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  • How to get the Facebook iFrame Tab url (including parameters) from within the app?

    - by martincarlin87
    I think there are a few similar questions that seem to suggest using app_data in the signed request (http://developers.facebook.com/docs/authentication/signed_request/) but I'm not sure if it will be possible to do what I am trying to achieve with it as I've never used it before. If I have my Facebook 'Tab' Url as follows: http://www.facebook.com/pages/PAGE_TITLE/PAGE_ID?sk=app_APP_ID What I want to do is add an extra parameter on the end as follows: &WT.mc_id=email-uk-8014 The reason for this is for tracking purposes and links will be sent out of the form http://www.facebook.com/pages/PAGE_TITLE/PAGE_ID?sk=app_APP_ID&WT.mc_id=email-uk-8014 and the extra parameter will allow us to track the campaign id. As you can see I have no way of knowing the value of the parameter beforehand as it depends on the link clicked by the user so is it possible to somehow get the value of the WT.mc_id parameter inside my iframe app?

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  • Desktop application validity

    - by Umesh
    I am creating a desktop application using AIR. In that application user is allowed to download some resources which have life span of 2 days. I am storing the date when the user is downloaded. But how can i check whether the date is passed 2 days or not? Right now I am checking with the current system date.But when the user changes the system date to back, it will start to work which i dont want. How the desktop applications say like flex builder and all having trial period.? How are they tracking the dates remaining? ~Umesh

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  • Spoof referrer to Google Analytics?

    - by Horace Loeb
    Whenever a user visits "Page A" on my site, I immediately redirect him to "Page B" by setting window.location with Javascript. "Page A" has no Google Analytics tracking on it -- when someone is redirected from "Page A" to "Page B" I want to track him as if he entered the site via "Page B". Unfortunately, my current setup breaks referrer information since people who are redirected to "Page B" appear to Google Analytics as if they came from "Page A": After users are redirected to "Page B", I want to tell Google Analytics their "real" referrer (i.e., the referrer to "Page A"). How can I do this? (Note: I realize that using a real HTTP redirect instead of a Javascript-based redirect would solve this problem. Unfortunately this isn't an option)

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  • Retrieve OpenId FullName from Google

    - by user294711
    I'm using DotNetOpenAuth lib to work with Google(only) OpenId. And I'm retrieving Email without any problem. But I can't get FullName, it is always null. request.AddExtension(new ClaimsRequest { Email = DemandLevel.Require, FullName = DemandLevel.Require }); ClaimsResponse claimsResponse = relyingPartyResponse.GetExtension<ClaimsResponse>(); if (claimsResponse != null) { var email = claimsResponse.Email; var fullName = claimsResponse.FullName; } I googled this problem and found that: Glad you got it working. Google will not give a full name or nickname for their users. They ONLY give email address, and (I think, but perhaps only on a white list) the timezone. It's not a matter of figuring out how to rig your RP so that it works. Google just won't do it yet. – Andrew Arnott Sep 8 at 14:22 stackoverflow.com/questions/1387438/retrieve-openid-user-information-claims-across-providers But it was in Sep 2009, maybe something was changed from that moment... I've found that in http://code.google.com/apis/accounts/docs/OpenID.html: openid.ax.required -- (required) Specifies the attribute being requested. Valid values include: "country", "email", "firstname", "language", "lastname". To request multiple attributes, set this parameter to a comma-delimited list of attributes. So, my question is how can I get FullName (FirstName, LastName) from Google OpenId?

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  • Multiple Concurrent Postbacks when using UpdatePanels

    - by d4nt
    Here's an example app that I built to demonstrate my problem. A single aspx page with the following on it: <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:ScriptManager runat="server" /> <asp:Button runat="server" ID="btnGo" Text="Go" OnClick="btnGo_Click" /> <asp:UpdatePanel runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:TextBox runat="server" ID="txtVal1" /> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> </form> Then, in code behind, we have the following: protected void btnGo_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Thread.Sleep(5000); Debug.WriteLine(string.Format("{0}: {1}", DateTime.Now.ToString("HH:MM:ss.fffffff"), txtVal1.Text)); txtVal1.Text = ""; } If you run this and click on the "Go" button multiple times you will see multiple debug statements on the "Output" window showing that multiple requests have been processed. This appears to contradict the documented behaviour of update panels (i.e. If you make a request while one is processing, the first requests gets terminated and the current one is processed). Anyway, the point is I want to fix it. The obvious option would be to use Javascript to disable the button after the first press, but that strikes me as hard to maintain, we potentially have the same issue on a lot of screens it could be easily broken if someone renames a button. Do you have any suggestions? Perhaps there is something I could do in BeginRequest in Global.asax to detect a duplicate request? Is there some setting or feature on the UpdatePanel to stop it doing this, or maybe something in the AjaxControlToolkit that will prevent it?

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  • POST a form in an iframe.

    - by Stavros Korokithakis
    I would like to POST a form in an iframe, generated like so: My JS loads an iframe inside the page, adds a form to the iframe and submits the form. What I would like to happen is the iframe to load the result of that request. So, I would effectively like to post a form and render the result inside the iframe, without touching the parent (apart from putting the iframe up for display in the first place). I am using the code from this answer: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/133925/javascript-post-request-like-a-form-submit/134003#134003 but I can't get it to not reload the parent. I post the form, and instead of the iframe refreshing, the entire parent refreshes. I don't know why that is, since the url it's posting to is different and would at least redirect there. Can anyone help me with this problem? I just want a post inside an iframe and only within the iframe, basically. EDIT: After some more research, apparently the form is not being created properly. I'm using document.createElement("form") and then document.getElementById("my_iframe_id").appendChild(form) to append it, but it does not seem to be working correctly.

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  • Dynamically generate client-side HTML form control using JavaScript and server-side Python code in Google App Engine

    - by gisc
    I have the following client-side front-end HTML using Jinja2 template engine: {% for record in result %} <textarea name="remark">{{ record.remark }}</textarea> <input type="submit" name="approve" value="Approve" /> {% endfor %} Thus the HTML may show more than 1 set of textarea and submit button. The back-end Python code retrieves a variable number of records from a gql query using the model, and pass this to the Jinja2 template in result. When a submit button is clicked, it triggers the post method to update the record: def post(self): if self.request.get('approve'): updated_remark = self.request.get('remark') record.remark = db.Text(updated_remark) record.put() However, in some instances, the record updated is NOT the one that correspond to the submit button clicked (eg if a user clicks on record 1 submit, record 2 remark gets updated, but not record 1). I gather that this is due to the duplicate attribute name remark. I can possibly use JavaScript/jQuery to generate different attribute names. The question is, how do I code the back-end Python to get the (variable number of) names generated by the JavaScript? Thanks.

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  • Crystal Report with Error : A number range is required here.

    - by gofor.net
    Hi Everyone, I am using the crystal report, in that i am using code like below to show the SQL data into the crystal report, string req = "{View_EODPumpTest.ROId} IN " + str + " AND " + "({View_EODPumpTest.RecordCreatedDate}>=date(" + fromDate.Year + " , " + fromDate.Month + " , " + fromDate.Day + ")" + "AND" + "{View_EODPumpTest.RecordCreatedDate}<=date(" + toDate.Year + " , " + toDate.Month + " ," + toDate.Day + " ))"; ReportDocument rep = new ReportDocument(); rep.Load(Server.MapPath("PumpTestReport.rpt")); DateTime fromDate = DateTime.Parse(Request.QueryString["fDate"].ToString()); DateTime toDate = DateTime.Parse(Request.QueryString["tDate"].ToString()); CrystalReportViewer_PumpTest.ReportSource = rep; //CrystalReportViewer1.SelectionFormula = str; rep.RecordSelectionFormula = str; CrystalDecisions.CrystalReports.Engine.TextObject from = ((CrystalDecisions.CrystalReports.Engine.TextObject)rep.ReportDefinition.ReportObjects["txtFrom"]); from.Text = fromDate.ToShortDateString(); CrystalDecisions.CrystalReports.Engine.TextObject to = ((CrystalDecisions.CrystalReports.Engine.TextObject)rep.ReportDefinition.ReportObjects["txtTO"]); to.Text = toDate.ToShortDateString(); //Session["Repo"] = rep; CrystalReportViewer_PumpTest.RefreshReport(); after running my application it executes fine with no exception but such error i am getting, A number range is required here. Error in File C:\DOCUME~1\Delmon\LOCALS~1\Temp\PumpTestReport {14E557A7-51B3-4791-9C78-B6FBAFFBD87C}.rpt: Error in formula . '{View_EODPumpTest.ROId} IN ['15739410','13465410'] AND ({View_EODPumpTest.RecordCreatedDate}>=date(2010 , 12 , 1)AND{View_EODPumpTest.RecordCreatedDate}<=date(2010 , 12 ,25 ))' A number range is required here. error. what i will do for this? Please help, Thanks in advance

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  • C Nested Structure Pointer Problem

    - by Halo
    I have a shared structure, and inside it a request structure: struct shared_data { pthread_mutex_t th_mutex_queue; struct request_queue { int min; int max; char d_name[DIR_SIZE]; pid_t pid; int t_index; } request_queue[BUFSIZE]; int count; int data_buffer_allocation[BUFSIZE]; int data_buffers[BUFSIZE][100]; }; Then I prepare a request; struct shared_data *sdata_ptr; ... ... sdata_ptr->request_queue[index].pid = pid; strcpy(sdata_ptr->request_queue[index].d_name, dir_path_name); sdata_ptr->request_queue[index].min = min; sdata_ptr->request_queue[index].max = max; And the compiler warns me that I'm doing an incompatible implicit declaration in the strcpy function. I guess that's a problem with the pointers, but isn't what I wrote above supposed to be true?

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  • Sending JSON to a server

    - by SK9
    I'm running the following Java, an HttpURLConnection PUT request with JSON data that will be sent from an Android device. I'll handle any raised exceptions after this is working. Authenticator.setDefault(new Authenticator() { protected PasswordAuthentication getPasswordAuthentication() { return new PasswordAuthentication(nameString, pwdString.toCharArray()); } }); url = new URL(myURLString); HttpURLConnection urlConnection = (HttpURLConnection) url.openConnection(); urlConnection.setDoOutput(true); urlConnection.setChunkedStreamingMode(0); urlConnection.setRequestMethod("PUT"); urlConnection.setRequestProperty("Content-Type", "application/json"); OutputStream output = null; try { output = urlConnection.getOutputStream(); output.write(jsonArray.toString().getBytes()); } finally { if (output != null) { output.close(); } } int status = ((HttpURLConnection) urlConnection).getResponseCode(); System.out.println("" + status); urlConnection.disconnect(); I'm receiving an HTTP 500 error (internal error code), that an unexpected property is blocking the request. The JSONArray comprises JSONObjects whose keys I know are correct. The server is pretty standard, and expects HTTP PUTs with JSON bodies. Am I missing something glaring? Thanking you kindly in advance.

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  • How to send parameters with same encoding from javascript?

    - by nimcap
    I have a javascript file that lots of people have embedded to their pages. Since I am hosting the file, I have control over that javascript file; I cannot control the way it is embedded because lots of people is using it already. This javascript file sends GET requests to my servlets, and the parameters passed with the request are recorded to DB. For example, javascript sends a request to http://myserver.com/servlet?p1=123&p2=aString and then servlet records 123 and aString to DB somehow. Before sending strings I use encodeURIComponent() to encode it. But what I figured out is every client sends the same string with different encodings depending on either their browser or the site they are visiting. As a result, same strings are represented with different characters when it reaches servlet (so they are different strings). What I am trying to do is to convert the strings to one kind of encoding from javascript so when they reach the client same words are represented with same characters. How is this possible? PS. If there is a way to convert the encoding from Java it is also applicable.

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  • Using Omniture ActionSource with Flash IDE

    - by Alpinista
    I have a flash app built in ActionScript 3 utilizing a document class. I have followed the documentation for implementing Omniture ActionSource tracking by adding the ActionSource component to my fla's library, and then importing it into the document class and running the configuration code. However, the app fails to compile because it cannot resolve the path to the component (com.omniture.ActionSource). My class path contains a com directory (package) where most of the classes I use in my projects reside. Has anyone had success implementing ActionSource in this manner? Thanks

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  • Django/jQuery - read file and pass to browser as file download prompt

    - by danspants
    I've previously asked a question regarding passing files to the browser so a user receives a download prompt. However these files were really just strings creatd at the end of a function and it was simple to pass them to an iframe's src attribute for the desired effect. Now I have a more ambitious requirement, I need to pass pre existing files of any format to the browser. I have attempted this using the following code: def return_file(request): try: bob=open(urllib.unquote(request.POST["file"]),"rb") response=HttpResponse(content=bob,mimetype="application/x-unknown") response["Content-Disposition"] = "attachment; filename=nothing.xls" return HttpResponse(response) except: return HttpResponse(sys.exc_info()) With my original setup the following jQuery was sufficient to give the desired download prompt: jQuery('#download').attr("src","/return_file/"); However this won't work anymore as I need to pass POST values to the function. my attempt to rectify that is below, but instead of a download prompt I get the file displayed as text. jQuery.get("/return_file/",{"file":"c:/filename.xls"},function(data) { jQuery(thisButton).children("iframe").attr("src",data); }); Any ideas as to where I'm going wrong? Thanks!

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  • Assign click event to addon icon on navigation bar

    - by Charsee
    We have created a chrome extension for our app. Where we call a METHOD from a "js file" on CLICK event of the "extension icon" placed on the navigation bar. For this we use message passing between the app.js (file containing the METHOD to be called on icon click) and background.html (using a js file included in this html). The script used to pass message is:(from background.html) chrome.browserAction.onClicked.addListener(function (tab) { chrome.tabs.sendMessage(tab.id, "showPopup"); }); and to listen the message :(in app.js) chrome.extension.onMessage.addListener(function(request) { if (request === "showPopup") { showPopup(); } }); The click event works as expected. But now we want to do same thing in mozilla extension. and we can't pass message to app.js on the click of the icon,so that it can execute the containing methods. We have also added the app.js using pageMod, something like this exports.main = function(options, callbacks) { pageMod.PageMod({ include: ["*"], contentScriptWhen: 'start', contentScriptFile: [data.url('jquery-1.7.1.min.js'),data.url('app.js')] }); createAndAddNavBarButton(); }; function createAndAddNavBarButton() { var navBar = document.getElementById('nav-bar');//assume document has been defined if (!navBar){return;}; var nbBtn = document.createElement('navbaricon'); nbBtn.setAttribute('id', 'navButton'); nbBtn.setAttribute('image', data.url('icon_16.png')); nbBtn.onclick = function(){ showPopup(); return true; } navBar.appendChild(btn); } But the click event does nothing and showPopup() is undefined. When a new page loads event associated with it in the app.js executes without any error but the click event doesn't work. Is there a method from where we can assign click event directly to this icon, as we have done in the case of chrome extension.

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  • Prevent comment form re-submission

    - by Rob
    I'm got a comment form for an article and i'd to prevent re-submission. I notice that Worpdress handles this very well (going back doesn't cause the browser to request a form re-submission), but I can't figure out how they do it, even though our methods are very similar. My Script User visits mydomain.com/article/1/article_title.html Fills in a form which posts to mydomain.com/addnewcomment/1.html I then do a 302 redirect back to mydomain.com/article/1/article_title.html Now if I press back from this position it doesn't request a redirect. However, if I go to another page e.g. mydomain.com/tag/1/my_tag.html and press back it does resubmit the form. Obviously I want to prevent this. What Wordpress does User visits mydomain.com/?p=1 Fills in a form which posts to mydomain.com/wp-comments-post.php This then does a 302 redirect back to mydomain.com/?p=1 Pressing back or visiting another page and pressing back doesn't cause a re-submission. I've had a look through the WP code but I can't see how they manage this. Obviously it's something i'd like to achieve. Does anyone have any thoughts on where I may be going wrong? (I'm only using Wordpress as an example to prove that it's possible, obviously i'm not trying to exactly duplicate WP, that would be pointless)

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  • Why does my Perl CGI script cause a 500 internal server error?

    - by Nitish
    I get a 500 internal server error when I try to run the code below in a web server which supports perl: #! /usr/bin/perl use LWP; my $ua = LWP::UserAgent->new; $ua->agent("TestApp/0.1 "); $ua->env_proxy(); my $req = HTTP::Request->new(POST => 'http://www.google.com/loc/json'); $req->content_type('application/jsonrequest'); $req->content('{ "cell_towers": [{"location_area_code": "55000", "mobile_network_code": "95", "cell_id": "20491", "mobile_country_code": "404"}], "version": "1.1.0", "request_address": "true"}'); my $res = $ua->request($req); if ($res->is_success) { print $res->content,"\n"; } else { print $res->status_line, "\n"; return undef; } But there is no error when I run the code below: #! /usr/bin/perl use CGI::Carp qw(fatalsToBrowser); print "Content-type: text/html\n\n"; print "<HTML>\n"; print "<HEAD><TITLE>Hello World!</TITLE></HEAD>\n"; print "<BODY>\n"; print "<H2>Hello World!</H2> <br /> \n"; foreach $key (sort keys(%ENV)) { print "$key = $ENV{$key}<p>" ; } print "</BODY>\n"; print "</HTML>\n"; So I think there is some problem with my code. When I run the first perl script in my local machine with the -wc command, it says that the syntax is OK. Help me please.

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  • MS CRM 4.0 Remove inactive account from another list

    - by Ekaterina
    Hi, I have the following problem, on which I can't seem to find an answer... I have a CRM 4.0 system and I want to achieve the following: When I have a contact/account that's inactive to remove it from another list, for example the Marketing list. So I already have everything, up to the removing part. I have a collection with the inactive accounts/contacts (The ID's(GUID)), I just need to remove somehow the member from the list. So there is a class RemoveMemberListRequest which looks like the correct one, the only problem is, somehow I can't get it to work. foreach (Guid currentMember in inactiveMembers) { RemoveMemberListRequest req = new RemoveMemberListRequest(); req.ListId = context.PrimaryEntityId; req.EntityId = currentMember ; RemoveMemberListResponse rmlResp = (RemoveMemberListResponse)crmService.Execute(req); } When It tries to Execute, the request it fails, with very generic error, that it was unable to execute the request. I am also not sure if that's the correct way of doing it... There is another class that seems to have a property that might be useful: QualifyMemberListRequest With property: OverrideorRemove But I don't really understand how this one works, and I couldn't find enough information. Anybody?

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  • jquery-ui autocomplete with ASP MVC suggestions not displaying

    - by adamnickerson
    I have been trying to get a simple example of the jquery-ui autocomplete to work. I have a controller setup to handle the query, and it returns the json that looks to be in order, but I am getting no suggestions showing up. Here are the js libraries I am including: <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript" src="/Scripts/jquery-1.4.1.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript" src="/Scripts/jquery-ui-1.8.1.custom.min.js"></script> <link href="/Content/jquery-ui-1.8.1.custom.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> and here is the javascript and the form tags: <script type="text/javascript"> $(function () { $("#organization").autocomplete({ source: function (request, response) { $.ajax({ url: '/Organization/OrganizationLookup', dataType: "json", data: { limit: 12, q: request.term } }) }, minLength: 2 }); }); </script> <div class="ui-widget"> <label for="organization">Organization: </label> <input id="organization" /> </div> I get back a json response that looks reasonable from my controller: [{"id":"Sector A","value":"Sector A"},{"id":"Sector B","value":"Sector B"},{"id":"Sector C","value":"Sector C"}] id and value seem to be the default naming that autocomplete is looking for. But I get no joy at all. Any thoughts?

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  • Long-held TCP sessions in an ASMX client

    - by John
    Hi, I have an ASP.NET application which talks to a third-party SOAP web service. My application uses an ASMX client proxy (i.e. System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol). The third-party service uses WCF, although I don't expect that makes much difference. I should note that we're using .NET 3.5 SP1. We haven't customised the proxy or done anything unusual - we're just making standard web service requests and getting back the results. We have encapsulated the proxy reference within a using block so it will get disposed after the response is received. We've been told that our application is behaving strangely in its use of TCP sessions. Instead of opening a new TCP session for each request from a new proxy instance (which is what I would have expected it to do), it's apparently keeping several connections alive and re-using them. This is causing some issues at the third party end, as they are expecting us to be using multiple sessions. Is this a known behaviour for the SoapHttpClientProtocol client proxy? If so, is there any way we can override it so that each request results in a new TCP session? Thanks, John

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  • Special technology needed for browser based chat?

    - by orokusaki
    On this post, I read about the usage of XMPP. Is this sort of thing necessary, and more importantly, my main question expanded: Can a chat server and client be built efficiently using only standard HTTP and browser technologies (such as PHP and JS, or RoR and JS, etc)? Or, is it best to stick with old protocols like XMPP find a way to integrate them with my application? I looked into CampFire via LiveHTTPHeaders and Firebug for about 5 minutes, and it appears to use Ajax to send a request which is never answered until another chat happens. Is this just CampFire opening a new thread on the server to listen for an update and then returning a response to the request when the thread hears an update? I noticed that they're requesting on a specific port (8043 if memory serves me) which makes me think that they're doing something more complex than just what I mentioned. Also, the URL requested started with /tcp/ which I found interesting. Note: I don't expect to ever have more than 150 users live-chatting in all the rooms combined at the same time. I understand that if I was building a hosted pay for chat service like CampFire with thousands of concurrent users, it would behoove me to invest time in researching special technologies vs trying to reinvent the wheel in a simple way in my app. Also, if you're going to do it with server polling, how often would you personally poll to maximize response without slamming the server?

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  • CSS Background image in Redmine template arbitrarily not loading

    - by Pekka
    I`m in the process of building a template for Redmine (a project management system based on Ruby on Rails.) Ruby is running on a virtual server from a Bitnami.org installation package. The OS is Windows. The template essentially consists of a styles.css file. In that file, I have the following line: #header { padding: 0px; padding-top: 48px; background-color: #62DFFF; background-image: url(../images/bkg.jpg) background-position: center bottom; background-repeat: repeat-x; height:150px; } It's a header element with a background image. The problem: This background image arbitrarily appears and disappears when reloading. Say you reload ten times in twenty seconds; the image will appear in two instances, and be missing in the 18 others. I would have put this down to server problems, but the weird thing is that when it's missing, the request for the image doesn't appear in Firebug's net tab at all. Even if it were cached, the request should be there. Raw screenshots of the identical page on two reloads: I am 100% sure the CSS file does not change in between. I have examined both instances with Firebug and the CSS is identical. It happens in both Firefox and Chrome so it must be something basic I'm overlooking. What could be causing a browser not to load a resource at all? I have zero idea about Ruby nor Rails - getting Redmine running and customized is all I have ever had to do with this platform - so I don't really know where to look. Apache's, Mongrel's and Redmine's error logs look fine, though.

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  • MsSql Server high Resource Waits and Head Blocker

    - by MartinHN
    Hi I have a MS SQL Server 2008 Standard installation running a database for a webshop. The current size of the database is 2.5 GB. Running on Windows 2008 Standard. Dual Intel Xeon X5355 @ 2.00 GHz. 4 GB RAM. When I open the Activity Monitor, I see that I have a Wait Time (ms/sec) of 5000 in the "Other" category. In the Processes list, all connections from the webshop, the Head Blocker value is 1. I see every day that when I try to access the website, it can take 20-30 secs before it even starts to "work". I know that it is not network latency. (I have a 301 redirect from the same server that is executed instantly). When the first request has been served, it seems as if it's not a sleep anymore and every subsequent request is served instantly with the speed of light. The problem was worse two weeks ago, until I changed every query to include WITH (NOLOCK). But I still experience the problem, and the Wait times in the Activity Monitor is about the same. The largest table (Images) has 32764 rows (448576 KB). Some tables exceed 300000 rows, thought they're much smaller in size than the Images table. I have the default clustered index for every primary key column, only. Any ideas?

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  • What's the role of the brackets in the following piece of code?

    - by Emanuil
    This is the tracking code for Google Analytics: var _gaq = _gaq || []; _gaq.push(["_setAccount", "UA-256257-21"]); _gaq.push(["_trackPageview"]); (function() { var ga = document.createElement("script"); ga.type = "text/javascript"; ga.async = true; ga.src = ("https:" == document.location.protocol ? "https://ssl" : "http://www") + ".google-analytics.com/ga.js"; var s = document.getElementsByTagName("script")[0]; s.parentNode.insertBefore(ga, s); })(); You can see that the function in the second paragraph is inside brackets. Why do you think is that?

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  • How to make safe frequent DataSource switches for AbstractRoutingDataSource?

    - by serg555
    I implemented Dynamic DataSource Routing for Spring+Hibernate according to this article. I have several databases with same structure and I need to select which db will run each specific query. Everything works fine on localhost, but I am worrying about how this will hold up in real web site environment. They are using some static context holder to determine which datasource to use: public class CustomerContextHolder { private static final ThreadLocal<CustomerType> contextHolder = new ThreadLocal<CustomerType>(); public static void setCustomerType(CustomerType customerType) { Assert.notNull(customerType, "customerType cannot be null"); contextHolder.set(customerType); } public static CustomerType getCustomerType() { return (CustomerType) contextHolder.get(); } public static void clearCustomerType() { contextHolder.remove(); } } It is wrapped inside some ThreadLocal container, but what exactly does that mean? What will happen when two web requests call this piece of code in parallel: CustomerContextHolder.setCustomerType(CustomerType.GOLD); //<another user will switch customer type here to CustomerType.SILVER in another request> List<Item> goldItems = catalog.getItems(); Is every web request wrapped into its own thread in Spring MVC? Will CustomerContextHolder.setCustomerType() changes be visible to other web users? My controllers have synchronizeOnSession=true. How to make sure that nobody else will switch datasource until I run required query for current user? Thanks.

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  • Changing a url depending on what link chosen (HTML) no asp.

    - by Ozaki
    TLDR I need to change a javascript variable on the same page after clicking a link (can be from a different page) so that the getjson request pulls different data without having to duplicate on html pages. I am using some getJSON requests with Jquery, to make calls to populate my pages. I want to be able to (in plain HTML / javascript) when the user clicks say "link 1" or "link 2" to open the same page (say page.html) but change the get request url to "link 1" or "link 2". Page.html var url = ??; $.getJSON(url, function(data){} link 1 var url = host/link1 <a href="page.html">link1</a> link2 var url = host/link2 <a href="page.html">link2</a> So I call the same page but am able to populate it with different content. Purposely staying away from asp. Was thinking maybe of inserting the content into a div after page load so the url can be set or something along those lines. Any ideas how I might go about this?

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