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  • WPF ProgressBar - TargetParameterCountException

    - by Dr_Asik
    I am making my first WPF application, where I use the Youtube .NET API to upload a video to Youtube using the ResumableUploader. This ResumableUploader works asynchronously and provides an event AsyncOperationProgress to periodically report its progress percentage. I want a ProgressBar that will display this progress percentage. Here is some of the code I have for that: void BtnUpload_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { // generate video uploader = new ResumableUploader(); uploader.AsyncOperationCompleted += OnDone; uploader.AsyncOperationProgress += OnProgress; uploader.InsertAsync(authenticator, newVideo.YouTubeEntry, new UserState()); } void OnProgress(object sender, AsyncOperationProgressEventArgs e) { Dispatcher.BeginInvoke((SendOrPostCallback)delegate { PgbUpload.Value = e.ProgressPercentage; }, DispatcherPriority.Background, null); } Where PgbUpload is my progress bar and the other identifiers are not important for the purpose of this question. When I run this, OnProgress will be hit a few times, and then I will get a TargetParameterCountException. I have tried several different syntax for invoking the method asynchronously, none of which worked. I am sure the problem is the delegate because if I comment it out, the code works fine (but the ProgressBar isn't updated of course). Thanks for any help.

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  • Scheduling algorithm optimized to execute during low usage periods.

    - by The Rook
    Lets say there is a Web Application serving mostly one country. Because of normal sleep habits website traffic follows a Sine wave, where 1 period lasts 24 hours and the lowest part of the wave is at about midnight. Is there a scheduling algorithm optimized to execute during low usage periods? I am thinking of this as a liquid that is "pored into" this sine wave to flatten out resource usage. A ideal algorithm would take the integral of this empty space. If the same tasks need to be run daily the amount of resources consumed by previous executions could be used to predict future usage by looking at the rate in which resource usage is increasing. By knowing the amount of resources required this algorithm could fill in this empty space while leaving as much buffer as possible on either side such that its interference was reduced as much as possible. It would also be possible to detect if there isn't enough resources before execution begins, this opens the door for a cloud to help out. Does anything like this exist? Or should I build it into an existing scheduler like quartz and make it open source?

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  • ASP.net MVC Routing on Postback

    - by Mark Kadlec
    In my ASP.net MVC View I have a dropdown that I want to get details on selection and asynchronously update a div. My aspx is as follows: <% using (Html.BeginForm("Index", "Portal", FormMethod.Post, new { id = "TheForm" })) {%> <h2>Index</h2> <% using (Ajax.BeginForm("Details", new AjaxOptions { UpdateTargetId = "mpkResults" })) { %> <%=Html.DropDownList("Docs", (IEnumerable<SelectListItem>)ViewData["Docs"], new { onchange = "document.getElementById('TheForm').submit();" })%> <p><input type="submit" value="Details" /></p> <% } %> <div id="mpkResults" style="margin:10px 0px 0px 0px;"></div> ... The onchange event fires correctly on selection of the dropdown, but instead of the Details method in my code behind firing, it hits my Index method. Why is the details method not getting hit on the onchange event? My Details() method in the controller is: public ActionResult Details() { ... < It never gets here, just goes to the index() method } It's a little frustrating right now since I'm sure it is a simple mistake but not sure what it could be. I looked at the Source of my page and sure enough, the form looks like it should be routing to the Details Action: <form action="/Portal/Details" method="post" ... Any help would be appreciated.

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  • stop android emulator call

    - by Shahzad Younis
    I am working on an Android application, having functionality like voicemail. I am using BroadcastReceiver to get dialing events. I have to get the event "WHEN CALL IS UNANSWERED (not picked after few rings) FROM RECEIVER". I will do some actions on caller end against this event. I am using AVD emulator, and I do call from one instance to another instance and it calls perfectly, but the problem is: It continuously calls until I reject or accept the call. This way I cannot detect that "CALL IS UNANSWERED AFTER A NUMBER OF RINGS". So I want the Caller emulator to drop the call after a number of rings (if unanswered) like a normal phone. I can do it (drop the call after some time) by writing some code, but I need the natural functionality of phone in the emulator. Can anyone please guide me? Is there any settings in the emulator? Or something else? The code is shown below in case it helps: public class MyPhoneReceiver extends BroadcastReceiver { @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent intent) { Bundle extras = intent.getExtras(); if (extras != null) { String state = "my call state = " + extras.getString(TelephonyManager.EXTRA_STATE); Log.w("DEBUG", state); } }

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  • Outlook Interop: Password protected PST file headache

    - by Ed Manet
    Okay, I have no problem identifying the .PST file using the Outlook Interop assemblies in a C# app. But as soon as I hit a password protected file, I am prompted for a password. We are in the process of disabling the use of PSTs in our organization and one of the steps is to unload the PST files from the users' Outlook profile. I need to have this app run silently and not prompt the user. Any ideas? Is there a way to create the Outlook.Application object with no UI and then just try to catch an Exception on password protected files? // create the app and namespace Application olApp = new Application(); NameSpace olMAPI = olApp.GetNamespace("MAPI"); // get the storeID of the default inbox string rootStoreID = olMAPI.GetDefaultFolder(OlDefaultFolders.olFolderInbox).StoreID; // loop thru each of the folders foreach (MAPIFolder fo in olMAPI.Folders) { // compare the first 75 chars of the storeid // to prevent removing the Inbox folder. string s1 = rootStoreID.Substring(1, 75); string s2 = fo.StoreID.Substring(1, 75); if (s1 != s2) { // unload the folder olMAPI.RemoveStore(fo); } } olApp.Quit();

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  • SQL-Server: Is there an equivalent of a trigger for general stored procedure execution

    - by Arj
    Hi All, Hope you can help. Is there a way to reliably detect when a stored proc is being run on SQL Server without altering the SP itself? Here's the requirement. We need to track users running reports from our enterprise data warehouse as the core product we use doesn't allow for this. Both core product reports and a slew of in-house ones we've added all return their data from individual stored procs. We don't have a practical way of altering the parts of the product webpages where reports are called from. We also can't change the stored procs for the core product reports. (It would be trivial to add a logging line to the start/end of each of our inhouse ones). What I'm trying to find therefore, is whether there's a way in SQL Server (2005 / 2008) to execute a logging stored proc whenever any other stored procedure runs, without altering those stored procedures themselves. We have general control over the SQL Server instance itself as it's local, we just don't want to change the product stored procs themselves. Any one have any ideas? Is there a kind of "stored proc executing trigger"? Is there an event model for SQL Server that we can hook custom .Net code into? (Just to discount it from the start, we want to try and make a change to SQL Server rather than get into capturing the report being run from the products webpages etc) Thoughts appreciated Thanks

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  • How To perform a SQL Query to DataTable Operation That Can Be Cancelled

    - by David W
    I tried to make the title as specific as possible. Basically what I have running inside a backgroundworker thread now is some code that looks like: SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(connstring); SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(query, conn); conn.Open(); SqlDataAdapter sda = new SqlDataAdapter(cmd); sda.Fill(Results); conn.Close(); sda.Dispose(); Where query is a string representing a large, time consuming query, and conn is the connection object. My problem now is I need a stop button. I've come to realize killing the backgroundworker would be worthless because I still want to keep what results are left over after the query is canceled. Plus it wouldn't be able to check the canceled state until after the query. What I've come up with so far: I've been trying to conceptualize how to handle this efficiently without taking too big of a performance hit. My idea was to use a SqlDataReader to read the data from the query piece at a time so that I had a "loop" to check a flag I could set from the GUI via a button. The problem is as far as I know I can't use the Load() method of a datatable and still be able to cancel the sqlcommand. If I'm wrong please let me know because that would make cancelling slightly easier. In light of what I discovered I came to the realization I may only be able to cancel the sqlcommand mid-query if I did something like the below (pseudo-code): while(reader.Read()) { //check flag status //if it is set to 'kill' fire off the kill thread //otherwise populate the datatable with what was read } However, it would seem to me this would be highly ineffective and possibly costly. Is this the only way to kill a sqlcommand in progress that absolutely needs to be in a datatable? Any help would be appreciated!

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  • Index an array expression directly in PostgreSQL

    - by wich
    I'm trying to insert data into a table from a template table. I need to rewrite one of the columns for which I wanted to use a directly indexed array expression, but I can't seem to find how to do this, if it is even possible. The scenario: create table template ( id integer, index integer, foo integer); insert into template values (0, 1, 23), (0, 2, 18), (0, 3, 16), (0, 4, 7), (1, 1, 17), (1, 2, 26), (1, 3, 11), (1, 4, 3); create table data ( data_id integer, foo integer); Now what I'd like to do is the following: insert into data select (array[3,7,5,2])[index], foo from template where id = 1; But this doesn't work, the (array[3,7,5,2])[index] syntax isn't valid. I tried a few variants, but was unable to get anything working and wasn't able to find the correct syntax in the docs, nor even whether this is at all possible or not. As a current workaround I've devised the following, but it is less than ideal, from an elegance perspective at least, but it may also be a performance hit, I haven't looked into that yet. insert into data select arr[index], foo from template, (select array[3,7,5,2] as arr) as q where id = 1; If anyone could suggest a (better) alternative to accomplish this I'd like to hear that as well.

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  • Handling Application Logic in Multiple AsyncTask onPostExecute()s

    - by stormin986
    I have three simultaneous instances of an AsyncTask for download three files. When two particular ones finish, at the end of onPostExecute() I check a flag set by each, and if both are true, I call startActivity() for the next Activity. I am currently seeing the activity called twice, or something that resembles this type of behavior. Since the screen does that 'swipe left' kind of transition to the next activity, it sometimes does it twice (and when I hit back, it goes back to the same activity). It's obvious two versions of the activity that SHOULD only get called once are being put on the Activity stack. The only way I can find that this is possible is if both AsyncTasks' onPostExecute() executed SO simultaneously that they were virtually running the same lines at the same time, since I set the 'itemXdownloaded' flag to true right before I check for both and call startActivity(). But this is happening enough that it's very hard for me to believe that both downloads are finishing precisely at the same time and having their onPostExecute()s so close together... Any thoughts on what could be going on here? General gist of code (details removed, ignore any syntactical errors I may have edited in): // In onPostExecute() switch (downloadID) { case DL1: dl1complete = true; break; case DL2: dl2complete = true; break; case DL3: dl3complete = true; break; } // If 1 and 2 are done, move on (DL3 still going in background) if ( downloadID != DL3 && dl1complete && dl2complete) { ParentClass.this.startActivity(new Intent(ParentClass.this, NextActivity.class)); }

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  • Re-order list in Python to ensure it starts with check values.

    - by S_Swede
    Dear all, I'm reading in serial data using Pyserial, to populate a list of 17 values (1byte each) at a sampling rate of 256Hz. The bytes I ultimately want to use are the 5th to 8th in the list. Providing no bytes are dropped, the first two values of the stream are always the same ('165','90'). I'm getting quite a few dropped values though, and my list values are shifting, so when I read the 5th-8th bytes, they aren't the correct values. I've partially combatted this by ensuring that before the wanted segement is captured, the first few values are checked against what they should be (i.e. if mylist[0]==165 &....). This is crude but ok since the chances of these two values appearing adjacent to each other in the list elsewhere is small. The problem is that this means as soon as the bytes shift, I'm losing a load of values, until it eventually realigns. My question is: what code can I use to either: a) Force the list to realign once it has been detected that it no longer starts with 165,90. (elif....). b) Detect where '165' & '90' are (next to each other) in the list and extract the values I want in relation to their position (next but one, onwards). Thanks in advance S_S Just noticed from the related Qs that I could use mylist.append(mylist.pop(0)) multiple times until they are in the right place. Is there a better way that anyone can suggest?

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  • How to figure out which record has been deleted in an effiecient way?

    - by janetsmith
    Hi, I am working on an in-house ETL solution, from db1 (Oracle) to db2 (Sybase). We needs to transfer data incrementally (Change Data Capture?) into db2. I have only read access to tables, so I can't create any table or trigger in Oracle db1. The challenge I am facing is, how to detect record deletion in Oracle? The solution which I can think of, is by using additional standalone/embedded db (e.g. derby, h2 etc). This db contains 2 tables, namely old_data, new_data. old_data contains primary key field from tahle of interest in Oracle. Every time ETL process runs, new_data table will be populated with primary key field from Oracle table. After that, I will run the following sql command to get the deleted rows: SELECT old_data.id FROM old_data WHERE old_data.id NOT IN (SELECT new_data.id FROM new_data) I think this will be a very expensive operation when the volume of data become very large. Do you have any better idea of doing this? Thanks.

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2.0 + Implementation of a IRouteHandler goes not fire

    - by Peter
    Can anybody please help me with this as I have no idea why public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) is not executing. In my Global.asax.cs I have public class MvcApplication : System.Web.HttpApplication { public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); routes.Add("ImageRoutes", new Route("Images/{filename}", new CustomRouteHandler())); } protected void Application_Start() { RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); } } //CustomRouteHandler implementation is below public class CustomRouteHandler : IRouteHandler { public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) { // IF I SET A BREAK POINT HERE IT DOES NOT HIT FOR SOME REASON. string filename = requestContext.RouteData.Values["filename"] as string; if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(filename)) { // return a 404 HttpHandler here } else { requestContext.HttpContext.Response.Clear(); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.ContentType = GetContentType(requestContext.HttpContext.Request.Url.ToString()); // find physical path to image here. string filepath = requestContext.HttpContext.Server.MapPath("~/logo.jpg"); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.WriteFile(filepath); requestContext.HttpContext.Response.End(); } return null; } } Can any body tell me what I'm missing here. Simply public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) does not fire. I havn't change anything in the web.config either. What I'm missing here? Please help.

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  • How to debug an external library (OpenCV) in Visual C++?

    - by neuviemeporte
    I am developing a project in VC++2008. The project uses the OpenCV library (but I guess this applies to any other library). I am working with the Debug configuration, the linker properties include the debug versions of the library .lib's as additional dependencies. In VC++ Directories under Tools|Options i set up the include directory, the .lib directory, the source directories for the library as well. I get an error while calling one of the functions from the library and I'd like to see exactly what that function is doing. The line that produces the error is: double error = cvStereoCalibrate(&calObjPointsM, &img1PointsM, &img2PointsM, &pointCountsM, &cam1M, &dist1M, &cam2M, &dist2M, imgSize, &rotM, &transM, NULL, NULL, cvTermCriteria(CV_TERMCRIT_ITER + CV_TERMCRIT_EPS, 100, 1e-5)); I set up a breakpoint at this line to see how the cvStereoCalibrate() function fails. Unfortunately the debugger won't show the source code for this function when I hit "Step into". It skips immediately to the cvTermCriteria() (which is a simple inline, macro-kinda function) and show its contents. Is there anything else I need to do to be able to enter the external library functions in the debugger? EDIT: I think the cvTermCriteria() function shows in the debugger, because it's defined in a header file, therefore immediately accesible to the project.

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  • WebView and HTML5 <video>

    - by brian moore
    I'm piecing together a cheapo app that amongst other things "frames" some of our websites... Pretty simple with the WebViewClient... until I hit the video. The video is done as HTML5 elements, and these work fine and dandy on Chrome, iPhones, and now that we fixed the encoding issues it works great on Android... in the native browser. Now the rub: WebView doesn't like it. At all. I can click on the poster image, and nothing happens. Googling, I found http://www.codelark.com/2010/05/12/android-viewing-video-from-embedded-webview/ which is close, but seems to be based on a 'link' (as in a href...) instead of a video element. (onDownloadListener does not appear to get invoked on video elements...) I also see references to overriding onShowCustomView, but that seems to not get called on video elements... nor does shouldOverrideUrlLoading.. I would rather not get into "pull xml from the server, reformat it in the app".. by keeping the story layout on the server, I can control the content a bit better without forcing people to keep updating an app. So if I can convince WebView to handle tags like the native browser, that would be best. I'm clearly missing something obvious.. but I have no clue what.

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  • Is anyone familiar with SDPT.clsSDPT?

    - by David Stratton
    Normally I wouldn't ask this kind of question here, but I'm desperate at this point. I'm attempting to support a classic ASP app written by a predecessor who is no longer available. Keeping it short, several applications use a dll to perform encryption of sensitive data. This dll is named SDPT.dll, and the line of code used to create an object is set objSDPT = server.CreateObject("SDPT.clsSDPT") At this point, I am getting errors in a critical app on one of my servers, and I've actually hit a dead end. The error is a standard "Server.CreateObject Failed" message, which I know how to troubleshoot in most cases. However, in this case, all of my normal tries, plus several hours of Google searches are coming up with nothing that works. At this point, I'm not so much looking for help in troubleshooting the issue as I am in finding any sort of reference on this third party component. Even finding that is proving to be difficult, so I'm resorting to asking any of the seasoned developers that hang out here if they are familiar with this product, who it was developed by, and if any documentation on it exists anywhere.

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  • Capture and handling the tab/Textchanged event in a textbox in asp.net MVC

    - by Icerman
    I have the following code th handle a user name validation on the server side. But the event seems not firing since break points in js or C# code didn't hit. Can anyone point out where I did wrong? Here is the user control which has a user name textbox: <%: Html.TextBox("UserName", Model.Username, new { maxlength = "40", size = "20", tabindex = "1", @onchange = "CheckAvailability()" })% CheckAvailability() is defined in the User.Validation.js and included in the above user control: $(document).ready(function () { function CheckAvailability() { $.post("/Home/Survey/CheckAvailability", { Username: $("#UserName").val() }, function (data) { var myObject = eval('(' + data + ')'); var newid = myObject; if (newid == 0) { $("#usernamelookupresult").html("<font color='green'>Available :-D</font>") } else { $("#usernamelookupresult").html("<font color='red'>Taken :-(</font>") } }); } }); Here is the survey controller function which will have server side validation: [HttpPost] public ActionResult CheckAvailability(string Username) { int Taken = 0; // This is where you add your database lookup if (Username == "abc") { Taken = 1; } return Json(Taken); }

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  • How can I stop a movie (from current frame) playing when I click on next frame - FLASH CS4?

    - by ladygeekgeek
    I have four movie clips (.f4v) in 4 frames in a movie with watch buttons.. This movie has them been imported into a main movie container that has next and previous buttons. However if i play a movie then hit next frame, the movie continues to play in the background. How can I shop this? The code below shows one of the actionscripts for a movie clip and then the main actionscript in the main movie. I am a flash newbie, so all help appreciated. Many thanks. stop(); watch1_btn.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, playMovie1); function playMovie1(event:MouseEvent):void { movie1_mc.play(); } // Button Listeners next_btn.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, nextSection); prev_btn.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, prevSection); function nextSection(event:MouseEvent):void { var thisLabel:String = pages_mc.currentLabel; // gets current frame label as string var thisLabelNum:String = thisLabel.replace("sct", ""); // cuts the leading letters off of the number var curNumber:Number = Number(thisLabelNum); // converts that string number to a real number if (curNumber < 5) { var nextNum:Number = curNumber + 1; // adds 1 to the number so we can go to next frame label pages_mc.gotoAndStop("sct" + nextNum); // This allows us to go to the next frame label } } /////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////// function prevSection(event:MouseEvent):void { var thisLabel:String = pages_mc.currentLabel; // gets current frame label as string var thisLabelNum:String = thisLabel.replace("sct", ""); // cuts the leading letters off of the number var curNumber:Number = Number(thisLabelNum); // converts that string number to a real number var prevNum:Number = curNumber - 1; // subtracts 1 from the number so we can go to next frame label pages_mc.gotoAndStop("sct" + prevNum); // This allows us to go to the previous frame label }

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  • javascript to select text from web page

    - by phil swenson
    I'm trying to write a bookmarklet that grabs any selected text on a web page and sends it to my website. It should (hopefully) work in Chrome, FFX, Safari, and IE. I did a search and found a function, but it doesn't appear to work. Here is the code: <html> <body> <div onClick=getSelText()>Click</div> <div>please select me</div> </body> <script language=javascript> function getSelText(){ var txt = 'nothing'; if (window.getSelection){ txt = "1" + window.getSelection(); } else if (document.getSelection) { txt = "2" + document.getSelection(); } else if (document.selection) { txt = "3" + document.selection.createRange().text; } else return; alert("selected text = " + txt); } </script> </html> when I select the text in the div "please select me" and hit the click div, I just get "selected text = 1" thanks

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  • Can not open ports in iptables on CentOS 5??

    - by abszero
    I am trying to open up ports in CentOS's firewall and am having a terrible go at it. I have followed the "HowTo" here: http://wiki.centos.org/HowTos/Network/IPTables as well as a few other places on the Net but I still can't get the bloody thing to work. Basically I wanted to get two things working: VNC and Apache over the internal network. The problem is that the firewall is blocking all attempts to connect to these services. Now if I issue service iptables stop and then try to access the server via VNC or hit the webserver everything works as expected. However the moment I turn iptables back on all of my access is blocked. Below is a truncated version of my iptables file as it appears in vi -A RH-Firewall-1-INPUT -p tcp -m state --state NEW -m tcp --dport 5801 -j ACCEPT -A RH-Firewall-1-INPUT -p tcp -m state --state NEW -m tcp --dport 5901 -j ACCEPT -A RH-Firewall-1-INPUT -p tcp -m state --state NEW -m tcp --dport 6001 -j ACCEPT -A RH-Firewall-1-INPUT -p tcp -m state --state NEW -m tcp --dport 5900 -j ACCEPT -A RH-Firewall-1-INPUT -p tcp -m state --state NEW -m tcp --dport 80 -j ACCEPT Really I would just be happy if I could get port 80 opened up for Apache since I can do most stuff via putty but if I could figure out VNC as well that would be cool. As far as VNC goes there is just a single/user desktop that I am trying to connect to via: [ipaddress]:1 Any help would be greatly appreciated!

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  • Install h5py in Mac OS X 10.6.3

    - by zyq524
    I'm trying to install h5py in Mac OS X 10.6.3. First I installed HDF5 1.8, which used the following commands: ./configure \ --prefix=/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/Current \ --enable-shared \ --enable-production \ --enable-threadsafe \ CPPFLAGS=-I/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/Current/include \ LDFLAGS=-L/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/Current/lib make make check sudo make install Then install h5py: /Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/Current/bin/python \ setup.py \ build \ --api=18 \ --hdf5=/Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/Current Then I got the errors: Configure: Autodetecting HDF5 settings... Custom HDF5 dir: /Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/Current Custom API level: (1, 8) ld: warning: in detect/vers.o, file was built for unsupported file format which is not the architecture being linked (i386) ld: warning: in /Library/Frameworks/Python.framework/Versions/Current/lib/libhdf5.dylib, file was built for unsupported file format which is not the architecture being linked (i386) Undefined symbols: "_main", referenced from: start in crt1.10.5.o ld: symbol(s) not found collect2: ld returned 1 exit status Failed to compile HDF5 test program. Please check to make sure: * You have a C compiler installed * A development version of Python is installed (including header files) * A development version of HDF5 is installed (including header files) * If HDF5 is not in a default location, supply the argument --hdf5=<path> error: command 'cc' failed with exit status 1 I just updated my Xcode, I don't know whether this is because my gcc's default setting. If so, how can I get rid of this error? Thanks.

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  • PKG can't silent install on Mac Os 10.5

    - by ericdm
    I have made an Installer by PackageMaler3.0.6 on Mac OS 10.8. Also I have add a JavaScript function in Distribution,This function use for detect the certain App is running or not. Some code like this: var allProcess = new Array(); allProcess = system.applications.all(); var allProcessCount = allProcess.length; ... If I normally install (With Installer UI) this pkg on 10.8,10.7,10.5, it's Ok, all function works fine. If i use command line to silent install On 10.8,10.7 it's OK, no error. But if i silent install on 10.5.8, there will be an error in terminal(JavaScript error), can't install. If i remove the code of "var allProcessCount = allProcess.length;" It can silent install on 10.5.8, once if added the code like "allProcess.length" ,there will be an error,it looks like can't use the array property in silent install on 10.5, but 10.7,10.8 it's OK and install with UI it's also Ok on 10.5. Did anyone knows how can i slove this issue? Thanks!!!

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  • LINQ thinks I need an extra INNER JOIN, but why?

    - by Saurabh Kumar
    I have a LINQ query, which for some reason is generating an extra/duplicatre INNER JOIN. This is causing the query to not return the expected output. If I manually comment that extra JOIN from the generated SQL, then I get seemingly correct output. Can you detect what I might have done i nthis LINQ to have cuased this extra JOIN? Thanks. Here is my approx LINQ var ids = context.Code.Where(predicate); var rs = from r in ids group r by new { r.phonenumbers.person.PersonID} into g let matchcount=g.Select(p => p.phonenumbers.PhoneNum).Distinct().Count() where matchcount ==2 select new { personid = g.Key }; and here is the generated SQL (the duplicate join is [t7]) Declare @p1 VarChar(10)='Home' Declare @p2 VarChar(10)='111' Declare @p3 VarChar(10)='Office' Declare @p4 VarChar(10)='222' Declare @p5 int=2 SELECT [t9].[PersonID] AS [pid] FROM ( SELECT [t3].[PersonID], ( SELECT COUNT(*) FROM ( SELECT DISTINCT [t7].[PhoneValue] FROM [dbo].[Person] AS [t4] INNER JOIN [dbo].[PersonPhoneNumber] AS [t5] ON [t5].[PersonID] = [t4].[PersonID] INNER JOIN [dbo].[CodeMaster] AS [t6] ON [t6].[Code] = [t5].[PhoneType] INNER JOIN [dbo].[PersonPhoneNumber] AS [t7] ON [t7].[PersonID] = [t4].[PersonID] WHERE ([t3].[PersonID] = [t4].[PersonID]) AND ([t6].[Enumeration] = @p0) AND ((([t6].[CodeDescription] = @p1) AND ([t5].[PhoneValue] = @p2)) OR (([t6].[CodeDescription] = @p3) AND ([t5].[PhoneValue] = @p4))) ) AS [t8] ) AS [value] FROM ( SELECT [t0].[PersonID] FROM [dbo].[Person] AS [t0] INNER JOIN [dbo].[PersonPhoneNumber] AS [t1] ON [t1].[PersonID] = [t0].[PersonID] INNER JOIN [dbo].[CodeMaster] AS [t2] ON [t2].[Code] = [t1].[PhoneType] WHERE ([t2].[Enumeration] = @p0) AND ((([t2].[CodeDescription] = @p1) AND ([t1].[PhoneValue] = @p2)) OR (([t2].[CodeDescription] = @p3) AND ([t1].[PhoneValue] = @p4))) GROUP BY [t0].[PersonID] ) AS [t3] ) AS [t9] WHERE [t9].[value] = @p5

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  • Why are my connections not closed even if I explicitly dispose of the DataContext?

    - by Chris Simpson
    I encapsulate my linq to sql calls in a repository class which is instantiated in the constructor of my overloaded controller. The constructor of my repository class creates the data context so that for the life of the page load, only one data context is used. In my destructor of the repository class I explicitly call the dispose of the DataContext though I do not believe this is necessary. Using performance monitor, if I watch my User Connections count and repeatedly load a page, the number increases once per page load. Connections do not get closed or reused (for about 20 minutes). I tried putting Pooling=false in my config to see if this had any effect but it did not. In any case with pooling I wouldn't expect a new connection for every load, I would expect it to reuse connections. I've tried putting a break point in the destructor to make sure the dispose is being hit and sure enough it is. So what's happening? Some code to illustrate what I said above: The controller: public class MyController : Controller { protected MyRepository rep; public MyController () { rep = new MyRepository(); } } The repository: public class MyRepository { protected MyDataContext dc; public MyRepository() { dc = getDC(); } ~MyRepository() { if (dc != null) { //if (dc.Connection.State != System.Data.ConnectionState.Closed) //{ // dc.Connection.Close(); //} dc.Dispose(); } } // etc } Note: I add a number of hints and context information to the DC for auditing purposes. This is essentially why I want one connection per page load

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  • Should I use IDisposable for purely managed resources?

    - by John Gietzen
    Here is the scenario: I have an object called a Transaction that needs to make sure that only one entity has permission to edit it at any given time. In order to facilitate a long-lived lock, I have the class generating a token object that can be used to make the edits. You would use it like this: var transaction = new Transaction(); using (var tlock = transaction.Lock()) { transaction.Update(data, tlock); } Now, I want the TransactionLock class to implement IDisposable so that its usage can be clear. But, I don't have any unmanaged resources to dispose. however, the TransctionLock object itself is a sort of "unmanaged resource" in the sense that the CLR doesn't know how to properly finalize it. All of this would be fine and dandy, I would just use IDisposable and be done with it. However, my issue comes when I try to do this in the finalizer: ~TransactionLock() { this.Dispose(false); } I want the finalizer to release the transaction from the lock, if possible. How, in the finalizer, do I detect if the parent transaction (this.transaction) has already been finalized? Is there a better pattern I should be using? The Transaction class looks something like this: public sealed class Transaction { private readonly object lockMutex = new object(); private TransactionLock currentLock; public TransactionLock Lock() { lock (this.lockMutex) { if (this.currentLock != null) throw new InvalidOperationException(/* ... */); this.currentLock = new TransactionLock(this); return this.currentLock; } } public void Update(object data, TransactionLock tlock) { lock (this.lockMutex) { this.ValidateLock(tlock); // ... } } internal void ValidateLock(TransactionLock tlock) { if (this.currentLock == null) throw new InvalidOperationException(/* ... */); if (this.currentLock != tlock) throw new InvalidOperationException(/* ... */); } internal void Unlock(TransactionLock tlock) { lock (this.lockMutex) { this.ValidateLock(tlock); this.currentLock = null; } } }

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  • Timer appears to be pausing when screen becomes inactive

    - by elchuppa
    So I have a very simple android activity that starts a timer when you hit a button. Timer timer = new Timer(); timer.schedule(new TimerTask() { @Override public void run() { doStuff(); } }, 15 * 60 * 1000); So this worked reasonably well for me when I was testing but as it turns out when the screen becomes inactive so does the timer. I was a bit surprised by this. I understand you need to create a service to have anything running in the background but I hadn't realized this is required for an activity in the foreground when the phone has inactivated the screen due to lack of activity. What confuses me is I think this worked as I expected originally and just in the last few weeks or so has the timer been affected by the phone saving power. I could be wrong though.. So basically my questions are: am I seeing expected behavior? Do I need to create all timers as services or somehow disallow powersaving? thanks for any advice, Patrick

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