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  • Why does Hibernate 2nd level cache only cache queries within a session?

    - by Synesso
    Using a named query in our application and with ehcache as the provider, it seems that the query results are tied to the session within the cache. Any attempt to access the value from the cache for a second time results in a LazyInitializationException We have set lazy = true for the following mapping because this object is also used by another part of the system which does not require the reference... and we want to keep it lean. <class name="domain.ReferenceAdPoint" table="ad_point" mutable="false" lazy="false"> <cache usage="read-only"/> <id name="code" type="long" column="ad_point_id"> <generator class="assigned" /> </id> <property name="name" column="ad_point_description" type="string"/> <set name="synonyms" table="ad_point_synonym" cascade="all-delete-orphan" lazy="true"> <cache usage="read-only"/> <key column="ad_point_id" /> <element type="string" column="synonym_description" /> </set> </class> <query name="find.adpoints.by.heading">from ReferenceAdPoint adpoint left outer join fetch adpoint.synonyms where adpoint.adPointField.headingCode = ?</query> Here's a snippet from our hibernate.cfg.xml <property name="hibernate.cache.provider_class">net.sf.ehcache.hibernate.SingletonEhCacheProvider</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.use_query_cache">true</property> It doesn't seem to make sense that the cache would be constrained to the session. Why are the cached queries not usable outside of the (relatively short-lived) sessions?

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  • Why does instanceof seem to work in a static generic function sometimes?

    - by michael
    Greetings. This is my first post in this site. I thought that because of type erasure, one could not expect the following code to compile, and indeed, it did not compile on an earlier version of Eclipse. My understanding was that instanceof was a run-time operator and could not know about the generic type which would be, by run-time, compiled away: public static <E extends Comparable<? super E>> void SampleForQuestion(E e) { if ( !(e instanceof String) ) System.out.println("I am not a String"); else System.out.println("I am a String"); } However, I was surprised to see that one of your threads actually included some code like this in an answer, and my latest Eclipse (Galileo on Windows with JVM 1.6 rev 20) is perfectly happy with it -- and it works, too. (I did notice that someone said it worked on Eclipse but not in another IDE/JDK in that thread, but don't remember the specifics.) Can someone explain why it works, and more importantly, because I have to guide my students, whether it should be expected to work in the future. Thank you. (I hope the code formatting comes through correctly - it looks indented correctly from my perspective and there are no tabs.)

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  • Why is partial specialziation of a nested class template allowed, while complete isn't?

    - by drhirsch
    template<int x> struct A { template<int y> struct B {};. template<int y, int unused> struct C {}; }; template<int x> template<> struct A<x>::B<x> {}; // error: enclosing class templates are not explicitly specialized template<int x> template<int unused> struct A<x>::C<x, unused> {}; // ok So why is the explicit specialization of a inner, nested class (or function) not allowed, if the outer class isn't specialiced too? Strange enough, I can work around this behaviour if I only partially specialize the inner class with simply adding a dummy template parameter. Makes things uglier and more complex, but it works. Note: I need this feature for recursive templates of the inner class for a set of the outer class. To make things even more complicate, in reality I only need a template function instead of the inner class. But partial specialization of functions is generally disallowed somewhere else in the standard ^^

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  • Why can't I simply copy installed Perl modules to other machines?

    - by pistacchio
    Being very new to Perl but not to dynamic languages, I'm a bit surprised at how not straight forward the manage of modules is. Sure, cpan X does theoretically work, but I'm working on the same project from three different machines and OSs (at work, at home, testing in an external environment). At work (Windows 7) I have problem using cpan because of our firewall that makes ftp unusable At home (Mac OS X) it does work In the external environment (Linux CentOs) it worked after hours because I don't have root access and I had to configure cpan to operate as a non-root user I've tried on another server where I have an access. If the previous external environment is a VPS and so I have a shell access, this other one is a cheap shared hosting where I have no way to install new modules other than the ones pre-installed At the moment I still can't install Template under Windows. I've seen that as an alternative I could compile it and I've also tried ActiveState's PPM but the module is not existent there. Now, my perplexity is about Perl being a dynamic language. I've had all these kind of problems while working, for example, with C where I had to compile all the libraries for all the platform, but I thought that with Perl the approach would have been very similar to Python's or PHP's where in 90% of the cases copying the module in a directory and importing it simply works. So, my question: if Perl's modules are written in Perl, why the copy/paste approach will not work? If some (or some part) of the modules have to be compiled, how to see in CPAN if a module is Perl-only or it relies upon compiled libraries? Isn't there a way to download the module (tar, zip...) and use cpan to deploy it? This would solve my problem under Windows.

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  • Why am I returning empty records when querying in mysql with php?

    - by Brian Bolton
    I created the following script to query a table and return the first 30 results. The query returns 30 results, but they do not have any text or information. Why would this be? The table stores Vietnamese characters. The database is mysql4. Here's the page: http://saomaidanang.com/recentposts.php Here's the code: <?php header( 'Content-Type: text/html; charset=utf-8' ); //CONNECTION INFO $dbms = 'mysql'; $dbhost = 'xxxxx'; $dbname = 'xxxxxxx'; $dbuser = 'xxxxxxx'; $dbpasswd = 'xxxxxxxxxxxx'; $conn = mysql_connect($dbhost, $dbuser, $dbpasswd ) or die('Error connecting to mysql'); mysql_select_db($dbname , $conn); //QUERY $result = mysql_query("SET NAMES utf8"); $cmd = 'SELECT * FROM `phpbb_posts_text` ORDER BY `phpbb_posts_text`.`post_subject` DESC LIMIT 0, 30 '; $result = mysql_query($cmd); ?> <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN"> <html dir="ltr"> <head> <title>recent posts</title> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> </head> <body> <p> <?php //DISPLAY while ($myrow = mysql_fetch_row($result)) { echo 'post subject:'; echo(utf8_encode($myrow ['post_subject'])); echo 'post text:'; echo(utf8_encode($myrow ['post_text'])); } ?> </p> </body>

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  • Why doesn't setting clearTaskOnLaunch="true" cause OnCreate to be called?

    - by cbrauer
    My application works fine, once it is initialized in the OnCreate method of my View class. However, when I open my app after the Droid phone has been sitting idle all night, the OnCreate method is not being called. I use the OnCreate to initialize data, and that in turn initializes the GUI. The GUI clearly shows that OnCreate was not called. I tried setting clearTaskOnLaunch="true" in my Manifest. My Manifest is: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <manifest xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" package="com.hedgetools.trin" android:versionCode="2" android:versionName="1.02"> <application android:icon="@drawable/icon" android:label="@string/app_name" android:clearTaskOnLaunch="true"> <activity android:name=".Trin" android:label="@string/app_name"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER" /> </intent-filter> </activity> </application> <uses-sdk android:minSdkVersion="6" /> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.INTERNET" /> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.ACCESS_NETWORK_STATE" /> </manifest> This did not help. My OnCreate method is not being call after the Droid phone sits idle all night. Why doesn’t clearTaskOnLaunch cause OnCreate to be called? Any help or suggestions will be greatly appreciated. Charles

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  • Why should I care about RVM's Gemset feature when I use Bundler?

    - by t6d
    I just don't get it. I thought, Bundler was developed to resolve version conflicts between gems. So that I just have to require "bundler/setup" and everything is fine, knowing that Bundler will load the correct versions of all my gems and their dependencies. Now, RVM is great for managing multiple Rubies, I know, but why should I care about the Gemset feature? Do I miss something here? Can it make my development even easier? Maybe, some of you can give me some hints on the perfect RVM + Bundler workflow for both, development and production. I also don't know when RVM starts switching to another Ruby. I know that I can have an .rvmrc file in my project, but do I have to cd to this directory so that the switch happens? Furthermore, I usually use Passenger for development since, thanks to the Passenger.prefpane, integration in Mac OS is great. Can I still do that with RVM or is there a better way to do it? Does Passenger recognize .rvmrc files and switch to the correct Gemset?

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  • why does this knockout method receive a form element instead of the object its nested in?

    - by ladookie
    I have this HTML: <ul class="chat_list" data-bind="foreach: chats"> <li> <div class="chat_response" data-bind="visible: CommentList().length == 0"> <form data-bind="submit: $root.addComment"> <input class="comment_field" placeholder="Comment…" data-bind="value: NewCommentText" /> </form> </div> </li> </ul> and this JavaScript: function ChatListViewModel(chats) { // var self = this; self.chats = ko.observableArray(ko.utils.arrayMap(chats, function (chat) { return { CourseItemDescription: chat.CourseItemDescription, CommentList: ko.observableArray(chat.CommentList), CourseItemID: chat.CourseItemID, UserName: chat.UserName, ChatGroupNumber: chat.ChatGroupNumber, ChatCount: chat.ChatCount, NewCommentText: ko.observable("") }; })); self.newChatText = ko.observable(); self.addComment = function (chat) { var newComment = { CourseItemDescription: chat.NewCommentText(), ParentCourseItemID: chat.CourseItemID, CourseID: $.CourseLogic.dataitem.CourseID, AccountID: $.CourseLogic.dataitem.AccountID, SystemObjectID: $.CourseLogic.dataitem.CommentSystemObjectID, SystemObjectName: "Comments", UserName: chat.UserName }; chat.CommentList.push(newComment); chat.NewCommentText(""); }; } ko.applyBindings(new ChatListViewModel(initialData)); When I go into the debugger it shows that the chat parameter of the addComment() function is a form element instead of a chat object. Why is this happening?

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  • why does setting stderr=subprocess.STDOUT fix a subprocess.check_output call?

    - by ShankarG
    I have a python script running on a small server that is called in three different ways - from within another python script, by cron, or by gammu-smsd (an SMS daemon with the wonderful mobile utility [gammu]). The script is for maintenance and contained the following kludge to measure used space on the system (presumably this is possible from within Python, but this was quick and dirty): reportdict['Used Space'] = subprocess.check_output(["df / | tail -1 | awk '{ print $5; }'"], shell=True)[0:-1] Oddly enough this line would only fail when the script was called by a shell script running from gammu-smsd. The line would fail with a CalledProcessError exception saying "returned exit status 2", even though the output attribute of the CalledProcessError object contained the correct output. The only command in the sequence of shell commands that would give such an error status would be awk, with status 2 indicating a fatal error. If the python script with this line was called by cron, by another python script, or from the command line, this line would work fine. I broke my head trying to fix the environment for the script, thinking this must be the problem. Finally though I put in stderr=subprocess.STDOUT, like so: reportdict['Used Space'] = subprocess.check_output(["df / | tail -1 | awk '{ print $5; }'"], stderr=subprocess.STDOUT, shell=True)[0:-1] This was a debug measure to help me figure out if some output was coming on stderr. But after this the script started working, even when called from gammu-smsd! Why might this be the case? I ask for future reference when using subprocess...

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  • Why is Request not available for my PDF request?

    - by Beska
    We're trying to create a .NET aspx page that will have a PDF within it. Doing this by hardcoding it is easy. <object height="1250px" width="100%" type="application/pdf" data="our.pdf"> <param value="our.pdf" name="src" /> <param value="transparent" name="wmode" /> </object> (don't worry too much about the transparent thing...we're doing that for other reasons...but I include it here "just in case".) The problem is when we want to generate the PDF dynamically. Our code to populate the literal on the front end looks like this: ltrPDF.Text = String.Format("<object height=\"1250px\" width=\"100%\" type=\"application/pdf\" data=\"ourPdfGenerator.aspx?var0={0}&var1={1}&var2={2}\">", var0, var1, var2); ltrPDF.Text += String.Format("<param value=\"ourPdfGenerator.aspx?var0={0}&var1={1}&var2={2}\">", var0, var1, var2); ltrPDF.Text += "<param value=\"transparent\" name=\"wmode\"/>"; ltrPDF.Text += "</object>"; Kind of ugly, but it seems like it should work. But it doesn't. When I debug, and put a breakpoint on the first line of ourPdfGenerator.aspx.cs Page_Load method, I reach the breakpoint without any difficulty. However, the first thing we do is try to use Request.QueryString: string var0 = Request.QueryString["var0"]; which immediately throws an HttpException: "Request is not available in this context." I'm not clear on: Why isn't it available? What can I do about it?

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  • Getting an exception when trying to use extension method with SortedDictionary... why?

    - by Polaris878
    I'm trying to place custom objects into a sorted dictionary... I am then trying to use an extension method (Max()) on this sorted dictionary. However, I'm getting the exception: "At least one object must implement IComparable". I don't understand why I'm getting that, as my custom object obviously implements IComparable. Here is my code: public class MyDate : IComparable<MyDate> { int IComparable<MyDate>.CompareTo(MyDate obj) { if (obj != null) { if (this.Value.Ticks < obj.Value.Ticks) { return 1; } else if (this.Value.Ticks == obj.Value.Ticks) { return 0; } else { return -1; } } } public MyDate(DateTime date) { this.Value = date; } public DateTime Value; } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { SortedDictionary<MyDate, int> sd = new SortedDictionary<MyDate,int>(); sd.Add(new MyDate(new DateTime(1)), 1); sd.Add(new MyDate(new DateTime(2)), 2); Console.WriteLine(sd.Max().Value); // Throws exception!! } } What on earth am I doing wrong???

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  • Why not put all braces inline in C++/C#/Java/javascript etc.?

    - by DanM
    Of all the conventions out there for positioning braces in C++, C#, Java, etc., I don't think I've ever seen anyone try to propose something like this: public void SomeMethod(int someInput, string someOtherInput) { if (someInput > 5) { var addedNumber = someInput + 5; var subtractedNumber = someInput - 5; } else { var addedNumber = someInput + 10; var subtractedNumber = someInput; } } public void SomeOtherMethod(int someInput, string someOtherInput( { ... } But why not? I'm sure it would take some getting used to, but I personally don't have any difficulty following what's going on here. I believe indentation is the dominant factor in being able to see how code is organized into blocks and sub-blocks. Braces are just visual noise to me. They are these ugly things that take up lines where I don't want them. Maybe I just feel that way because I was weened on basic (and later VB), but I just don't like braces taking up lines. If I want a gap between blocks, I can always add an empty line, but I don't like being forced to have gaps simply because the convention says the closing brace needs to be on its own line. I made this a community wiki because I realize this is not a question with a defined answer. I'm just curious what people think. I know that no one does this currently (at least, not that I've seen), and I know that the auto-formatter in my IDE doesn't support it, but are there are any other solid reasons not to format code this way, assuming you are working with a modern IDE that color codes and auto-indents? Are there scenarios where it will become a readability nightmare? Better yet, are you aware of any research on this?

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  • Why don't copy this dokument attributes from the source xml file??

    - by siegfried storr
    Hi anyone, i'm working the first time with xslt and i really don't understand why this xsl don't copy attributes from the source xml. Perhaps someone can give me a hint?? <xsl:stylesheet version="2.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform"> <xsl:output omit-xml-declaration="yes" indent="yes"/> <xsl:variable name="rpl" select="document('ParamInvoice.xml')"/> <xsl:template match="/"> <xsl:copy> <xsl:apply-templates select="* | @*"/> </xsl:copy> </xsl:template> <xsl:template match="*"> <xsl:variable name="vInvoiceElement" select="$rpl/StoraInvoice/*[name()=name(current())]"/> <xsl:copy> <xsl:if test="$vInvoiceElement/Attribute"> <xsl:call-template name="AttributeErzeugen"> <xsl:with-param name="pAttr" select="$vInvoiceElement/Attribute"/> </xsl:call-template> </xsl:if> <xsl:apply-templates/> </xsl:copy> </xsl:template> <xsl:template name="AttributeErzeugen"> <xsl:param name="pAttr"/> <xsl:for-each select="$pAttr"> <xsl:attribute name="{@name}"><xsl:value-of select="."/></xsl:attribute> </xsl:for-each> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet>

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  • Why does the entity framework need an ICollection for lazy loading?

    - by Akk
    I want to write a rich domain class such as public class Product { public IEnumerable<Photo> Photos {get; private set;} public void AddPhoto(){...} public void RemovePhoto(){...} } But the entity framework (V4 code first approach) requires an ICollection type for lazy loading! The above code no longer works as designed since clients can bypass the AddPhoto / RemovePhoto method and directly call the add method on ICollection. This is not good. public class Product { public ICollection<Photo> Photos {get; private set;} //Bad public void AddPhoto(){...} public void RemovePhoto(){...} } It's getting really frustrating trying to implement DDD with the EF4. Why did they choose the ICollection for lazy loading? How can i overcome this? Does NHibernate offer me a better DDD experience?

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  • Why am I getting "Message sent to deallocated instance" in Objective-C?

    - by Dave C
    I have several buttons on my app that are being created dynamically. They are all pointed at the button click event when pressed. When the button pressed method is called, the sender's tag (int value) is parsed into the controller's house ID. It works with one of the buttons — the first one created, to be specific — but the others throw the following error: -[CFNumber intValue]: message sent to deallocated instance 0xc4bb0ff0 I am not releasing these buttons anywhere in my code. I haven't set them to autorelease or anything like that. I'm just wondering why they are doing this on the click. The button click event: - (IBAction) ButtonClick: (id) sender { HouseholdViewController *controller = [[HouseholdViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"HouseholdViewController" bundle:nil]; controller.delegate = self; controller.HouseID = [(NSInteger)[(UIButton *)sender tag] intValue]; //this line throws an error controller.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleFlipHorizontal; [self presentModalViewController:controller animated:YES]; [controller release]; } Where I am creating the buttons: UIButton *button = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeCustom]; button.frame = CGRectMake(MyLongInScreenCoords, MyLatInScreenCoords, 50, 50); UIImage *buttonImageNormal = [UIImage imageNamed:@"blue_pin.png"]; UIImage *strechableButtonImageNormal = [buttonImageNormal stretchableImageWithLeftCapWidth:50 topCapHeight:50]; [button setBackgroundImage:strechableButtonImageNormal forState:UIControlStateNormal]; [self.view addSubview:button]; button.tag = [NSNumber numberWithInt:[[words objectAtIndex: i] intValue]]; ButtonPoints[CurrentHouseCount][0] = button; ButtonPoints[CurrentHouseCount][1] = [NSValue valueWithCGPoint:CGPointMake(MyActualLat, MyActualLong)]; [button addTarget:self action:@selector(ButtonClick:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; CurrentHouseCount++;

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  • Why does my Google maps api v3 and side panel not fill my page upon resizing?

    - by Gavin
    I'm developing a web page and I have a side panel on the left with a search bar and a Google maps api v3 filling the rest of the page to the right. When I make the browser very small vertically, there is a white space between the side panel and the map, and the bottom of the browser. However, the text continues to the bottom of the browser. It looks like: Here's my css code: <style type="text/css"> body {margin:0;} #panel {height:100%; width:300px; position:absolute; padding:0;background-color:#8C95A0;} #header {padding:2px; text-align:center} #address_instruction {position:relative; top:7%; padding:2px; text-align:center} #geocoder {position:relative; top:8%; padding:2px; text-align:center} #toggle_instruction {position:relative; top:22%; padding:2px; text-align:center} #layers {position:relative; top:25%; padding:2px; text-align:center} #layer0 {padding:2px; text-align:center} #layer1 {padding:2px; text-align:center} #layer2 {padding:2px; text-align:center} #link {top:50%; position:relative; padding:2px; text-align:center} #map_canvas {height:100%; left:300px; right:0px; position:absolute; padding:0;} </style> The IDs within #panel refer to the items on the left hand side in the panel. Why don't the side panel background color and map extend to the bottom of the browser?

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  • Why are my connections not closed even if I explicitly dispose of the DataContext?

    - by Chris Simpson
    I encapsulate my linq to sql calls in a repository class which is instantiated in the constructor of my overloaded controller. The constructor of my repository class creates the data context so that for the life of the page load, only one data context is used. In my destructor of the repository class I explicitly call the dispose of the DataContext though I do not believe this is necessary. Using performance monitor, if I watch my User Connections count and repeatedly load a page, the number increases once per page load. Connections do not get closed or reused (for about 20 minutes). I tried putting Pooling=false in my config to see if this had any effect but it did not. In any case with pooling I wouldn't expect a new connection for every load, I would expect it to reuse connections. I've tried putting a break point in the destructor to make sure the dispose is being hit and sure enough it is. So what's happening? Some code to illustrate what I said above: The controller: public class MyController : Controller { protected MyRepository rep; public MyController () { rep = new MyRepository(); } } The repository: public class MyRepository { protected MyDataContext dc; public MyRepository() { dc = getDC(); } ~MyRepository() { if (dc != null) { //if (dc.Connection.State != System.Data.ConnectionState.Closed) //{ // dc.Connection.Close(); //} dc.Dispose(); } } // etc } Note: I add a number of hints and context information to the DC for auditing purposes. This is essentially why I want one connection per page load

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  • Why have or haven't you moved to ASP.NET MVC yet?

    - by Jason
    I find myself on the edge of trying out ASP.NET MVC but there is still "something" holding me back. Are you still waiting to try it, and if so, why? If you finally decided to use it, what helped you get over your hesitation? I'm not worried about it from a technical point of view; I know the pros and cons of web forms vs MVC. My concerns are more on the practical side. Will Microsoft continue to support ASP.NET MVC if they don't reach some critical threshold of developers/customers using it? Are customers willing to try ASP.NET MVC? Have you had to convince a customer to use it? How did that go? Are there major sites using ASP.NET MVC (besides SO)? Could you provide links if you have them? Did you try ASP.NET MVC and found yourself regretting it? If so, what do you regret? If you have any other concerns preventing you from using MVC.NET, what are they? If you had concerns but felt they were addressed and now use MVC.NET, could you list them as well? Thanks

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  • Why do I get a Illegal Access Error when running my Android tests?

    - by Janusz
    I get the following stack trace when running my Android tests on the Emulator: java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: client.HttpHelper at client.Helper.<init>(Helper.java:14) at test.Tests.setUp(Tests.java:15) at android.test.AndroidTestRunner.runTest(AndroidTestRunner.java:164) at android.test.AndroidTestRunner.runTest(AndroidTestRunner.java:151) at android.test.InstrumentationTestRunner.onStart(InstrumentationTestRunner.java:425) at android.app.Instrumentation$InstrumentationThread.run(Instrumentation.java:1520) Caused by: java.lang.IllegalAccessError: cross-loader access from pre-verified class at dalvik.system.DexFile.defineClass(Native Method) at dalvik.system.DexFile.loadClass(DexFile.java:193) at dalvik.system.PathClassLoader.findClass(PathClassLoader.java:203) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:573) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:532) ... 11 more I run my tests from an extra project. And it seems there are some problems with loading the classes from the other project. I have run the tests before but now they are failing. The project under tests runs without problems. Line 14 of the Helper Class is: this.httpHelper = new HttpHelper(userProfile); I start a HttpHelper class that is responsible for executing httpqueries. I think somehow this helper class is not available anymore, but I have no clue why.

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  • Why is this Javascript that writes out a Google Ad not displaying properly on the iPhone?

    - by Dave M G
    I have this Javacsript code that checks to see if there is a DIV named "google-ad", and if there is, it writes in a the necessary code to display the Google Ad. This works great in browsers like Firefox, Chrome, Safari on Mac, and Android. However, when I bundle this code with Adobe's Phonegap Build, and deploy it to iPhones, it behaves strangely. It launches a browser window displaying just the Google Ad alone. In order to keep using my app, every time I change a page and a new Google Ad is loaded, I have to close the browser window to get back to the app. Why is this code launching browser windows outside of my Phonegap app on iPhone? if(document.getElementById("google-ad") && document.getElementById("google-ad") !== null && document.getElementById("google-ad") !== "undefined") { if(userStatus.status == 0) { document.getElementById("centre").style.padding = "137px 0 12px 0"; document.getElementById("header-container").style.margin = "-138px 0 0 0"; document.getElementById("header-container").style.height = "132px"; document.getElementById("header-username").style.top = "52px"; document.getElementById("google-ad").style.height = "50px"; document.getElementById("google-ad").style.width = "320px"; document.getElementById("google-ad").style.backgroundColor = "#f0ebff"; document.getElementById("google-ad").style.display = "block"; window["google_ad_client"] = 'ca-pub-0000000000000000'; window["google_ad_slot"] = "00000000"; window["google_ad_width"] = 320; window["google_ad_height"] = 50; window.adcontainer = document.getElementById('google-ad'); window.adhtml = ''; function mywrite(html) { adhtml += html; adcontainer.innerHTML = adhtml; }; document.write_ = document.write; document.write = mywrite; script = document.createElement('script'); script.src='http://pagead2.googlesyndication.com/pagead/show_ads.js'; script.type='text/javascript'; document.body.appendChild(script); }

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  • Why do hoverClass and activeClass properties won't work together ?

    - by Dumb Questioner
    Why do hoverClass and activeClass properties not work together in the following example ? <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://jqueryui.com/latest/jquery-1.4.2.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://jquery-ui.googlecode.com/svn/tags/1.8rc1/ui/jquery-ui.js"></script> <style type="text/css"> .draggable {width:100px; height:100px; padding-bottom:5px; background-color:#dddddd;} #dropBox {width:556px; height:400px; } .sameStylePrecedenceAsDropHoverAndActive {background-color:#ff4490;} .drop-hover {background-color: #ff8040; } .drop-active {background-color: #ffffff; } </style> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('.draggable').draggable({ helper: 'clone' }); $('#dropBox').droppable({ accept: '.draggable', activeClass: 'drop-active', hoverClass: 'drop-hover', drop: function(event, ui) { alert("Dropped!"); } }); }); </script> </head> <body> <div id="dropBox" class="sameStylePrecedenceAsDropHoverAndActive"></div> <div class="draggable">asd</div> </body> </html>

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  • Why is TRest in Tuple<T1... TRest> not constrained?

    - by Anthony Pegram
    In a Tuple, if you have more than 7 items, you can provide an 8th item that is another tuple and define up to 7 items, and then another tuple as the 8th and on and on down the line. However, there is no constraint on the 8th item at compile time. For example, this is legal code for the compiler: var tuple = new Tuple<int, int, int, int, int, int, int, double> (1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1d); Even though the intellisense documentation says that TRest must be a Tuple. You do not get any error when writing or building the code, it does not manifest until runtime in the form of an ArgumentException. You can roughly implement a Tuple in a few minutes, complete with a Tuple-constrained 8th item. I just wonder why it was left off the current implementation? Is it possibly a forward-compatibility issue where they could add more elements with a hypothetical C# 5? Short version of rough implementation interface IMyTuple { } class MyTuple<T1> : IMyTuple { public T1 Item1 { get; private set; } public MyTuple(T1 item1) { Item1 = item1; } } class MyTuple<T1, T2> : MyTuple<T1> { public T2 Item2 { get; private set; } public MyTuple(T1 item1, T2 item2) : base(item1) { Item2 = item2; } } class MyTuple<T1, T2, TRest> : MyTuple<T1, T2> where TRest : IMyTuple { public TRest Rest { get; private set; } public MyTuple(T1 item1, T2 item2, TRest rest) : base(item1, item2) { Rest = rest; } } ... var mytuple = new MyTuple<int, int, MyTuple<int>>(1, 1, new MyTuple<int>(1)); // legal var mytuple2 = new MyTuple<int, int, int>(1, 2, 3); // illegal

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  • Why doesn't the Java Collections API include a Graph implementation?

    - by dvanaria
    I’m currently learning the Java Collections API and feel I have a good understanding of the basics, but I’ve never understood why this standard API doesn’t include a Graph implementation. The three base classes are easily understandable (List, Set, and Map) and all their implementations in the API are mostly straightforward and consistent. Considering how often graphs come up as a potential way to model a given problem, this just doesn’t make sense to me (it’s possible it does exist in the API and I’m not looking in the right place of course). Steve Yegge suggests in one of his blog posts that a programmer should consider graphs first when attacking a problem, and if the problem domain doesn’t fit naturally into this data structure, only then consider the alternative structures. My first guess is that there is no universal way to represent graphs, or that their interfaces may not be generic enough for an API implementation to be useful? But if you strip down a graph to its basic components (vertices and a set of edges that connect some or all of the vertices) and consider the ways that graphs are commonly constructed (methods like addVertex(v) and insertEdge(v1, v2)) it seems that a generic Graph implementation would be possible and useful. Thanks for helping me understand this better.

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  • Why adding custom objects to List<T> in ApplicationSettingsBase via constructor doesn't work?

    - by BadNinja
    This is pretty closely related to another SO question. Using the example below, could someone explain to me why adding a new List<Foo> where each of Foo's properties are explicitly set causes the ApplicationSettingsBase.Save() method to correctly store the data, whereas adding a new Foo to the list via a constructor (where the constructor sets the property values) does not work? Thanks! public class Foo { public Foo(string blah, string doh) { this.Blah = blah; this.Doh = doh; } public Foo() { } public string Blah { get; set; } public string Doh { get; set; } } public sealed class MySettings : ApplicationSettingsBase { [UserScopedSetting] public List<Foo> MyFoos { get { return (List<Foo>)this["MyFoos"]; } set { this["MyFoos"] = value; } } } // Here's the question... private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { MySettings mySettings = new MySettings(); // Adding new Foo's to the list like this doesn't work. List<Foo> theList = new List<Foo>() { new Foo("doesn't","work") }; // But doing it like this DOES work. List<Foo> theList = new List<Foo>() { new Foo() {Blah = "DOES", Doh = "work"} }; mySettings.MyFoos = theList; mySettings.Save(); }

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  • why do we need advanced knowledge of mathematics & physics for programming?

    - by Sumeet
    Guys, I have been very good in mathematics and physics in my schools and colleges. Right now I am a programmer. Even in the colleges I have to engrossed my self into computers and programming things all the time. As I used to like it very much. But I have always felt the lack of advanced mathematics and physics in all the work I have done (Programs). Programming never asked me any advanced mathematics and physics knowledge in what I was very good. It always ask u some optimized loops, and different programming technologies which has never been covered in advanced mathematics and physics. Even at the time of selection in big College , such a kind of advanced knowledge is required. Time by time I got out of touch of all that facts and concepts (advanced mathematics and physics). And now after, 5 years in job I found it hard to resolve Differentiations and integrations from Trigonometry. Which sometimes make me feel like I have wasted time in those concepts because they are never used. (At that time I knew that I am going to be a programmer) If one need to be a programmer why do all this advanced knowledge is required. One can go with elementry knowledge a bit more. You never got to think like scientists and R&D person in your Schols and colleges for being a programmer? Just think and let me know your thoughts. I must be wrong somewhere in what I think , but not able to figure that out..? Regards Sumeet

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