1 2 3 Newsletters ID 4 5 6 Subscriptions Person_ID Newsletter_ID Subscribed Updated 2 4 true 2010-05-01 3 4 true 2010-05-01 3 5 true 2010-05-10 3 4 false 2010-05-15 Thus, as of 2010-05-16, Person 1 has no subscription, Person 2 has a subscription to Newsletter 4, and Person 3 has a subscription to Newsletter 5. Person 3 had a subscription to Newsletter 4 for a while, but not anymore. I'm trying to do 2 kinds of query. A query that shows everyone's active subscriptions as of query time (we can assume that updated will never be in the future -- thus, this means returning the record with the latest 'updated' value for each Person_ID-Newsletter_ID pair, as long as Subscribed is true (if the latest record for a Person_ID-Newsletter_ID pair has a Subscribed status of false, then I don't want that record returned)). A query that returns all active subscriptions for a specific newsletter - same qualification as in 1. regarding records with 'false' in the Subscribed column. I don't use SQL/databases often enough to tell if this design is good, or if the SQL queries needed would be slow on a database with, say, 1M records in the Subscriptions table. I was using the Visual query builder tool in Visual Studio 2010 but I can't even get the query to return the latest updated record for each Person_ID-Newsletter_ID pair. Is it possible to come up with SQL queries that don't involve using subqueries (presumably because they would become too slow with a larger data set)? If not, would it be a better design to have a separate Subscriptions_History table, and every time a subscription status for a Person_ID-Newsletter-ID pair is added to Subscriptions, any existing record for that pair is moved to Subscriptions_History (that way the Subscriptions table only ever contains the latest status update for any Person_ID-Newsletter_ID pair)? I'm using .net on Windows, so would it be easier (or the same, or harder) to do this kind of queries using Linq? Entity Framework? Thanks!

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  • How do I hide the text links over a toggleable horizontal list with background images.

    - by Sivakanesh
    I'm trying to create a UL/LI horizontal list with background images only, with no text link visible. The reason for this is so that when I over over a list item, the background would rollover and when I click on it the current item would toggle. basically it is a horizontal menu with background images that can be toggled; mimicking the job of a radio button. I have done it like this; <div id="options"> <ul id="list"> <li class="active"><a href="#" class="option1 active" id="link1"><span>XXXXX</span></a></li> <li><a href="#" class="option2" id="link2"><span>XXXXX</span></a></li> <li><a href="#" class="option3" id="link3"><span>XXXXX</span></a></li> </ul> </div> The CSS for option1, option2 and option3 simply define the background image. #options LI{list-style-type: none; display : inline} a.option1{ background:url('../images/option1.png') no-repeat;} a.option2{ background:url('../images/option2.png') no-repeat;} a.option3{ background:url('../images/option3.png') no-repeat;} a.option1, a.option2, a.option3{ background-position:top; display:inline; width:230px; height:40px; } And the hover & active css part simply sets the background position like so- a.option1:hover, a.option2:hover, a.option3:hover{ background-position:bottom; } a.active{ background-position:bottom !important; } This works fine, however on top of the background I get the words "XXXXX" as text links and I'm struggling to hide them. They are interfering with the hover action and preventing rollover (even if I replace XXXXX with a period or something short). I can't just remove the text from the link as it would hide the whole LI element. I have tried to use display:none; or text-indent:-999px but then the whole UI element becomes invisible. I can't understand what I'm doing wrong. Are you able to help? Thanks

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  • sendmail.php needs some php work

    - by Chris
    I am having the hardest time to get a simple sendmail.php to work. My form html is <form action=sendmail.php id=contact-form method=post> <p> <label for=cf_name>Name *</label> <input id=cf_name name=cf_name placeholder='Enter your name...' required=required title=Name type=text /> </p> <p> <label for=cf_email>Email *</label> <input id=cf_email name=cf_email placeholder='Email address...' required=required title='Email address' type=email /> </p> <p> <label for=cf_subject>Subject *</label> <input id=cf_subject name=cf_subject placeholder='Specify subject...' required=required title=Subject type=text /> </p> <p> <label for=cf_message>Message *</label> <textarea id=cf_message name=cf_message placeholder='Message text...' required=required rows=10 title='Message text'></textarea> </p> <p> <input type=submit value='Send message'/> </p> </form> And my mailer script is: <? $cf_email = $_POST['cf_email'] ; $cf_message = $_POST['cf_message'] ; $cf_subject = $_POST['cf_subject'] ; $cf_name = $_POST['cf_name'] ; mail( "[email protected]", $cf_subject, $cf_message, $cf_name, $cf_email ); print "Congratulations your email has been sent"; ?> Just want an email to to go to my email. When it appears in the inbox, the subject they typed is the one that I will see as the subject in my inbox. The from will be their name. The email it came from will be their email And the message inside will be the message they wrote in the form. Please help.

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  • Using hidden values with jQuery (and ASP.NET MVC) -- not working?

    - by SlackerCoder
    Im using a couple of JSON calls to render data, etc etc. In order to keep the proper key value, I am storing it in a tag. I have this in several places in my code, none of which cause an issue like this one is. Here is the jQuery: The call that "sets" the value: $("a[id^='planSetupAddNewPlan']").live('click', function() { var x = $(this).attr('id'); x = x.substring(19); $("#hidPlanSetupCurrentGroupKey").val(x); $.getJSON("/GroupSetup/PlanSetupAddNewList", { GroupKey: x }, function(data) { $("#planSetupAddNew").html('' + data.TableResult + ''); alert('First Inside 2 ' + x); $.blockUI({ message: $("#planSetupAddNew") }); }); }); The call that "gets" the value: $("#ddlPlanSetupAddNewProduct").live('change', function() { var a = $("#hidPlanSetupCurrentGroupKey").val(); var prod = $(this).val(); alert(a); $.getJSON("/GroupSetup/PlanSetupChangePlanList", { GroupKey: a, Product: prod }, function(data) { if (data.Message == "Success") { $("#planSetupAddNewPlan").html('' + data.TableResult + ''); } else if (data.Message == "Error") { //Do something } }); }); Here is the html in question: <div id="planSetupAddNew" style="display:none; cursor: default;"> <input type="hidden" id="hidPlanSetupCurrentGroupKey" /> <div id="planSetupAddNewData"> </div> </div> In the first section, the alert ('First Inside 2 ' + x) returns what I expect (where x = the key value), and if I add a line to display the contents of the hidden field, that works as well: ie. var key = $("#hidPlanSetupCurrentGroupKey").val(); alert(key); In the "alert(a);" call, I am getting "undefined". I have looked at the other code in the same view and it is the same and it works. I must be missing something, or have some sort of mistype that I havent caught. Just an overview of the controller events: The first call (/GroupSetup/PlanSetupAddNewList) will return an html string building a "form" for users to enter information into. The second call (/GroupSetup/PlanSetupChangePlanList) just changes a second dropdown based on the first dropdown selection (overwriting the html in the div). If you need more info, let me know! Any thoughts/tips/pointers/suggestions?!?! Thanks for all your help :)

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  • Using Entity Framework 4.0 with Code-First and POCO: How to Get Parent Object with All its Children

    - by SirEel
    I'm new to EF 4.0, so maybe this is an easy question. I've got VS2010 RC and the latest EF CTP. I'm trying to implement the "Foreign Keys" code-first example on the EF Team's Design Blog, http://blogs.msdn.com/efdesign/archive/2009/10/12/code-only-further-enhancements.aspx. public class Customer { public int Id { get; set; public string CustomerDescription { get; set; public IList<PurchaseOrder> PurchaseOrders { get; set; } } public class PurchaseOrder { public int Id { get; set; } public int CustomerId { get; set; } public Customer Customer { get; set; } public DateTime DateReceived { get; set; } } public class MyContext : ObjectContext { public RepositoryContext(EntityConnection connection) : base(connection){} public IObjectSet<Customer> Customers { get {return base.CreateObjectSet<Customer>();} } } I use a ContextBuilder to configure MyContext: { var builder = new ContextBuilder<MyContext>(); var customerConfig = _builder.Entity<Customer>(); customerConfig.Property(c => c.Id).IsIdentity(); var poConfig = _builder.Entity<PurchaseOrder>(); poConfig.Property(po => po.Id).IsIdentity(); poConfig.Relationship(po => po.Customer) .FromProperty(c => c.PurchaseOrders) .HasConstraint((po, c) => po.CustomerId == c.Id); ... } This works correctly when I'm adding new Customers, but not when I try to retrieve existing Customers. This code successfully saves a new Customer and all its child PurchaseOrders: using (var context = builder.Create(connection)) { context.Customers.AddObject(customer); context.SaveChanges(); } But this code only retrieves Customer objects; their PurchaseOrders lists are always empty. using (var context = _builder.Create(_conn)) { var customers = context.Customers.ToList(); } What else do I need to do to the ContextBuilder to make MyContext always retrieve all the PurchaseOrders with each Customer?

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  • AnimationDrawable, when does it end?

    - by Syb
    I know there have been several people with the same question. Which is: How do i know when a frame by frame animation has ended? I have not had any useful answer on fora i visited. So i thought, let's see if they know at stackoverflow. But I could not sit still in the mean time, so i made a work around of this, but it does not really work the way i would like it to. here is the code: public class Main extends Activity { AnimationDrawable sybAnimation; /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); ImageView imageView = (ImageView)findViewById(R.id.ImageView01); imageView.setBackgroundResource(R.anim.testanimation); sybAnimation = (AnimationDrawable) imageView.getBackground(); imageView.post(new Starter()); } class Starter implements Runnable { public void run() { sybAnimation.start(); long totalDuration = 0; for(int i = 0; i< sybAnimation.getNumberOfFrames();i++){ totalDuration += sybAnimation.getDuration(i); } Timer timer = new Timer(); timer.schedule(new AnimationFollowUpTimerTask(R.id.ImageView01, R.anim.testanimation_reverse),totalDuration); } } class AnimationFollowUpTimerTask extends TimerTask { private int id; private int animationToRunId; public AnimationFollowUpTimerTask(int idOfImageView, int animationXML){ id = idOfImageView; animationToRunId = animationXML; } @Override public void run() { ImageView imageView = (ImageView)findViewById(id); imageView.setBackgroundResource(animationToRunId); AnimationDrawable anim = (AnimationDrawable) imageView.getBackground(); anim.start(); } } basically I make a timertask which is scheduled with the same time as the animation to take. In that run() I want to load a new animation into the imageView and start that animation, this however does not work. Does anyone know how to get this to work, or even better, have a better way to find out when an AnimationDrawable has ended its animation?

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  • Boxy Submit Form

    - by jornbjorndalen
    I am using the boxy jQuery plugin in my page to display a form on a clickEvent for the fullCalendar plugin. It is working all right , the only problem I have is that the form in boxy brings up the confirmation dialog the first time the dialog is opened and when the user clicks "Ok" it submits the form a second time which generates 2 events on my calendar and 2 entries in my database. My code looks like this inside fullCalendar: dayClick: function(date, allDay, jsEvent, view) { var day=""+date.getDate(); if(day.length==1){ day="0"+day; } var year=date.getFullYear(); var month=date.getMonth()+1; var month=""+month; if(month.length==1){ month="0"+month; } var defaultdate=""+year+"-"+month+"-"+day+" 00:00:00"; var ele = document.getElementById("myform"); new Boxy(ele,{title: "Add Task", modal: true}); document.getElementById("title").value=""; document.getElementById("description").value=""; document.getElementById("startdate").value=""+defaultdate; document.getElementById("enddate").value=""+defaultdate; } I also use validators on the forms fields: $.validator.addMethod( "datetime", function(value, element) { // put your own logic here, this is just a (crappy) example return value.match(/^([0-9]{4})-([0-1][0-9])-([0-3][0-9])\s([0-1][0-9]|[2][0-3]):([0-5][0-9]):([0-5][0-9])$/); }, "Please enter a date in the format YYYY-mm-dd hh:MM:ss" ); var validator=$("#myform").validate({ onsubmit:true, rules: { title: { required: true }, startdate: { required: true, datetime: true }, enddate: { required: true, datetime: true } }, submitHandler: function(form) { //this function renders a new event and makes a call to a php script that inserts it into the db addTask(form); } }); And the form looks like this: <form id ='myform'> <table border='1' width='100%'> <tr><td align='right'>Title:</td><td align='left'><input id='title' name='title' size='30'/></td></tr> <tr><td align='right'>Description:</td><td align='left'><textarea id='description' name='description' rows='4' cols='30'></textarea></td></tr> <tr><td align='right'>Start Date:</td><td align='left'><input id='startdate' name='startdate' size='30'/></td></tr> <tr><td align='right'>End Date:</td><td align='left'><input id='enddate' name='enddate' size='30' /></td></tr> <tr><td colspan='2' align='right'><input type='submit' value='Add' /></td></tr> </table> </form>

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  • SQL Server 2005: Update rows in a specified order (like ORDER BY)?

    - by JMTyler
    I want to update rows of a table in a specific order, like one would expect if including an ORDER BY clause, but SQL Server does not support the ORDER BY clause in UPDATE queries. I have checked out this question which supplied a nice solution, but my query is a bit more complicated than the one specified there. UPDATE TableA AS Parent SET Parent.ColA = Parent.ColA + (SELECT TOP 1 Child.ColA FROM TableA AS Child WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB ORDER BY Child.Priority) ORDER BY Parent.Depth DESC; So, what I'm hoping that you'll notice is that a single table (TableA) contains a hierarchy of rows, wherein one row can be the parent or child of any other row. The rows need to be updated in order from the deepest child up to the root parent. This is because TableA.ColA must contain an up-to-date concatenation of its own current value with the values of its children (I realize this query only concats with one child, but that is for the sake of simplicity - the purpose of the example in this question does not necessitate any more verbosity), therefore the query must update from the bottom up. The solution suggested in the question I noted above is as follows: UPDATE messages SET status=10 WHERE ID in (SELECT TOP (10) Id FROM Table WHERE status=0 ORDER BY priority DESC ); The reason that I don't think I can use this solution is because I am referencing column values from the parent table inside my subquery (see WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB), and I don't think two sibling subqueries would have access to each others' data. So far I have only determined one way to merge that suggested solution with my current problem, and I don't think it works. UPDATE TableA AS Parent SET Parent.ColA = Parent.ColA + (SELECT TOP 1 Child.ColA FROM TableA AS Child WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB ORDER BY Child.Priority) WHERE Parent.Id IN (SELECT Id FROM TableA ORDER BY Parent.Depth DESC); The WHERE..IN subquery will not actually return a subset of the rows, it will just return the full list of IDs in the order that I want. However (I don't know for sure - please tell me if I'm wrong) I think that the WHERE..IN clause will not care about the order of IDs within the parentheses - it will just check the ID of the row it currently wants to update to see if it's in that list (which, they all are) in whatever order it is already trying to update... Which would just be a total waste of cycles, because it wouldn't change anything. So, in conclusion, I have looked around and can't seem to figure out a way to update in a specified order (and included the reason I need to update in that order, because I am sure I would otherwise get the ever-so-useful "why?" answers) and I am now hitting up Stack Overflow to see if any of you gurus out there who know more about SQL than I do (which isn't saying much) know of an efficient way to do this. It's particularly important that I only use a single query to complete this action. A long question, but I wanted to cover my bases and give you guys as much info to feed off of as possible. :) Any thoughts?

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  • CSS- removing horizontal space in list menu using display inline property

    - by Kayote
    Hi All, Im new to CSS and have a set target of learning & publishing my website in CSS by the end of the month. My question: Im trying to build a CSS horizontal menu with hover drop downs, however, when I use the 'display: inline' property with li (list) items, I get horizontal spaces between the li (list) items in the bar. How do I remove this space? Here is the html: <div id="tabas_menu"> <ul> <li id="tabBut0" class="tabBut">Overview</li> <li id="tabBut1" class="tabBut">Collar</li> <li id="tabBut2" class="tabBut">Sleeves</li> <li id="tabBut3" class="tabBut">Body</li> </ul> </div> And here is the CSS: #tabas_menu { position: absolute; background: rgb(123,345,567); top: 110px; left: 200px; } ul#tabas_menu { padding: 0; margin: 0; } .tabBut { display: inline; white-space: list-style: none; background: -webkit-gradient(linear, 0% 0%, 0% 100%, from(rgba(255,142,190,1)),to(rgba(188,22,93,1))); background: -moz-linear-gradient(top, rgba(255,142,190,1), rgba(188,22,93,1)); font-family: helvetica, calibri, sans-serif; font-size: 16px; font-weight: bold; line-height: 20px; text-shadow: 1px 1px 1px rgba(99,99,99,0.5); -moz-border-radius: 0.3em; -moz-box-shadow: 0px 0px 2px rgba(0,0,0,0.5); -webkit-border-radius: 0.3em; -webkit-box-shadow: 0px 0px 2px rgba(0,0,0,0.5); padding: 6px 18px; border: 1px solid rgba(0,0,0,0.4); margin: 0; } I can get the space removed using the 'float: left/right' property but its bugging me as to why I cannot achieve the same effect by just using the display property.

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  • post row where radio button is checked

    - by ognjenb
    View: <form id="numbers-form" method="post" action="/Numbers/Numbers"> <table id="numbers"> <tr> <th> prvi_br </th> <th> drugi_br </th> <th> treci_br </th> </tr> <% int rb = 1; %> <% foreach (var item in Model) { %> <tr> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.prvi_br) %> <input type="radio" name="<%= Html.Encode(rb) %>" value="<%= Html.Encode(rb) %>" id='<%= Html.Encode(item.prvi_br) %>'/> </td> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.drugi_br) %> <input type="radio" name="<%= Html.Encode(rb)%>" value="<%= Html.Encode(rb) %>" id='<%= Html.Encode(item.drugi_br) %>'/> </td> <td> <%= Html.Encode(item.treci_br) %> <input type="radio" name="<%= Html.Encode(rb)%>" value="<%= Html.Encode(rb) %>" id='<%= Html.Encode(item.treci_br) %>'/> </td> </tr> <% rb++; %> <% } %> </table> <p> <input type="submit" value="Save" /> </p> </form> Controller action: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Numbers(int[] rb) { brojevi br = new brojevi(); for (int i = 1; i <= rb.Length; i++) //in this line I have error:Object reference not set to an instance of an object. { br.prvi_br = i; br.drugi_br = i+1; br.treci_br = i+3; } numbers.AddTobrojevi(br); numbers.SaveChanges(); return View(); } I try to post data row in wich radio button is checked but failed, what is wrong??

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  • MVC 3 Nested EditorFor Templates

    - by Gordon Hickley
    I am working with MVC 3, Razor views and EditorFor templates. I have three simple nested models:- public class BillingMatrixViewModel { public ICollection<BillingRateRowViewModel> BillingRateRows { get; set; } public BillingMatrixViewModel() { BillingRateRows = new Collection<BillingRateRowViewModel>(); } } public class BillingRateRowViewModel { public ICollection<BillingRate> BillingRates { get; set; } public BillingRateRowViewModel() { BillingRates = new Collection<BillingRate>(); } } public class BillingRate { public int Id { get; set; } public int Rate { get; set; } } The BillingMatrixViewModel has a view:- @using System.Collections @using WIP_Data_Migration.Models.ViewModels @model WIP_Data_Migration.Models.ViewModels.BillingMatrixViewModel <table class="matrix" id="matrix"> <tbody> <tr> @Html.EditorFor(model => Model.BillingRateRows, "BillingRateRow") </tr> </tbody> </table> The BillingRateRow has an Editor Template called BillingRateRow:- @using System.Collections @model IEnumerable<WIP_Data_Migration.Models.ViewModels.BillingRateRowViewModel> @foreach (var item in Model) { <tr> <td> @item.BillingRates.First().LabourClass.Name </td> @Html.EditorFor(m => item.BillingRates) </tr> } The BillingRate has an Editor Template:- @model WIP_Data_Migration.Models.BillingRate <td> @Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.Rate, new {style = "width: 20px"}) </td> The markup produced for each input is:- <input name="BillingMatrix.BillingRateRows.item.BillingRates[0].Rate" id="BillingMatrix_BillingRateRows_item_BillingRates_0__Rate" style="width: 20px;" type="text" value="0"/> Notice the name and ID attributes the BillingRate indexes are handled nicely but the BillingRateRows has no index instead '.item.'. From my reasearch this is because the context has been pulled out due to the foreach loop, the loop shouldn't be necessary. I want to achieve:- <input name="BillingMatrix.BillingRateRows[0].BillingRates[0].Rate" id="BillingMatrix_BillingRateRows_0_BillingRates_0__Rate" style="width: 20px;" type="text" value="0"/> If I change the BillingRateRow View to:- @model WIP_Data_Migration.Models.ViewModels.BillingRateRowViewModel <tr> @Html.EditorFor(m => Model.BillingRates) </tr> It will throw an InvalidOperationException, 'model item passed into the dictionary is of type System.Collections.ObjectModel.Collection [BillingRateRowViewModel] but this dictionary required a type of BillingRateRowViewModel. Can anyone shed any light on this?

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  • Hibernate Persistence problems with Bean Mapping (Dozer)

    - by BuffaloBuffalo
    I am using Hibernate 3, and having a particular issue when persisting a new Entity which has an association with an existing detached entity. Easiest way to explain this is via code samples. I have two entities, FooEntity and BarEntity, of which a BarEntity can be associated with many FooEntity: @Entity public class FooEntity implements Foo{ @Id private Long id; @ManyToOne(targetEntity = BarEntity.class) @JoinColumn(name = "bar_id", referencedColumnName = "id") @Cascade(value={CascadeType.ALL}) private Bar bar; } @Entity public class BarEntity implements Bar{ @Id private Long id; @OneToMany(mappedBy = "bar", targetEntity = FooEntity.class) private Set<Foo> foos; } Foo and Bar are interfaces that loosely define getters for the various fields. There are corresponding FooImpl and BarImpl classes that are essentially just the entity objects without the annotations. What I am trying to do is construct a new instance of FooImpl, and persist it after setting a number of fields. The new Foo instance will have its 'bar' member set to an existing Bar (runtime being a BarEntity) from the database (retrieved via session.get(..)). After the FooImpl has all of its properties set, Apache Dozer is used to map between the 'domain' object FooImpl and the Entity FooEntity. What Dozer is doing in the background is instantiating a new FooEntity and setting all of the matching fields. BarEntity is cloned as well via instantiation and set the FooEntity's 'bar' member. After this occurs, passing the new FooEntity object to persist. This throws the exception: org.hibernate.PersistentObjectException: detached entity passed to persist: com.company.entity.BarEntity Below is in code the steps that are occurring FooImpl foo = new FooImpl(); //returns at runtime a persistent BarEntity through session.get() Bar bar = BarService.getBar(1L); foo.setBar(bar); ... //This constructs a new instance of FooEntity, with a member 'bar' which itself is a new instance that is detached) FooEntity entityToPersist = dozerMapper.map(foo, FooEntity.class); ... session.persist(entityToPersist); I have been able to resolve this issue by either removing or changing the @Cascade annotation, but that limits future use for say adding a new Foo with a new Bar attached to it already. Is there some solution here I am missing? I would be surprised if this issue hasn't been solved somewhere before, either by altering how Dozer Maps the children of Foo or how Hibernate reacts to a detached Child Entity.

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  • Routing error when trying to use same view for update and create flows (Rails 3)

    - by Jamis Charles
    My overall use case: I have a Listing model that has many images. The Listing detail page lists all the fields that can be updated inline (through ajax). I want to be able to use the same view for both update listing and create new listing. My listing controller looks as follows: def detail @listing = Listing.find(params[:id]) @image = Image.new #should this link somewhere else? respond_to do |format| format.html # show.html.erb format.xml { render :xml => @listing } end end def create # create a new listing and save it immediately. Assign it to guest, with a status of "draft" @listing = Listing.new(:price_id => 1) # Default price id # save it to db # TODO add validation that it has to have a price ID, on record creation. So the view doesn't break. @listing.save @image = Image.new # redirect_to "/listings/detail/@listing.id" #this didn't work respond_to do |format| format.html # show.html.erb format.xml { render :xml => @listing } end end The PROBLEM I'm using a partial that shows the same form for the create view and the detail view. This works perfectly except for one thing: When I pull up http://0.0.0.0:3000/listings/detail/7, it works perfectly. When I pull up http://0.0.0.0:3000/listings/new, I get the following error: Showing /Applications/MAMP/htdocs/rails_testing/feedbackd/app/views/listings/_edit_form.html.erb where line #100 raised: No route matches {:action="show", :controller="images"} Extracted source (around line #100): 97: <!-- Form for new images --> 98: <div class="span-20 append-bottom"> 99: <!-- <%# form_for :image, @image, :url => image_path, :html => { :multipart => true } do |f| %> --> 100: <%= form_for @image, :url => image_path, :html => { :multipart => true } do |f| %> 101: <%= f.text_field :description %><br /> 102: <%= f.file_field :photo %> 103: <%= submit_tag "Upload" %> What I think the issue is: When I upload a new image (I'm using Paperclip), it requires the listing_id to create the image record. Since the listing_id isn't passed in with listings/new it can't find the listing_id. How can I pass in the id? Via a redirect? What's the best way to solve this? Thank you.

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  • dojo dgrid tree, subrows in wrong position

    - by Ventura
    I have a dgrid, working with tree column plugin. Every time that the user click on the tree, I call the server, catch the subrows(json) and bind it. But when it happens, these subrows are show in wrong position, like the image bellow. The most strange is when I change the pagination, after go back to first page, the subrows stay on the correct place. (please, tell me if is possible to understand my english, then I can try to improve the text) My dgrid code: var CustomGrid = declare([OnDemandGrid, Keyboard, Selection, Pagination]); var grid = new CustomGrid({ columns: [ selector({label: "#", disabled: function(object){ return object.type == 'DOCx'; }}, "radio"), {label:'Id', field:'id', sortable: false}, tree({label: "Title", field:"title", sortable: true, indentWidth:20, allowDuplicates:true}), //{label:'Title', field:'title', sortable: false}, {label:'Count', field:'count', sortable: false} ], store: this.memoryStore, collapseOnRefresh:true, pagingLinks: false, pagingTextBox: true, firstLastArrows: true, pageSizeOptions: [10, 15, 25], selectionMode: "single", // for Selection; only select a single row at a time cellNavigation: false // for Keyboard; allow only row-level keyboard navigation }, "grid"); My memory store: loadMemoryStore: function(items){ this.memoryStore = Observable(new Memory({ data: items, getChildren: function(parent, options){ return this.query({parent: parent.id}, options); }, mayHaveChildren: function(parent){ return (parent.count != 0) && (parent.type != 'DOC'); } })); }, This moment I am binding the subrows: success: function(data){ for(var i=0; i<data.report.length; i++){ this.memoryStore.put({id:data.report[i].id, title:data.report[i].created, type:'DOC', parent:this.designId}); } }, I was thinking, maybe every moment that I bind the subrows, I could do like a refresh on the grid, maybe works. I think that the pagination does the same thing. Thanks. edit: I forgot the question. Well, How can I correct this bug? If The refresh in dgrid works. How can I do it? Other thing that I was thinking, maybe my getChildren is wrong, but I could not identify it. thanks again.

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  • jQuery replacing an image inside a .net datalist

    - by user359409
    (submit said I was trying to post an image so I've changed image everywhere to ix I am trying to get jQuery to replace an ix inside a datalist. The original ix is the thumbnail ix of a product on a category page. The small ix I am clicking on are swatch ix for the different colors of a product. I can get it to work using a div tag around the ix tag inside the ItemTemplate. I don't need to use a div tag if I can get the imagesx to swap- I was just using it because that is sample code I found and it works for the first product in the category. <asp:HyperLink ID="ProductNav" runat="server" NavigateUrl='<%#Eval("NavigateUrl") %>'> <div id="ladiv" runat="server"> <asp:Ixx runat="server" ID="ProdThumb" /> </div> </asp:HyperLink> <asp:PlaceHolder ID="phSwatches" runat="server"></asp:PlaceHolder> The ProdThumb ix is added from the code behind and the swatches are added from the code behind swatches.Controls.Add(new LiteralControl("<table><tr>")); foreach(OptionChoice optionChoice in option.Choices) { string swatchThumbnail = string.Format("<ix ID=\"{0}\" src=\"{1}\" border=\"0\" class=\"{2}\" />","swatch" + optionChoice.OptionChoiceId.ToString(), ResolveUrl(optionChoice.ThumbnailUrl),"imgthumb"); swatches.Controls.Add(new LiteralControl("<td>")); swatches.Controls.Add(new LiteralControl(swatchThumbnail)); swatches.Controls.Add(new LiteralControl("</td>")); } swatches.Controls.Add(new LiteralControl("</tr></table>")); prodThumb.IxUrl = product.ThumbnailUrl; prodThumb.AlternateText = product.ThumbnailAltText; prodThumb.CssClass = "Thumbnail"; The jQuery is: $(function() { $("ix.imgthumb").click(function(e) { var t = $(this); var newImg = ''; $('#ladiv') .html($(newImg) ); }); }); </script> Both images are named similar, except the swatch contains "sws" and the larger one is the some only with "swl". I have spent several days searching but am not able to get it to work. If I try something like $("#<%=ladiv.ClientID %") the code can't find it. I appreciate any help.

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  • jQuery Sales Tax

    - by CKallemeres
    Hello everyone! I have created a function (see below) that calculates a 7.5% sales tax. Now I need help doing the following: Have totalTax() take in 2 arguments one for the price and one for the tax. On submit (use the onSubmit event handler to call this function) have the function process the price and the tax by manipulating the arguments you passed in. Have the sales tax on the page update dynamically with what ever the sales tax is that you defined for the function 7.5 percent sales tax: Instead of using .innerHTML use jQuery to access these document elements and write to them: document.getElementById('requestedAmount' ).innerHTML = priceInput; document.getElementById('requestedTax' ).innerHTML = salesTax; document.getElementById('requestedTotal' ).innerHTML = totalAmount; Original Code: <script type="text/javascript"> $().ready(function() { // validate the comment form when it is submitted $("#inputForm").validate(); $("#priceInput").priceFormat({ prefix: '', limit: 5, centsLimit: 2 }); }); function totalTax(){ var priceInput = document.getElementById( 'priceInput' ).value; var salesTax = Math.round(((priceInput / 100) * 7.5)*100)/100; var totalAmount = (priceInput*1) + (salesTax * 1); document.getElementById( 'requestedAmount' ).innerHTML = priceInput; document.getElementById( 'requestedTax' ).innerHTML = salesTax; document.getElementById( 'requestedTotal' ).innerHTML = totalAmount; } </script> <body> <form class="cmxform" id="inputForm" method="get" action=""> <p> <label for="priceInput">Enter the price: </label> <input id="priceInput" name="name" class="required"/> </p> <p> <input class="submit" type="submit" value="Submit" onclick="totalTax();"/> </p> </form> <div>Entered price: <p id="requestedAmount"></p> </div> <div>7.5 percent sales tax: <p id="requestedTax"></p> </div> <div>Total: <p id="requestedTotal"> </p> </div>

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  • Issue with TagBuilder.MergeAttribute for parameter null

    - by The Yur
    I would like to use Razor's feature not to produce attribute output inside a tag in case when attribute's value is null. So when Razor meets <div class="@var" where @var is null, the output will be mere <div. I've created some Html extension method to write text inside tag. The method takes header text, level (h1..h6), and html attributes as simple object. The code is: public static MvcHtmlString WriteHeader(this HtmlHelper html, string s, int? hLevel = 1, object htmlAttributes = null) { if ((hLevel == null) || (hLevel < 1 || hLevel > 4) || (s.IsNullOrWhiteSpace())) return new MvcHtmlString(""); string cssClass = null, cssId = null, cssStyle = null; if (htmlAttributes != null) { var T = htmlAttributes.GetType(); var propInfo = T.GetProperty("class"); var o = propInfo.GetValue(htmlAttributes); cssClass = o.ToString().IsNullOrWhiteSpace() ? null : o.ToString(); propInfo = T.GetProperty("id"); o = propInfo.GetValue(htmlAttributes); cssId = o.ToString().IsNullOrWhiteSpace() ? null : o.ToString(); propInfo = T.GetProperty("style"); o = propInfo.GetValue(htmlAttributes); cssStyle = o.ToString().IsNullOrWhiteSpace() ? null : o.ToString(); } var hTag = new TagBuilder("h" + hLevel); hTag.MergeAttribute("id", cssId); hTag.MergeAttribute("class", cssClass); hTag.MergeAttribute("style", cssStyle); hTag.InnerHtml = s; return new MvcHtmlString(hTag.ToString()); } I found that in spite of null values for "class" and "style" attributes TagBuilder still puts them as empty strings, like <h1 class="" style="" But for id attribute it surprisingly works, so when id's value is null, there is no id attribute in tag. My question - is such behavior something that should actually happen? How can I achieve absent attributes with null values using TagBuilder? I tried this in VS2013, MVC 5.

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